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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

When we look at the most common electric tools you use in the munitions storage area, when using a drill, what is the first thing you do?



a. Make sure the diameter of the hole to be drilled is within the capacity of the drill.


b. Connect the drill to the power source.


c. Put on your safety goggles.


d. Insert the chuck key.

a

Which article(s) of safety gear must be worn when using a bench grinder?



a. Apron.


b. Gloves.


c. Eye or face protection.


d. Eye protection and gloves.

c

Which diameter (in inches) electric saw blade is the most common found in maintenance activities?



a. 6.


b. 8.


c. 10.


d. 12.

b

An electric saw’s blade must be operating at what speed before it contacts the material being cut?



a. Full.


b. Slow.


c. Moderate.


d. Accelerated.

a

Which pneumatic impact tool is designed to install or remove nuts and bolts?



a. Hammer.


b. Wrench.


c. Socket.


d. Drill.

b

At what variation in pounds of pressure, while using an impact wrench, can the excess pressure become serious?



a. 20.


b. 15.


c. 10.


d. 5.

d

When operating mechanical lifting devices, safety is a function of operating technique, maintenance, management, and



a. sound operational practices.


b. not so common “common sense.”


c. good hand and eye coordination.


d. sound mechanical knowledge of the device.

b

What is worn if there is a potential for injury from falling objects?



a. Gloves.


b. Face shield.


c. Safety goggles.


d. Protective helmets.

d

What is the most common type of sling used in your everyday job?



a. Chain assembly.


b. Web strapping.


c. Metal mesh.


d. Wire rope.

d

Hoist hooks must be replaced when they have more than



a. 5 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 15 degrees twist from the plane.


b. 10 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 15 degrees twist from the plane.


c. 15 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10 degrees twist from the plane.


d. 20 percent in excess of normal throat opening or more than 10 degrees twist from the plane.

c

The following are all good safety practices to consider when using a sling except



a. standing clear of the attached load.


b. keeping the sling well lubricated in order to prevent corrosion.


c. keeping your hands and fingers from between the sling and the load.


d. inspecting the sling by passing your bare hand over the body of the sling.

d

Which meter is a four-wire Kelvin digital ohmmeter used for testing AIM–9 and the AIM–120 missile system?



a. 101–5BFG.


b. AN/PSM–6.


c. AMTEC 620.


d. Galvanometer.

c

The maximum load capacity of the MHU–141/M trailer is



a. 1,500 pounds.


b. 3,000 pounds.


c. 5,500 pounds.


d. 5,700 pounds.

c

The steering system on the MHU–141/M trailer has a turning radius of how many inches?



a. 100.


b. 200.


c. 400.


d. 550.

b

When the MHU–141 trailer is loaded or towed with the hinged deck open, what must be done?



a. The two deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and locked in place with quick-release pins.


b. The two deck-panel supports must be properly positioned and locked in place with bolts and self-locking nuts.


c. The two deck-panel supports remain in the stowed position with quick-release pins.


d. The trailer cannot be towed with the deck panels opened.

a

The MHU–141/M trailer parking brake is classified as



a. electrical.


b. hydraulic.


c. mechanical.


d. automatic surge.

c

What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU–110/M trailer?



a. 5,000 pounds.


b. 5,500 pounds.


c. 15,000 pounds.


d. 15,500 pounds.

c

The parking brakes on the MHU–110/M trailer are applied to which wheels?



a. Four inboard rear.


b. Two onboard rear.


c. Rear two outboard rear.


d. Front two outboard rear.

a

How many trolley and chock assemblies are supplied with the MHU–110/M respectively?



a. 10 and 20.


b. 20 and 40.


c. 20 and 10.


d. 40 and 20.

b

What is the maximum load capacity of the MHU–226 trailer?



a. 6,000 pounds.


b. 9,000 pounds.


c. 12,000 pounds.


d. 15,000 pounds.

c

How many openings are on the deck of the MHU–226 trailer?



a. One.


b. Two.


c. Three.


d. Four.

c

What type of steering aids the MHU–226 in a tighter steering radius?



a. Rack and pinion.


b. Automotive type.


c. Recirculating ball.


d. Double Ackerman.

d

What ensures the HCU–6/E pallets transfer smoothly from a rollerized trailer to an aircraft/K-loader?



a. A winch.


b. The use of J-bars.


c. An adjustable ramp.


d. The speed the pallet is moved.

c

After HCU–6/E pallets are positioned on a rollerized trailer, what can you use to secure the pallets to the trailer?



a. Tie-down straps only.


b. Tie-down cables only.


c. Nails or wood bracing.


d. MB–1 chain assemblies or tie-down straps.

d

Moving munitions and weapons from one base to another, depot to base, or base to depot is called what kind of movement?



a. An off-base.


b. A logistical.


c. An interbase.


d. An operational.

b

What kind of movement supports on-base operations to or from the flight line?



a. On-base.


b. Intrabase.


c. Operational.


d. Logistical.

c

All of these are loaded into transport modules except?



a. BDU–33.


b. MK 106.


c. ALE–50.


d. 20 MM.

d

What transport module has a maximum capacity of 30 magazines?



a. BDU–33.


b. ALE–40.


c. ALE–50.


d. 20 MM.

c

How often should the positive locking devices on a transport module be checked?



a. After loading, unloading, and periodically between stops.


b. After loading and periodically between stops.


c. At the beginning of each day.


d. After unloading is complete.

a

Which lift truck has a manually extendible wheelbase?



a. 6,000-pound all-terrain forklift.


b. MHU–83-series bomb-lift truck.


c. MJ–1-series aerial stores lift truck.


d. 6,000-pound rough-terrain forklift.

b

The purpose of the transport beam beneath the lift arm assemblies on the MJ–1-series lift truck is to



a. provide added support and to relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms in carrying loads for long distances.


b. provide added support and to relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift boom in carrying loads for long distances.


c. relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift boom when the lift truck is parked.


d. relieve excess hydraulic pressure from the lift arms when the lift truck is parked.

a

How many pounds max can the MJ–1 lift?



a. 3,000.


b. 3,500.


c. 6,000.


d. 6,500.

a

What is the lifting capacity of the MHU–83-series lift truck?



a. 3,000 pounds.


b. 3,500 pounds.


c. 6,000 pounds.


d. 7,000 pounds.

d

When using the MHU–83B with fork adapters, you immediately



a. reduce its lifting capacity by 800 pounds.


b. increase its lifting capacity by 800 pounds.


c. reduce its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds.


d. increase its lifting capability by 1,000 pounds.

c

What happens when you release the accelerator pedal on a vehicle driven with a hydrostatic transmission?



a. The lift truck stops immediately.


b. The unit rolls until its inertia is spent.


c. The unit coasts to a stop very quickly.


d. The transmission automatically drops to a lower gear, stopping forward motion.

c

How many cubic feet is the rated capacity of air per minute needed for the MC–7 air compressor to discharge 100 psi of pressure?



a. 50.


b. 75.


c. 100.


d. 125.

d

What is the MC–7 air compressor designed for?



a. Vehicle maintenance.


b. General maintenance.


c. Aircraft servicing.


d. Paint sprayers.

b

The diesel model of the MC–7 air compressor is capable of operating up to how many hours at a time without refueling?



a. 4.


b. 6.


c. 8.


d. 10.

c

The maximum tow capacity of the bobtail towing support equipment is how many pounds?



a. 20,000.


b. 30,000.


c. 40,000.


d. 50,000.

c

The maximum towing speed of the bobtail while towing equipment is



a. 10 mph.


b. 15 mph.


c. 20 mph.


d. 25 mph.

b

What is the purpose behind good operator maintenance of all assigned vehicles?



a. Mission readiness.


b. Reduce maintenance costs.


c. Maintain vehicle serviceability at reduced cost.


d. Make sure vehicles are serviceable and in good condition.

c

How many pounds maximum can the MB–4 aircraft towing tractor tow and push?



a. 120,000.


b. 130,000.


c. 140,000.


d. 150,000.

c

What should you do if the differential shift lever of the MB–4 aircraft towing tractor is difficult to shift?



a. Pump the clutch several times and attempt to shift the lever.


b. Drive forward or backward a short distance, stop the tractor, and attempt to shift the lever.


c. Shift the transmission through all of the gears including reverse, and then attempt to shift the lever.


d. Shift the transmission back and forth between forward and reverse gears, then attempt to shift the lever.

b

Which position should the differential shift lever be in while driving the MB–4 towing tractor on dry road surfaces?



a. Unlocked.


b. Locked.


c. Neutral.


d. Drive.

a

Pintle safety pins must remain attached to the pintle assembly



a. to prevent the possibility of foreign object damage.


b. to ensure it is available when needed.


c. to prevent the pintle from unlocking.


d. by a chain only.

a

What range should be selected in a tractor with an automatic transmission while going down grades?



a. Neutral.


b. Low range.


c. High range.


d. Any range is acceptable.

b

What is the purpose of the trailer hand valve (Johnson bar)?



a. Test the trailer brakes.


b. Slow the tractor on wet pavement.


c. Slow the tractor to prevent skidding.


d. Straighten the trailer in a jackknife skid.

a

Which procedure is not a consideration for backing a tractor/trailer combination?



a. Use a spotter.


b. Use mirrors on both sides.


c. Turn toward the driver’s side.


d. Turn toward the passenger’s side.

d

What is the maximum depth of water you may drive a rough-terrain forklift through?



a. Three feet.


b. Four feet.


c. Five feet.


d. Six feet.

c

Which forklift has the solid front axle and a pivot pin that allows the front end to pivot when turning the steering wheel, making it very dangerous when climbing in or out?



a. Adverse-terrain.


b. Variable-reach.


c. Rough-terrain.


d. Swingmast.

a

What is the maximum speed limit of a forklift when operating around aircraft?



a. 5 mph.


b. 10 mph.


c. 15 mph.


d. 20 mph.

a

When are unfuzed loaded weapons transported on the tines of a forklift?



a. Never, this is an example of a safety violation.


b. When mission accomplishment is at risk and permission of the squadron commander is given in writing.


c. When the weapons body is strong enough to prevent damage and is long enough to be transported safely.


d. Only when no other transport vehicle is available and the weapons are securely fastened to the forklift tines.

c

When can you store powered equipment in a building with explosives?



a. Never, this violates storage regulations.


b. Only when such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations.


c. Anytime, as long as the equipment is kept 10 feet from combustible material.


d. Only when stored in fire-resistive buildings and such equipment is essential to day-to-day operations.

d

Which weapons replaceable assembly has no moving parts?



a. Conveyor.


b. Transfer unit.


c. Trailer chassis.


d. Storage container.

d

Which weapons replaceable assembly receives ammunition from three bays of the container assembly and merges them into a single stream?



a. Conveyor.


b. Transfer unit.


c. Storage container.


d. Ammunition drum.

b

Which weapons replaceable assembly consists of the flex drive assembly?



a. Conveyor.


b. Transfer unit.


c. Storage container.


d. Ammunition drum.

a

Which component of the conveyor assembly transfers rounds into the aircraft gun feed system?



a. Transfer unit assembly.


b. Conveyor belt assembly.


c. Storage container assembly.


d. Universal aircraft interface unit.

d

What is the maximum number of rounds the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) drum can hold?



a. 2,000.


b. 2,100.


c. 2,200.


d. 2,400.

b

Which subassembly of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) provides the means to load live rounds into the aircraft gun system?



a. Inner drum.


b. Outer drum.


c. Interface unit.


d. Ammunition conveyor.

c

Which of the following is not counted by the three counters on the interface unit of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) record during load/download operations?



a. Live rounds loaded.


b. Spent cases downloaded.


c. Cleared rounds downloaded.


d. Damaged rounds downloaded.

d

The bypass mode of the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) allows the gun to cycle



a. manually.


b. without using the counter.


c. without using the interface unit.


d. without loading or downloading ammunitions or links.

d

What is the inspection cycle for the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher?



a. Every 30 days when in use and annually when in storage.


b. Every 45 days when in use and annually when in storage.


c. Every 60 days when in use and annually when in storage.


d. Every 90 days when in use and annually when in storage.

a

Which subassembly on the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher prevents accidentally loading a spent cartridge into the loader assembly?



a. Drive assembly.


b. Delinker loader unit.


c. Empty space preclusion device.


d. Rigid ammunition chute assembly.

c

What tool can initiate cycling ammunition through the universal ammunition loading system (UALS) replenisher manually?



a. ¼-inch speed wrench.


b. ½-inch speed wrench.


c. ¼-inch ratchet and socket.


d. ½-inch ratchet and socket.

b

What happens to the unfired rounds returning from the loader when the linked ammunition is being processed?



a. Manually separated and counted for the next upload.


b. Automatically counted and then uploaded back into the loader.


c. Manually downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher.


d. Automatically downloaded through the second gate in the bottom of the replenisher.

d

Which 30 millimeter (mm) cannon is internally mounted in the A–10 aircraft?



a. M39.


b. M61.


c. GAU–8/A.


d. GPU–5/A.

c

During in-shop maintenance, 30 mm ammunition loading assembly power comes from the



a. GFU–7/E.


b. GFU–8/E.


c. GPU–5/A.


d. GAU–8/A.

b

Which 30 mm ammunition loading system is used to service the GPU–5/A gun pod?



a. GFU–7/E.


b. GFU–8/E.


c. GFU–10/E.


d. GFU–11/E.

c

Which component of the A/E32K–3 munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) can be used as a forklift adapter to raise the gantry to full height?



a. Gantry.


b. Rail conveyor.


c. Pneumatic hoist.


d. Interface control board (ICB).

d

The triple bomb bar is fitted with bomb slings and is used with each hoist to provide for lifting



a. three 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items.


b. three 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item.


c. two 500-pound munitions at a time or two 2,000-pound munitions items.


d. two 500-pound munitions at a time or one 2,000-pound munitions item.

a

How many feet minimum is the area required to assemble the A/E32K–3?



a. 50 × 100.


b. 75 × 150.


c. 100 × 200.


d. 100 × 500.

a

Why is it important to monitor net explosive weight (NEW) during a bomb buildup operation?



a. Excessive NEW at your location probably means a shortage at other sites.


b. Excessive NEW at your location means you may run out of operating room.


c. If ignited, excessive NEW may cause propagation of an explosive from one location to another.


d. Excessive NEW means the breakout crew has to work harder just to keep up with the flow of munitions.

c

Which component of the munitions assembly conveyor (MAC) is disassembled last?



a. Gantry.


b. Conveyor.


c. Arming wire dispenser.


d. Interface control board.

a

What does not apply to munitions and explosives in the transportation mode?



a. Tie-down criteria.


b. Placarding requirements.


c. Compatibility requirements.


d. Quantity distance (QD) criteria.

d

Generally, transportation of munitions and explosives on an Air Force installation is subject to the criteria in



a. 11A–1–63.


b. Title 49 CFR.


c. TO 11A–1–10.


d. AFMAN 91–201.

d

When is it permissible to transport explosives in privately owned vehicles (POV)?



a. Never.


b. During contingency operations.


c. Must have written approval from squadron commander.


d. Movements beginning and ending within the confines of a military base or installation.

a

When is it permissible to leave explosives-laden vehicles unattended?



a. Never.


b. During shift change.


c. During electrical storms.


d. During contingency operations.

c

What is the philosophy when designing explosive movement routes?



a. Designate the most concealed possible primary and alternate explosives routes.


b. Designate the securest possible primary and alternate explosives routes.


c. Designate the fastest possible primary and alternate explosives routes.


d. Designate the safest possible primary and alternate explosives routes.

d

The purpose of placarding explosives-laden vehicles is to provide



a. a general warning to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance.


b. withdrawal distances to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance.


c. vehicle identification to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance.


d. explosives identification to all personnel and to furnish specific fire-fighting guidance.

a

What may be omitted from munitions and explosives transported on base?



a. Compatibility group letters.


b. Placards for transporting HD 1.4 material.


c. Placards where necessary to avoid attention of hostile forces.


d. All of the above.

d

While using TO 11–1–38, if a conflict occurs between the illustrations and the written procedures, which takes precedence?



a. Use either one.


b. The illustrations.


c. The written procedures.


d. Consult your shop chief.

c

What type of information is given in the general notes on the first card of each trailer and weapon-type section in TO 11–1–38 and is required to be reviewed?



a. Illustrations for each trailer configuration.


b. Equipment and quantity required for each trailer.


c. Equipment and quantity required for each trailer and weapon.


d. WARNINGS, CAUTIONS, and NOTES pertaining to each trailer and weapon.

d

If you cannot close the load-binder handle by hand,



a. use a cheater bar to close the handle.


b. use an extension to secure the handle.


c. adjust the load-binder hooks on the chain.


d. replace the defective load binder with one that works.

c

What chapter of TO 11–1–38 covers configuration of the MHU–141/M trailer?



a. One.


b. Two.


c. Three.


d. Four.

a

What piece of equipment must be used with the MHU–110/M to prevent the trailer from becoming unstable while loading or unloading?



a. M10 adapter.


b. Wheel chocks.


c. Rail extenders.


d. Stabilizer jack.

d

Which are constructed and attached to the bed of a 40-foot trailer to facilitate support of rounded munitions?



a. Chocks.


b. Wooden rails.


c. Conveyor belt.


d. Pneumatic hoist.

b

What provides an itemized list of all equipment authorized for use with nuclear weapons?



a. Master nuclear certification list.


b. TO 00–35D–54.


c. TO 11A–1–10.


d. TO 11A–1–63.

a

How are items identified as being nuclear certified?



a. A certified item will be stamped “Nuclear certified.”


b. A certified item will be stenciled “Nuclear certified.”


c. Positive identification by a stamp, stencil, or etching.


d. Positive identification by a nameplate, label, appropriate markings, or by official documents.

d

Which statement about pintle hooks and their use in operations with nuclear weapons is not correct?



a. Original equipment pintle hook assemblies are not authorized.


b. Off-center rear of vehicle pintle hooks shall not be used for nuclear operations.


c. Replacements are authorized if procured and installed per appropriate technical orders.


d. Front mounted pintle hooks are only authorized for local positioning tasks such as inner warehousing.

a

Which equipment does not require nuclear safety certification before being used in operations with nuclear weapons?



a. Combat delivery vehicles.


b. General-purpose hand tools.


c. Noncombat delivery vehicles.


d. Equipment used to transport nuclear weapons.

b

Which action is not an authorized method for securing loose chain assembly ends?



a. Wrap the loose ends around the tie-down device; tape to the device.


b. Loop the excess chain around the chain assembly; secure with duct tape.


c. Coil the excess chain around itself; secure with pressure-sensitive adhesive tape.


d. Wrap the loose ends around the container tie-down point; secure with a cable tie.

a

After final tightening of the cable-type load binder, verify



a. the cable deflection is less than ¾ inch using hand pressure only.


b. threads (more than one) are exposed inside the turnbuckle.


c. the wing nuts are close to but not touching the turnbuckle.


d. the clevis is centered on the tie-down point.

b

How many CGU–1/B straps are you authorized to use for one MB–1 tie-down assembly?



a. One.


b. Two.


c. Three.


d. Four.

b

How do you extend the CGU–1/B strap?



a. Close the tensioning mechanism; pull the strap.


b. Release the adjusting mechanism; pull the strap.


c. Engage the release mechanism; the strap automatically releases.


d. Disengage the spindle mechanism; the strap automatically releases.

b

The key factors to consider during a nuclear weapons movement are



a. time and money.


b. safety and security.


c. people and equipment.


d. people and the mode of transportation.

b

Which term describes the type of area used during a delay of an off-base shipment involving nuclear weapons?



a. Secure area.


b. No-lone zone.


c. Close-in security.


d. National defense.

d

How often are couriers certified?



a. Every six months.


b. Every two years.


c. Every five years.


d. Annually.

d

What AF IMT form is used to transfer custody of missile warheads?



a. AF IMT 505.


b. AF IMT 514.


c. AF IMT 1348–1.


d. AF IMT 2009–1.

b

When are nuclear weapons moved by convoy?



a. When on base or within the confines of a military installation only.


b. When off base and traveling over state highways only.


c. Only when more than one vehicle is involved.


d. Every time weapons are moved.

d

What is the most difficult job for escort guards during a convoy?



a. Keeping other vehicles from entering the convoy.


b. Maintaining the proper speed required in a convoy.


c. Keeping the proper distance from the security forces.


d. Identifying the correct checkpoints along the convoy route.

a