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35 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
- 3rd side (hint)
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Characteristic of most gram-positive bacteria. |
A. Envelope is abundant of lipopolysaccharide B. Cell wall is abundant of lipotechoic acid C. Usually produces endotoxin D. With porin channels |
B Gram positive bacteria do not contain lipopolysaccharide and porin channel. It usually produces exotoxin. |
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Characteristic of most gram-negative bacteria. |
A. Contain thick peptidoglycan B. Undergo sporulation on harsh environment C. Colorless after contact with decolorizer D. Red color after contact with carbol fuchsin |
C Gram negative bacteria contain thin peptidoglycan, no techoic acid and can't sporulate (only bacillus and clostridium which are gram positive). |
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Codes for antibiotic resistance. |
A. Plasmid B. Fimbriae C. Endospore D. Capsule |
A Resistance or R plasmids contain genes that help a bacterial cell defend against environmental factors such as poisons or antibiotics. |
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Encodes gene for sexual pili. |
A. S factor B. P factor C. F factor D. X factor |
C |
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Mucoid colony on media possesses what kind of virulence factor? |
A. H antigen B. Vi antigen C. K antigen D. Both B and C |
D H antigen is a flagellar antigen *Vi antigen is a capsular antigen of S. typhi |
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Tuft of flagella that can extend from one end or both ends of the cell. |
A. Amphitrichous B. Peritrichous C. Lopotrichous D. Atrichous |
C
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Inhibits phagocytosis. |
A. Capsule B. Periplasmic space C. Outer membrane D. Porin channels |
A The capsule can protect cells from engulfment by eukaryotic cells, such as macrophages. |
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Recombination that is mediated by bacteriophage. |
A. Transformation B. Transduction C. Conjugation D. Mutation |
B |
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Involve in bacterial conjugation. |
A. Fimbriae B. Sex pili C. Endospore D. Mesosome |
B |
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Organisms are most susceptible to antibiotics. |
A. Adjustment phase B. Plateau phase C. Exponential phase D. Death phase |
C Exponential phase or log phase |
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Bacteria adapt to a new environment. |
A. Log phase B. Lag phase C. Stationary phase D. Decline phase |
B Lag phase or adjustment phase |
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What bacteria is usually a human pathogen? |
A. Psychrophile B. Mesophile C. Thermophile D. Hyperthermophile |
B As would be expected from the core temperature of the human body, 37 °C (98.6 °F), normal human microbiota and pathogens are mesophiles. |
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Which statement is false about obligate anaerobe? |
A. Produces catalase and superoxide dismutase B. It is a fermentative but not oxidative C. Can only get their energy from anaerobic respiration D. Absolutely 0% oxygen needed for growth |
A Can't produce these enzymes because obligate anaerobes don't need oxygen basically, so breaking down oxygen radicals are unnecessary. |
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Does not grow on atmosphere with oxygen but can protect themselves from its presence. |
A. Capnophiles B. Microaerophiles C. Facultative anaerobe D. Aerotolerant bacteria |
D Microaerophiles need oxygen because they cannot ferment or respire anaerobically. However, they are poisoned by high concentrations of oxygen. Aerotolerant organisms do not require oxygen as they metabolize energy anaerobically. Unlike obligate anaerobes, they are not poisoned by oxygen. |
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A bacterial culture was made from a nebulizer tube. What organism is less likely to be isolated? |
A. Obligate aerobes B. Facultative anaerobes C. Obligate anaerobes D. Both B and C |
C Nebulizer tube is an oxygen-exposed atmosphere. So A and B can grow and be isolated but C, not really. |
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Salt-loving bacteria |
A. Heterotrophic bacteria B. Autotrophic bacteria C. Halophile D. Acidophile |
C |
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Which of the following statement is true about endotoxin? |
A. Often produce by gram-positive bacteria B. Bacteria undergoes autolysis before the toxin is release C. Can be converted into toxoid D. Tetanospasmin is an example of endotoxin |
B |
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The best anticoagulant used for blood culture when the patient was already introduced with antibiotics. |
A. EDTA B. Heparin C. Sodium polyanethol sulfonate D. Citrate |
C SPS prevents clotting, prevent phagocytosis, neutralizes bactericidal effect of human serum, and inactivates some antimicrobials (ARD function). |
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What is the purpose of collecting blood for culture from two or three different sites? |
A. To isolate various type of bacteria base on the different collection sites B. Some bacteria on the blood are confined on one location C. Left arm are more prone to bacteremia D. To rule out growth due to contamination |
D |
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Sputum sample suitable for culture. |
A. <25 WBC; >25 Squamous B. >25 WBC; >25 Squamous C. >25 WBC; <10 Squamous D. 0 WBC; <10 Squamous |
C |
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Significant bacteriuria. |
A. >100,000 CFU/mL B. >1,000,000 CFU/mL C. >50,000 CFU/mL D. >500,000 CFU/mL |
A |
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Bacteria that aligned themselves side by side. |
A. Fusiform B. Pleomorphism C. Palisade D. Tetrad |
C |
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Contributes the blue color of gram-positive bacteria. |
A. Lipopolysaccharide B. Techoic acid C. Outer membrane D. Lipoprotein |
B A, C and D are both found in Gram-negative bacteria |
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A step of gram staining that gram positive organism can already be differentiated from gram negative. |
A. Primary staining B. Mordant C. Decolorizer D. Secondary staining |
C On the third step of gram staining, gram-positive bacteria remain blue but gram-negative bacteria become colorless. |
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You use malachite green as secondary AFB stain. If the smear is AFB-positive, what is the expected color of the gram-positive Lactobacillus? |
A. Red B. Green C. Blue D. Colorless |
B |
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How do you report the following result? 95 AFB/100 fields. |
A. 1+ B. 2+ C. 3+ D. 4+ |
A |
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You performed urine culture using 1 uL calibrated loop. On the next morning, you observe 50 convex colonies. What is the colony count? |
A. 50,000 CFU/mL B. 5,000 CFU/mL C. 500,000 CFU/mL D. 5,000,000 CFU/mL |
A 1 ul calibrated loop - colony X 1000 10 ul calibrated loop - colony X 100 Unit - CFU/mL |
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Greenish hemolysis on sheep blood agar. |
A. Alpha B. Beta C. Gamma D. Delta |
A Alpha-hemolysin partially breaks down the red blood cells and leaves a greenish color behind. Maybe because of the presence of biliverdin as a by-product. |
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Virulence factor that can cause Ritter disease. |
A. Hyaluronidase B. Protein A C. Enterotoxin F D. Exfoliatin toxin |
D |
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Can cause toxic shock syndrome among women that regularly use tampon. |
A. Enterotoxin F B. Protein A C. Hyaluronidase D. DNAse |
A |
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This virulence factor of S. aureus has the ability to bind the Fc portion of IgG. Binding IgG can block phagocytosis. |
A. Alpha toxin B. Protein A C. M protein D. Beta toxin |
B |
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Also known as Reynolds-Braude Phenomenon. |
A. Tube-like structure called germ tube B. Hemolytic pattern C. Heterophile antibody reaction D. Satellitism |
A |
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You cultured a CSF specimen from tube #2 that was stored at 10°C. The specimen was then inoculated on Sheep blood agar and New york city medium. The plates were placed on a container with increased CO2 and you put it in the incubator afterwards. The specimen was from a patient with inflamed meninges;however there was no growth on the plates after 48 hours. What is the probable cause? |
A. Choice of media B. Wrong collection tube was used C. Storage temperature of the specimen D. Increase carbon dioxide environment is very toxic to the organism |
C NEVER REFRIGERATE CSF SAMPLE! Important pathogens on CSF cannot survive on cold temperature. |
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Which of the following sample is acceptable? |
A. Freshly void first-morning urine sample B. CSF refrigerated for < 1 hour C. Cotton swab from severely burned patient for anaerobic culture D. Use of SPS blood culture bottle on patient with ongoing antibiotic therapy E. All of the above |
D |
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Layer of bacterial envelope that is targeted by penicillin? |
A. Cytoplasmic membrane B. Outer membrane C. Periplasmic space D. Cell wall |
D Penicillins block the protein struts (transpeptidase) that link the peptidoglycans together. This prevents the bacterium from closing the holes in its cell walls. |
