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679 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How many forms of lubricants are there? |
Three |
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What type of drawing is used to show details of parts, components, and other objects?
• Orthographic • Exploded View • Block • Pictorial |
Orthographic |
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To determine the type of lubricant and equipment to be used in a given area of an aircraft, you should refer to which of the following publications.
• MIM only • MRC only • Both 1 and 2 above • OPNAVINST 4790.2 (series)
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Both 1 and 2 above |
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What safety term is used to indicate an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that is essential to emphasize?
• NOTE • WARNING • ALERT • CAUTION |
NOTE |
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What system/program is used to acquire, store, and disseminate data on hazardous materials procured for use?
• Hazardous Material Information program (HMIP) • Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) • Navy Occupational Health and Safety (NAVOSH) • Hazardous Material Information System (HMIS)
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Hazardous Material Information System (HMIS) |
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Typically, a mobile electronic weighing system can be set up by two men in what minimum number of minutes?
. 30 min . 20 min . 15 min . 10 min |
30 min |
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How many basic categories of malfunctions are there?
• Five • Three • Two • Four
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Four |
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What publication outlines the requirements, procedures, and responsibilities for weight and balance control?
• NA 01-1A-50 • NA 01-1B-50 • OPNAVINST 4790.2 • NA 01-1B-40 |
NA 01-1B-50 |
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Thin lines terminated with arrowheads at each end are known by what name?
• Dimension lines • Leader lines • Extension lines • Hidden lines |
Dimension lines |
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Upon task assignment, you must record the tool container number on what copy of the VIDS/MAF?
• Copy 5 • Copy 3 • Copy 2 • Copy 1
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Copy 1 |
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After removing an aircraft from the scales, you must reweigh it if the scales do NOT return to zero within what number of minutes?
• 5 min • 10 min • 20 min • 15 min |
10 min |
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Why are lubricants necessary in aircraft components? • To minimize friction • To cool parts • To prevent corrosion • To prevent wear |
To minimize friction |
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Thin lines made up of long and short dashes alternately spaced and consistent in length are known by what name? • Center lines • Dimension lines • Hidden lines • Extension lines |
Center lines |
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Ensuring that tools are procured and issued in a controlled manner consistent with the approved tool control plan is the responsibility of what officer? • The material control officer • The quality assurance officer • The maintenance officer • The assistant maintenance officer |
The material control officer |
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Who is responsible for training work center personnel in the use of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)? • The work center supervisor • The maintenance control chief • The division officer • The safety officer |
The work center supervisor |
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What section of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identifies personal protective equipment required? • Section VII • Section II • Section VIII • Section V |
Section VIII |
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Heavy-duty portable scales must be calibrated at least how often? • Twice every 6 months • Prior to use • Once every 6 months • Once every 12 months |
Once every 6 months |
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What document should you consult for safety precautions for a specific lubricant? • Aircraft MIMs • NAVAIR 01-1A-509 • Aircraft MRCs • Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) |
Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) |
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You are troubleshooting a malfunction and conducting the final operational check. What is the minimum number of times the affected system must be actuated? • 5 • 7 • 3 • 10 |
5 |
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Efficient troubleshooting of an electrically controlled hydraulic system may require you to use a multimeter for which of the following reasons? • To read the electrical portion of a Schematic • Check frequency • Check voltage and continuity • Relieve the AE of solving the problems |
To read the electrical portion of a Schematic |
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After conducting a visual inspection and an operational check, what troubleshooting step should be next? • Classify the trouble • Locate the trouble • Isolate the trouble • Correct the trouble |
Classify the trouble |
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Which of the following is NOT a type of aircraft lifting sling? • Structural steel • Fabric webbing • Wire rope • Snatch cable |
Snatch cable |
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Which of the following reports should be used to report poor quality tools to FLEMATSUPPO? • EI • CAT I QDR • HMR • CAT II QDR |
CAT II QDR |
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Which of the following components is NOT normally a part of a weighing kit? • A plumb bob • A chalk line • A hydrometer • A spirit level |
A hydrometer |
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What total number of common methods are used to apply lubricants? • Three • Four • Two • One |
Four |
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What is the primary purpose of a spoiler? • Decrease lift • Increase lift • Reduce airspeed • Increase airspeed |
Decrease lift |
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A leg extension kit for a variable height tripod jack will increase its effective height by what total amount of inches? • 6 inches • 12 inches • 24 inches • 18 inches |
18 inches |
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What are the two types of aircraft jacks used by the Navy? • Hand carried and T-bar • Axle and airframe (tripod) • Horseshoe and camel • T-bar and camel |
Axle and airframe (tripod) |
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Aircraft jacks are serviced with what type of fluid? • General-purpose oil • Aircraft hydraulic fluid • Support equipment hydraulic fluid • Synthetic oil |
Aircraft hydraulic fluid |
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The load imposed on the wings during flight acts primarily on what structural member(s)? • Beams • Spars • Skin • Ribs |
Skin |
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What is the primary unit(s) that houses an aircraft engine? • Bulkhead • Nacelle • Mount beam • Stringers, formers, and frames |
Nacelle |
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You should examine and lubricate all lifting slings at least how often? • Twice a week • Twice a month • Once a week • Once a month |
Once a month |
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Which of the following is a primary flight control? • Spoiler • Trim tab • Wing flap • Rudder |
Rudder |
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During jacking operation, the tie-down chain preload is too high when which of the following conditions exists? • The jack baseplate is seated flush with the Deck • The tensioning grip cannot be rotated by hand • The jack safety valve bypasses fluid • The first stage locknut does not turn |
The tensioning grip cannot be rotated by hand |
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In reference to a cable, what does the term "bird cage" mean? • A neatly coiled cable • A kink that has been pulled through in order to straighten a cable • A cable that is improperly stored • A cable that is manufactured to look like a bird cage |
A kink that has been pulled through in order to straighten a cable |
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When the control stick of an aircraft equipped with a flaperon system is moved to the left, the left and right flaperons will be in which of the following positions? • Left down, right flush • Left up, right flush • Left flush, right down • Left down, right up |
Left up, right flush |
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To roll an aircraft clockwise, you must cause which of the following changes in flight control positions? • Lower the left aileron and raise the right one • Raise the elevators and move the rudder(s) to the left • Raise the left aileron and lower the right one • Lower the elevators and move the rudder(s) to the right |
Raise the left aileron and lower the right one |
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What are the internal chordwise structural members of a wing assembly? • Spars • Stringers • Rib • Rings |
Spars |
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In a semimonocoque fuselage design, longerons are supplemented by what other longitudinal members? • Station webs • Vertical rings • Stringers • Bulkheads |
Stringers |
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Hoisting restrictions for a specific type of aircraft can be found in which of the following publications? • Applicable MIM • NAVAIR 01-1A-8 • NAVAIR 15-02-500B • NAVAIR 01-1A017 |
Applicable MIM |
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The shear load on a reinforced shell type fuselage is primarily carried by what structural component(s)? • The formers • The stringers • The skin • The keel |
The skin |
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You are using three tripod jacks to jack an aircraft aboard a ship. What is the minimum number of tie-down chains that will be attached to the jacks? • 18 • 12 • 3 • 9 |
3 |
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Special inspections for tripod jacks are required at what intervals? • Every 8 weeks • Every 13 weeks • Every 7 weeks • Every 10 weeks |
Every 13 weeks |
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Longitudinal control systems control movement of the aircraft about which of the following axes? • Lateral, vertical, and longitudinal • Vertical only • Lateral only • Longitudinal only |
Lateral only |
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The skin of a wing assembly is fastened to which of the following structural components? • Ribs only • Spars only • Formers only • Ribs, spars, and formers |
Ribs, spars, and formers |
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A group of wires twisted together is known by what name? • A cable • A strand • A core • A wire rope |
A strand |
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What is another name for the T-bar axle jack? • Alligator jack • Hard tail jack • Crocodile jack • Toothpick jack |
Alligator jack |
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Which of the following types of flaps operate on tracks and rollers? • Split • Leading edge • Plain • Fowler
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Fowler |
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To find load testing and inspection information on aircraft lifting slings, you should consult what publication? • NAVAIR 17-1-114 • NAVAIR 01-1A-17 • NAVAIR 17-15E-52 • NAVAIR 01-1A-20 |
NAVAIR 17-1-114 |
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A tripod jack consists of what total number of basic assemblies? • 6 • 3 • 4 • 8 |
3 |
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What does the core material of reinforced plastic consist of? • Bonding material • Fiber cloth • Honeycomb structure • Liquid resin |
Honeycomb structure |
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What metal property allows a metal to be hammered, rolled, or pressed into various shapes without cracking or breaking? • Brittleness • Malleability • Ductility • Elasticity |
Malleability |
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What structural metal is lightweight, strong, and corrosion resistant? • Nickel • Aluminum • Magnesium • Titanium |
Titanium |
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The shimmy damper on a nose landing gear assembly prevents the nosewheel from shimmying during takeoff and landing by what means? • By accentuating sudden torque loads applied to the nose wheel • By forcing a rotary bar to move against a friction plate • By metering hydraulic fluid through a small orifice between two cylinders or chambers • By actuating a low-rate gear train |
By metering hydraulic fluid through a small orifice between two cylinders or chambers |
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What type of spar is used in the construction of a rotor blade? • Aluminum spar • Magnesium spar • Nickel spar • Titanium spar |
Titanium spar |
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The intermediate shape of steel that has width greater than twice the thickness and from which sheets are rolled is known by what name? • Slab • Ingot • Billet • Bloom |
Slab |
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What metal property allows a metal to carry heat or electricity? • Fusibility • Conductivity • Ductility • Malleability |
Conductivity |
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What high tensile metal is used to manufacture tubes, rods, and wires? • Titanium • Magnesium • Alloy steel • Aluminum |
Alloy steel |
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What property of a metal allows for little bending and deformation without shattering? • Malleability • Hardness • Brittleness • Ductility |
Brittleness |
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What metal property allows a metal to be permanently drawn, bent, or twisted into various shapes without breaking? • Elasticity • Malleability • Brittleness • Ductility |
Ductility |
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The tail landing gear of a helicopter is capable of swiveling how many degrees? • 360° • 180° • 90° • 45° |
360° |
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A boundary layer control is used with which of the following secondary flight controls? • Aileron droop • Trim tabs • Speed brakes • Slats |
Slats |
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What component is used to hold the arresting hook in the down position to prevent it from bouncing when it strikes the carrier deck? • A drag ling • A snubber • A liquid centering spring • A cable assembly |
A snubber |
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Which of the following components is NOT a part of the tail pylon of a helicopter? • The swash plate • The tail gearbox • The horizontal stabilator • The intermediate gearbox |
The swash plate |
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What type of stress is produced in an engine crankshaft while the engine is running? • Torsion • Bending • Tension • Compression |
Torsion |
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During strut compression, fluid passes through an orifice into what camber of an air-oil type shock strut? • Upper • Forward • Lower • Aft |
Upper |
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Which of the following helicopter components provide(s) lift? • The engines • The fuselage • The tail rotor • The rotor blades |
The rotor blades |
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What is the largest portion of metal present in an alloy? • Major component metal • Foundation metal • Main metal • Base metal |
Base metal |
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What type of stress is defined as “stress exerted when two pieces of fastened material tend to separate”? • Shear • Bending • Tension • Compression |
Shear |
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The strength of all metals is closely related to what other characteristic? • Brittleness • Denseness • Hardness • Conductivity |
Hardness |
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When comparing catapult hookup methods on a carrier, the nose gear launch method is superior to the holdback pendant method for all EXCEPT which of the following? • It saves time • It cost less to operate • It requires fewer personnel • It is the safest method |
It cost less to operate |
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What part of an air-oil shock strut controls the rate of flow of the fluid between the piston and the cylinder? • The snubber orifice • The torque arm • The metering pin • The orifice plate |
The snubber orifice |
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When all other metal properties are equal, what method of joining metals structurally has the greatest advantage? • Brazing • Soldering • Riveting • Welding |
Welding |
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How many rotor blades are attached to the main rotor head of an H-60 helicopter? • Two • Five • Four • Three |
Four |
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What main landing gear component of a helicopter includes the weight-on-wheels sensing switch? • Left main landing gear • Tail gear • Sponson • Right main landing gear |
Left main landing gear |
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What type of rivet is used for fastening thick gauge sheets of metal together? • Solid • Blind • Shear • Structural |
Shear |
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Alclad is an aluminum alloy with a protective coating of what material? • Pure aluminum • Manganese • Zinc chromate • Aluminum oxide |
Pure aluminum |
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The use of copper as a structural material is limited because of what factor? • High heat conductivity • Great weight • Cost • High electrical conductivity |
Great weight |
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What is the principal element added to copper to form brass? • Zinc • Lead • Aluminum • Tin |
Zinc |
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What is the principal alloying element of aluminum alloy 2024? • Copper • Magnesium • Manganese • Zinc |
Copper |
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An aluminum alloy containing manganese as the major alloying element is identified by what number? • 7010 • 1035 • 2014 • 3003 |
7010 |
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You can distinguish a plastic enclosure from a glass enclosure by performing which of the following actions? • Checking its reaction to acetone • Checking the ease with which it is drilled • Checking for a nonringing sound while tapping lightly • Checking its reaction to hexane |
Checking for a nonringing sound while tapping lightly |
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Which of the following is NOT a factor in the classification of solid rivets? • Head shape • Size • Color • Material |
Color |
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What is the prime characteristic of aluminum? • Lightweight • Corrosion-resistant properties • Low melting point • Ease of fabrication |
Lightweight |
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How many different weights does a Rockwell hardness tester have? • One • Three • Four • Two |
Three |
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What metal working process involves the forcing of metal through an opening in a die? • Cold working • Cold drawing • Cold rolling • Extruding |
Extruding |
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What metal working process is used to make wire? • Hammering • Pressing • Extruding • Cold drawing |
Cold drawing |
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While holding a piece of metal against a revolving stone, you see red sparks leave the stone and turn to straw color. This is what type of metal? • Cast iron • Wrought iron • Low-carbon steel • Nickel steel |
Low-carbon steel |
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Which of the following processes of joining aluminum alloys produces the strongest joints? • Riveting • Forging • Brazing • Heat treating |
Riveting |
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What position of a rivet identification code identifies the length of the rivet? • 1st • 4th • 2d • 3d |
2d |
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What is the greatest disadvantage in the use of titanium? • Tendency to back away from or resist the cutting edge of tools • Tendency to crack when cold-worked • Strength-to-weight ratio • Brittleness after long exposure to temperatures above 1000° F |
Brittleness after long exposure to temperatures above 1000° F |
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In various aircraft structural components, what materials are replacing and supplementing metallic materials? • Composite material • Sandwich material • Rubber material • Plastic material |
Composite material |
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Which of the following precautions should you take when using a hi-shear (pin) rivet? • Never use them with an aluminum collar • Never use them where the grip length is less than the shank diameter • Never use them on aluminum alloys • Never use them on thick sheets |
Never use them where the grip length is less than the shank diameter |
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What extinguishing agent should be used on a magnesium fire? • Foam • Water • Carbon dioxide • Graphite powder |
Graphite powder |
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When space on one side is too restricted to properly use a bucking bar, what type of rivet should you use? • Blind • Hi-shear • Solid • Flat |
Blind |
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What aluminum alloy should be used when the highest strength is required? • 2014 • 7178 • 1100 • 5052 |
7178 |
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You check the condition of the point of a Barcol hardness tester by using the test disc and find the indicator reading is NOT within the specified range. You should correct this condition by first following what procedure? • Adjust the lower plunger guide • Adjust the upper plunger guide nut • Grind the point • Install a new point |
Adjust the lower plunger guide |
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Each Riehle harness tester is supplied with a diamond penetrator and what size ball penetrator? • 1/32 • 1/8 • 1/16 • 1/64 |
1/16 |
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A 5056 rivet is used to join magnesium alloy materials because of which of the following factors? • Corrosion resistance • Tensile strength • Cold working • Heat resistance |
Corrosion resistance |
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If long and improper storage has caused the adhesive to deteriorate on a sheet of plastic, the masking paper should be moistened with what chemical? • Xylene • Aliphatic naphtha • Ether • Glass cleaner |
Aliphatic naphtha |
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When replacing an original screw in a structure, you should NOT use which of the following screws? • A structural screw • A setscrew • A self-tapping screw • A machine screw |
A self-tapping screw |
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A flat-head pin used in a tie-rod terminal should be secured with what device? • A sheet spring nut • A self-locking nut • A cotter pin • A piece of safety wire |
A cotter pin |
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Which of the following parts is used only on heavy-duty Dzus fasteners? • A pin • A spring • A stud • A grommet |
A grommet |
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A piece of 7 x 19 cable has what total number of wires? • 133 wires • 7 wires • 19 wires • 26 wires |
19 wires |
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A replacement bolt is considered the correct length if at least two threads are extending through the nut? • True • False |
False |
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What distance will the stud of a Camloc fastener have to be turned to release it without permitting re-engagement? • One-half turn clockwise • One-fourth turn clockwise • One-fourth turn counterclockwise • One-half turn counterclockwise |
One-half turn counterclockwise |
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Which of the following is an example of an all-metal self-locking nut? • A wing nut • A flexloc nut • An internal wrenching nut • An elastic stop nut |
A flexloc nut |
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Aircraft cables have the center core twisted in one direction and the outer core in the opposite direction for what reason? • To make the cable stiffer • To minimize the stretch or set • To make the cable rigid • To allow the strands to expand when cut |
To minimize the stretch or set |
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What three types of screws are most commonly used in aircraft construction? • Machine, structural, and self-tapping screw • Brazier-head, round-head, and common screws • Structural, machine, and pan head screws • Self-tapping, Phillips, and common screws |
Machine, structural, and self-tapping screw |
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Flush-head screws are available in what degree(s) of head angles? • 82° only • 82°, 100°, and 125° only • 82° and 100°only • 82°, 100°, 125°, and 145° |
82° and 100°only |
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Aircraft nuts are divided into what two general groups? • Metal insert and fiber insert • High temperature and common • Self-locking and nonself-locking • Ferrous and nonferrous |
Self-locking and nonself-locking |
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Which of the following is NOT a head style of a Jo-bolt?
• Hexagon protruding head • 100-degree flush head • 100-degree flush millable head • Diamond recessed head |
100-degree flush head
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What metal is used in the construction of the threaded pins of Hi-lok fasteners? • Anodized 2024-T6 aluminum • Cadmium-plated alloy steel • Titanium • Stainless |
Cadmium-plated alloy steel |
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What type of fastener is used in an application where a high strength, interference-free fastener is required? • Lock-bolt • Hi-lok • Rivnut • Jo-bolt |
Hi-lok |
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What type of fastener has high strength and is used in applications where access to only one side of the material is available? • Hi-lok • Lock-bolt • Jo-bolt • Rivnut |
Jo-bolt |
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Which of the following is a distinguishing characteristic of a rivnut? • It is oblong • It is hollow • It is square • It is solid |
It is hollow |
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Which of the following types of nuts are designed to be used with cotter pins or safety wire? • Barrel nuts • Plate nuts • Castle nuts • Check nuts |
Castle nuts |
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Which of the following types of screws are as strong as bolts of the same size? • Setscrews • Machine screws • Self-tapping screws • Structural screws |
Structural screws |
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What type of rivet must be used on sealed floatation or pressurized compartments? • Groove shanked • Closed-end • Externally threaded • Open-end |
Open-end |
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Terminal fittings are generally attached to the ends of cables by what method? • Welding • Soldering • Swaging • Splicing |
Swaging |
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A V-band coupling requires what minimum number of turns of safety wire? • Three • Two • Four • One |
Two |
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Which of the following fasteners has a shear and tensile strength at least equal to the requirements of AN or NAS bolts? • Airloc • Turnlock • Rivnut • Lock bolt |
Lock bolt |
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When an assembly is frequently removed, which of the following types of nuts should be used? • Shear nuts • Klincher locknuts • Sheet spring nuts • Wing nuts |
Wing nuts |
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What type of fastener is used on panels that are removed and reinstalled frequently for maintenance repairs? • Turnlock • Jo-bolt • Structural • Hi-lok |
Turnlock |
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When you install a hose between two duct sections, what is the maximum allowable gap between the duct ends? • 1/4 inch • 3/4 inch • 3/8 inch • 7/8 inch |
3/4 inch |
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A fairlead may be used to minimize cable whipping and for what other purpose? • Minimize vibration in long cable runs • Minimize binding • Minimize slacking • Minimize sticking |
Minimize vibration in long cable runs |
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How many different types of cable guides are used throughout an aircraft? • Five • Two • Three • Four |
Four |
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The clip-locking method is the preferred method for safetying a turnbuckle? • True • False |
True |
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Adjustable connector links are used in what type of cable assemblies? • Stretch cable assemblies • Very long cable assemblies • Very short cable assemblies • Thin cable assemblies |
Very long cable assemblies |
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What type of terminals are usually used in emergencies only? • Twist on • Fused-type • Crimped-type • Soldered |
Soldered |
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What type of safety wire is used in high-temperature areas? • Bailing wire • Brass wire • Annealed copper wire • Annealed, corrosion-resistant wire |
Annealed, corrosion-resistant wire |
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A connector assembly consists of how many different parts? • Four • Two • Three • One |
One |
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Cotter pins are used to secure which of the following devices? • Bolts only • Nuts only • Screws only • Bolts, nuts, and screws |
Bolts, nuts, and screws |
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A grommet is manufactured from what material? • Rubber • Aluminum • Copper • Felt |
Rubber |
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The turnbuckle is used to make what type of cable adjustments? • Minor adjustments to cable tension only • To adjust cable threads • Minor adjustments to cable length and tension • Minor adjustments to cable length only |
Minor adjustments to cable length and tension |
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How many pieces of safety wire are used when securing a turnbuckle using the wire-wrapped method? • Three • One • Four • Two |
Two |
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What component allows for the continuous satisfactory operation of onboard navigation and radio communication systems? • Connectors • Bonding wires • Terminals • Static dischargers |
Static dischargers |
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How many different methods are used for safetying a turnbuckle? • One • Two • Three • Four |
Two |
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What device provides a means of fastening a wire to a terminal stud? • Connector • Static discharger • Bonding wire • Terminal |
Terminal |
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What factor accounts for the majority of all fastener problems? • Cross-threading • Fatigue failure • Improper material • Corrosive breakdown |
Fatigue failure |
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A ball peen hammer is sometimes referred to as what type of hammer?
• Machinist hammer • Mechanics hammer • Forging hammer • Striking hammer |
Machinist hammer
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What type of safety wire is used on valves and levers used for emergency operation of aircraft equipment? • Corrosion-resistant wire • Brass wire • Bailing wire • Copper wire |
Copper wire |
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What type of terminal is generally recommended for use on naval aircraft? • Soldered • Fused-type • Twist on • Crimped-type |
Crimped-type |
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What device changes cable direction and allows a cable to move with minimum friction? • Sector • Quadrant • Pulley • Bell crank |
Pulley |
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What type of connection is used to connect all metal parts of an aircraft to complete an electrical unit? • Bonding • Fused • Terminal • Static |
Bonding |
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When you use the wire-wrapped method on a turnbuckle, each wire is wrapped how many times around the shank? • One • Three • Four • Two |
Four |
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How many times, if any, can a turnbarrel lock clip be reused? • Two times • One time • Three times • It cannot be reused |
It cannot be reused |
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The size of a cable is determined by which of the following factors? • Strength • Diameter • Lay • Tension |
Diameter |
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What device is used on cables or rods that must move through a pressurized bulkhead? • Back-up ring • Grommet • O-ring • Pressure seal |
Pressure seal |
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Torque values must be followed unless the MIM or structural repair manual for the specific aircraft requires a specific torque for a given nut. • True • False |
True |
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To allow the lines to stand out more clearly when laying out sheet metal patterns, you should use which of the following items?
•Felt tip marker •Layout fluid •Graphite pencil •Ball-point pen
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Layout fluid |
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When marking or drawing lines on aluminum or magnesium, which of the following should be remove to prevent corrosion? • Scriber lines • Lead pencil marks • Finger prints • Masking tape |
Scriber lines |
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What weight ball peen hammer will suffice for most work? • 6-ounce and 1-pound weight • 12-ounce and 1 1/2-pound weight • 2-pound and 5-ounce weight • 8-ounce and 2-pound weight |
12-ounce and 1 1/2-pound weight |
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The hot dimpling squeezer is capable of working all material gauges up to and including which of the following measurements? • 0.098 of an inch • 0.102 of an inch • 0.091 of an inch • 0.084 of an inch |
0.091 of an inch |
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The size and weight of the bucking bar to be used on a particular riveting job is determined by which of the following factors? • The size of the rivets to be driven only • The alloy of the rivets to be driven only • The size and alloy of the rivets to be driven • The location of the rivets to be driven |
The size and alloy of the rivets to be driven |
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Lines at a known angle or parallel to the straight edge of the sheet of material can be made by marking points from a combination square held firmly against the straight edge. • True • False |
True |
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When dimple countersinking, what is the combined process that occurs to the metal to form a dimple? • Shearing and forming • Machining and burring • Heating and drilling • Bending and stretching |
Bending and stretching |
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What is the domed end of the ball peen hammer called? • Head • Face • Peen • Round |
Peen |
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Which of the following rivet guns is preferred when driving medium-size, heat-treated rivets that are in accessible places? • Slow-hitting gun • Squeeze riveter • One-shot gun • Fast-hitting gun |
Slow-hitting gun |
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Machine countersinking is used to flush rivet sheets of what minimum thickness? • 0.060 in. • 0.055 in. • 0.048 in. • 0.064 in. |
0.064 in. |
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Squaring shears can be used to perform all EXCEPT which of the following cutting operations? • Squaring • Multiple cutting • Notch cutting • Cutting to a line |
Notch cutting |
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Which of the following types of pneumatic riveters is in general use in the Navy? • Corner riveter only • One-shot gun, corner riveter, and fast-hitting gun • One-shot gun only • Fast-hitting gun only |
One-shot gun, corner riveter, and fast-hitting gun |
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What component must be used on all pneumatic rivet sets to prevent the set from being discharged from the rivet gun when the trigger is pulled? • Cylinder safety clip • Retainer springs • Retaining setscrews • Barrel retention key |
Retainer springs |
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Which of the following terms is used to describe the amount of material consumed in making a bend? • Bend line • Bend allowance • Mold line • Bend tangent line |
Bend allowance |
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What size Cleco skin fastener is identified by its brass color code? • 5/32 in. • 1/4 in. • 1/8 in. • 3/16 in. |
3/16 in. |
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What is likely to occur when dimpling a strip of material by using excessive pressure? • The strip tends to form a concave shape • The strip tends to form a convex shape • Excessive pressure is required to keep the strip straight and flat • The strip tends to form a channel shape |
The strip tends to form a convex shape |
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Which of the following is a common error made by the inexperienced person when using portable drills? • Incorrect angle to the work • Excessive pressure on the drill • Both 1 and 2 above • Failure to lubricate prior to use |
Incorrect angle to the work |
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The dies of hot dimpling machines are maintained at a specific temperature by which of the following devices? • Steam generator • Hot air blowers • Electric heaters • Hot oil vats |
Electric heaters |
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Before you use the bar folder, which of the following adjustments must be made? • Sharpness of the fold only • Angle of the fold only • Width, sharpness, and angle of the fold • Width of the fold only |
Width, sharpness, and angle of the fold |
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Which of the following sheet metal bending equipment has a series of removable fingers of varying widths? • A box and pan break • A cornice break • A bench vise • A bar folder |
A box and pan break |
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Which of the following power tools is used to smooth countersunk rivet heads that protrude? • Dimple countersinking tool • Rivet-head shaver • Rotary-rivet cutter • Pneumatic drill with grinding wheel |
Rivet-head shaver |
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Which of the following types of shears are portable and power operated? • Unishears • Hand bench shears • Throatless shears • Squaring shears |
Unishears |
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Mallet heads are constructed from which of the following materials? • Plastics only • Brass, plastics, and rawhide • Brass only • Rawhide only |
Brass, plastics, and rawhide |
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Special rivet sets, called “draw sets” are used to “draw up” the pieces of metal being riveted in order to eliminate any opening between them before the rivet is bucked. • True • False |
True |
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Which of the following materials should you NEVER attempt to bend in a brake? • Spring steel sheets only • Rods, wire, and spring steel sheets • Rods only • Wire only |
Rods, wire, and spring steel sheets |
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What type of airframe damage is more noticeable as the operating time of the aircraft accumulates? • Stress • Heat • Fatigue • Corrosion |
Fatigue |
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When installing a 5/32 diameter rivet, what is the correct shift valve operating pressure for the CP350 blind rivet pull tool? • 66 to 67 psi • 30 to 31 psi • 35 to 41 psi • 46 to 47 psi
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46 to 47 psi |
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Visual inspection of a self-plugging rivet (mechanical lock) shows the locking collar pin breaking off below the surface of the manufactured head. This is an indication of what discrepancy? • Incorrect rivet gun air pressure • Insufficient rivet grip length • Excessive rivet grip length • Proper rivet grip length |
Insufficient rivet grip length |
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Which of the following rotary machine-rolling operations is generally the most difficult to perform? • Burring • Crimping • Wiring • Beading |
Burring |
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Which of the following machines forms sheet metal by using beading rolls, turning rolls, wiring rolls, crimping rolls, and burring rolls? • A rotary machine • A slip-roll forming machine • A lathe turning machine • A bar folder |
A rotary machine |
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Which of the following machines is used to form sheet metal into cylindrical or conical shapes?
• A slip-roll forming machine • A lathe turning machine • A rotary forming machine • A bar folder |
A slip-roll forming machine
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What term is used to describe the longer part of a formed angle? • Flange • Arm • Leg • Flat |
Leg |
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The edges of a lap patch are normally chamfered to what degree of angle? • 35° • 55° • 60° • 45°
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45° |
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What is the decimal equivalent drill size for drill number “P”? • .1590 • .2570 • .3230 • .3860 |
.3230 |
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Flush rivets are made with heads of several different angles. What is the standard rivet head angle for all Navy aircraft? • 90° • 95° • 110° • 100°
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100° |
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You are using a CP350 blind rivet pull tool and want to change the rivets from universal heads to countersunk heads without changing the rivet diameter. Which of the following blind rivet pull tool components will you need to change?
• The chuck jaws • The inner anvil thrust bearing • The inner anvil • The outer anvil |
The outer anvil
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What classification of damage repair can be performed by installing a reinforcement or patch to bridge the damaged portion of a part? • Negligible damage • Damage requiring replacement • Damage repairable by insertion • Damage repairable by patching
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Damage repairable by patching |
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The term “setback” is used to describe the distance between which of the following two points? • Bend radius and material thickness • Bend tangent line and the mold line • Base measurement and the bend allowance • Bend tangent line and the mold point |
Bend tangent line and the mold point |
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What is the minimum length for a reinforced splice? • Two times the length of the filler splice • Four times the length of the leg of the stringer for each side of the damaged area • Four times the width of the leg of the stringer for each side of the damaged area • Two times the width of the filler splice |
Four times the width of the leg of the stringer for each side of the damaged area |
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When applying the nylon barrier of a rubber-type bladder fuel cell, you should NOT use which of the following methods of application? • Roller • Swab • Spray • Swab |
Roller |
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The milled skins of an integral fuel cell are normally fastened to the aircraft by what means? • Rivets • Screws • Pins • Bolts |
Bolts |
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To allow the gun piston to return before another cycle can begin, the trigger of a sealant injector gun must be released approximately how often?
• Every 45 seconds • Every 30 seconds • Every 3 minutes • Every 2 minutes |
Every 30 seconds
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When performing a flush access door installation to attach the cover plate to the doubler, you should use what type of fasteners? • Hi-lok rivets • Machine screws • Rivnuts • Flush head jo-bolts |
Machine screws |
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When manufacturing a section of sheet metal for replacement (using the old section as a template), you should drill the rivet holes in the new sheet in what direction? • From the outside to the center • From the center to the outside • From the top to the bottom • Diagonally from corner to corner |
From the center to the outside |
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What is fitted to some baffles inside fuel cells to control the direction of fuel flow between compartments or interconnecting cells? • Fuel pumps • Fuel siphon valves • One-way check valves • Flapper valves |
Flapper valves |
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Which of the following airframe structural members are primarily designed to take bending loads imposed on the wing or other airfoils? • Ribs • Stringers • Spars • Longerons |
Spars |
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Airframe fuel system maintenance is the responsibility of which of the following aviation rating work centers? • AD only • AM only • AO only • AD, AM, and AO |
AD, AM, and AO |
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Upon finding a section of plastic material that is crazed, what action, if any, should you take to correct the problem? • Buff it with polish • Wipe it with naphtha • Rub it with turpentine • None |
None |
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For aircraft applications, all EXCEPT which of the following features is an advantage of plastic over glass? • Its ease of fabrication • Its ease of repair • Its lightness in weight • Its ability to resist scratches |
Its ability to resist scratches |
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What is the main advantage of a bladder-type fuel cell over a self-sealing fuel cell? • Slightly smaller than the aircraft cavity • Thicker wall construction • Less total weight • Fewer inspections |
Less total weight |
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Any major vertical structural member of a semimonocoque fuselage, hull, or float may be considered as what structural component? • Stringer • Bulkhead • Spar • Longeron |
Bulkhead |
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How many primary layers of material are used in the construction of a self-sealing fuel cell? • Five • Four • Three • Two |
Four |
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What is the first step you should take to stop a fuel leak? • Replace the O-rings under all fasteners in the leak area • Replace the Stat-O-Seal washers under all fasteners in the leak area • Reinject sealant around the perimeter of the cell • Retorque all fasteners 6 inches on either side of the leak area |
Retorque all fasteners 6 inches on either side of the leak area |
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To pressure test a repair made on an integral fuel cell, you should use what type of gas? • Dry air • Nitrogen • Helium • Oxygen |
Nitrogen |
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What is the most commonly used type of self-sealing fuel cells? • Self-sealing cell (nonstandard construction) • Rubber-type bladder cell • Nylon-type bladder cell • Self-sealing cell (standard construction) |
Self-sealing cell (standard construction) |
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Buna rubber is an artificial substitute for crude or natural rubber. Which of the following types is used as fuel cell inner liner material and is not affected by petroleum fuels? • Buna R • Buna L • Buna N • Buna S |
Buna N |
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Which of the following airframe structural members is designed to stiffen the skin and aid in maintaining the contour of the structure? • Spars • Stringers • Ribs • Bulkheads |
Stringers |
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What term refers to small surface fissures that develop on plastic materials? • Glazing • Cracking • Hazing • Crazing |
Crazing |
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By sanding or buffing a plastic surface too long or too vigorously in one spot, you can cause which of the following problems? • Discoloration or hazing • Cracking or crazing • Bleaching or glazing • Softening or burning |
Softening or burning |
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Which of the following airframe components is the principal chordwise structural member in the wing, stabilizers, and other airfoils? • Bulkheads • Spars • Ribs • Stringers |
Ribs |
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Which of the following airframe components is a fore-and-aft member of the fuselage or nacelle and is usually continuous across a number of points of support, such as frames? • Bulkheads • Stringers • Ribs • Longerons |
Longerons |
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When an aircraft skin is being replaced without the use of a template, which of the following methods of marking the new skin should NOT be used to duplicate the rivet holes in the old section? • A soft pencil • A scriber • A transfer punch and hammer • A hole finder |
A scriber |
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A fuel leak that reappears 30 minutes after it is wiped dry is classified as what category of leakage? • Slow seep • Seep • Running leak • Heavy seep |
Seep |
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Rain erosion-resistant coating MIL-C-7439, Class II, has an additional surface treatment included in the kit for what purpose? • To reflect ultraviolet light • To absorb radar waves • To minimize radio noise • To lower its internal working temperature |
To minimize radio noise |
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In an advanced composite material, what is the homogeneous resin binder known as? • Pulp • Matrix • Laminate • Paste |
Matrix |
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When you mount plastic panels, what is the minimum prescribed thickness for the packing material? • 1/16 in. • 3/16 in. • 1/8 in. • 1/4 in. |
1/16 in. |
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A reinforced plastic component with a honeycomb core has damage that extends completely through one facing and into the core. What is the preferred method of repair for this component? • Delaminated ply • Scarfed • Plugged • Stepped |
Scarfed |
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Standard buffing compounds on transparent plastics are usually composed of very fine alumina in combination with which of the following materials? • Wax, tallow, or grease • Wax or tallow only • Wax only • Tallow only |
Wax, tallow, or grease |
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You are repairing a balsa wood core component. When you use two rows of rivets, the inner patch should overlap the hole in the core by what prescribed amount? • 3 in. • 2 in. • 1 in. • 4 in. |
1 in. |
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You mixed aliphatic polyurethane paint and did not use it for more than 3 hours. Which of following problems will occur if you try to rethin the paint? • Orange peel only • Dry spots or orange peel • Dry spots only • Fish eyes |
Dry spots or orange peel |
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When performing a tap test on advanced composite materials, you should use a hammer that weighs about the weight of a U.S. 50-cent coin. • True • False |
True |
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Which of the following factors is a disadvantage of advanced composite materials over metals? • Repair capability • Corrosion resistance • Expense of materials • Weight of the material |
Expense of materials |
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The flashpoints of solvents and resins for composite materials are usually around what minimum temperature? • 400°F • 200°F • 300°F • 500°F |
200°F |
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Which of the following statements pertaining to aircraft stripping is NOT correct? • The aircraft should be located outside if possible • The aircraft's joints or seams in the stripping area should be masked • The stripper should be applied with fiber brushes • The stripper should be spread in a thin coat |
The stripper should be applied with fiber brushes |
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After epoxy-polyamide primer is sprayed, it should be allowed to air dry for what minimum amount of time? • 60 min • 30 min • 15 min • 45 min |
60 min |
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The damage to advanced composite materials may be categorized in which of the following ways? • Physical or environmental • Natural • Organic or physical • Organic or environmental |
Physical or environmental |
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The scarfed method is normally used to repair small punctures in reinforced plastics up to what maximum dimension? • 7 or 8 in. • 3 or 4 in. • 5 or 6 in. • 9 or 10 in. |
3 or 4 in. |
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The drill motors used on advanced composite materials should be capable of what maximum speed? • 5,000 rpm • 8,000 rpm • 7,000 rpm • 6,000 rpm |
5,000 rpm |
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On Navy aircraft, the paint system is identified with a stencil or decal at what location? • On the right side of the aft fuselage • On the left side of the upper wing • On the right side of the upper wing • On the left side of the aft fuselage |
On the right side of the aft fuselage |
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Paint feathering may be accomplished with all EXCEPT which of the following items? • 280 grit aluminum oxide cloth • Flap brush • 320 grit aluminum oxide cloth • 240 grit aluminum oxide cloth |
240 grit aluminum oxide cloth |
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Which of the following components of SH-60B aircraft are manufactured from advanced composite materials? • The scarf joints • The upper canopies • The horizontal stabilizers • The gearboxes |
The scarf joints |
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When using the stepped method to repair ply damage to solid laminates, which of the following procedures should you observe to ensure maximum strength of the repaired area? • Replace every other piece of damaged Fabric • Cut the replacement glass fabric pieces to an exact fit with the weave running in the same direction as the existing plies • Ensure that the replacement pieces are slightly thicker than the existing plies • Install the replacement pieces with the fabric plies overlapping the existing plies |
Cut the replacement glass fabric pieces to an exact fit with the weave running in the same direction as the existing plies |
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A sandwich construction material is delaminated with facing-to-core voids of less than 2.5 inches in diameter. Which of the following repair methods should you use? • Inject an expandable forming resin into the drilled holes over the void area with a pressure-type caulking gun • Inject a nonexpandable forming resin into the drilled holes over the void area with a syringe • Apply a flush patch by using thick cloth soaked in Thermofoam 706 • Apply a coat of Thermofoam 706 to the surface and cover it with Kraft paper |
Inject an expandable forming resin into the drilled holes over the void area with a pressure-type caulking gun |
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The corners of a rectangular cutout must have what minimum radius? • 1/2 in. • 3/8 in. • 1/4 in. • 1/8 in. |
3/8 in. |
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When working with advanced composite materials, which of the following personnel hazards should be your principal concern? • Inhalation of fumes before the matrix has completely cured • Contact with the dust on your hands • Inhalation of airborne dust and fibrous particles • Contact with the matrix on your clothing |
Inhalation of airborne dust and fibrous particles |
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When repairing a puncture in a piece of reinforced plastic using the stepped method, what material should you use to cover the repair area while it cures? • Petroleum jelly • Aluminum barrier paper • Cellophane sheeting • Graphite grease |
Cellophane sheeting |
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A section of advanced composite material has water trapped in the honeycomb area. This is what class of repairable damage? • Class VII • Class VI • Class V • Class IV |
Class VII |
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When repairing minor surface damage to reinforced plastics, you should apply which of the following materials to the damaged area? • One coat of room-temperature paste composed of catalyzed resin and short glass fibers • One or more coats of room-temperature catalyzed resin • Three coats of paste composed of catalyzed resin and nylon fibers heated to 137°F • Two coats of catalyzed resin heated to 112°F |
One or more coats of room-temperature catalyzed resin |
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What ultrasonic NDI inspection method projects a beam of vibrations that travels along or just below the surface of the material? • Immersion • Straight beam • Angle beam • Surface wave |
Surface wave |
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NDI operators must use the NDI method(s) for which they are certified at least how often? • Twice a month • Twice a quarter • Once a month • Once a quarter |
Twice a month |
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Which of the following magnetization methods are used in magnetic particle inspections? • Circular only • Linear only • Linear, circular, and longitudinal • Circular and longitudinal only |
Circular and longitudinal only |
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You are performing a process that consists of inducing a magnetic field into a part and applying magnetic particles in a liquid suspension or dry powder. What type of NDI inspection are you conducting? • Radiographic • Eddy current • Ultrasonic • Magnetic particle |
Magnetic particle |
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What command has cognizance over the NDI program? • NADOC • NAESU • NAVAIR • NADEP |
NAVAIR |
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The particles used in magnetic particle testing must possess which of the following qualities? • Low permeability and high retentivity • High permeability and high retentivity • High permeability and low retentivity • Low permeability and low retentivity |
High permeability and low retentivity |
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To magnetize both the inside and outside of parts that are hollow or tubelike, you should place them on a copper bar and pass current through them. • True • False |
True |
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What type of sealing compound MIL-S-81733, is applied with a spray gun?
• Type IV • Type I • Type II • Type III |
Type III
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Ultrasonic NDI inspection information is displayed by what means? • Cathode-ray tube screen • Cassette tape recorder • Photographic film • Video tape |
Cathode-ray tube screen |
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If the whole body of a person is exposed to a very large dose of radiation, what would most likely be the result? • Leukemia • Cancer • Death • Skin damage |
Death |
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What manual covers the theory and general applications of various methods of NDI? • NAVAIR 01-1A-16 • NAVAIR 01-1A-12 • NAVAIR 01-1A-17 • NAVAIR 01-1A-20 |
NAVAIR 01-1A-16 |
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To obtain excellent adhesion, elastomeric rain erosion-resistant coating, MIL-C-7439, should be allowed to dry for what minimum number of days? • 6 days • 7 days • 8 days • 5 days |
5 days |
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When you lay out the blue border that outlines the entire design of the national insignia, the border should be what fractional part of the radius of the blue circle in width? • 1/8 • 1/16 • 3/16 • ¼ |
1/8 |
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Which of the following spray gun problems causes dusting? • Excessive fluid pressure • Excessive air pressure • Insufficient fluid pressure • Insufficient air pressure |
Excessive air pressure |
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Currently active NDI technicians are required to be recertified at least how often? • Every 3 years • Every 4 years • Every 2 years • Every 5 years |
Every 3 years |
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You should apply a sealant to a faying surface by what method? • A spatula • Injection • Spraying • A brush |
A brush |
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Aircraft controlling custodians have all EXCEPT which of the following NDI program responsibilities? • Designating an NDI program manager • Ensuring that NDI equipment, laboratories, and personnel are audited as required • Designating NDI specialist as required • Providing NDI training for NADEPs as requested |
Providing NDI training for NADEPs as requested |
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Concerning a radiographic NDI inspection, all EXCEPT which of the following statements are correct? • It can be used on nonmetallic materials • It should only be used on items that are accessible or favorably oriented • It is the least sensitive method of crack detection • It is one of the most expensive |
It can be used on nonmetallic materials |
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The detection of flaws or defects in material with a high degree of accuracy and reliability by the use of NDI methods depends primarily on which of the following factors?
• The availability of a large and well-equipped facility • The detection method used • The availability of a trained and experienced technician • The type of material being inspected |
The availability of a trained and experienced technician
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The epoxy-polyamide topcoat is mixed in what ratio of (a) pigmented component to (b) clear resin? • (a) One (b) two • (a) Two (b) one • (a) Two (b) three • (a) One (b) one |
(a) One (b) one |
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When spraying epoxy-polyamide and polyurethane finishes, you should hold the gun at what prescribed distance from the work? • 10 to 14 in. • 4 to 8 in. • 6 to 10 in. • 8 to 12 in. |
6 to 10 in. |
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Which of the following types of sealants set and cure by evaporation of the solvent? • Flexible sealants • Drying sealants • Pliable sealants • Curing sealants |
Drying sealants |
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Prior to use, what component of a spray gun should be removed and treated with oil? • The air valve packing • The fluid needle spring • The fluid needle packing • The trigger bearing screw |
The fluid needle packing |
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What type of eddy current probe or coil is used on plates, sheets, or irregular-shaped parts? • Inside probe • Bobbin-type coil • Surface probe • Encircling coil |
Surface probe |
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A pressure-feed spray gun is designed to operate at (a) what fluid volume and (b) what air pressure? • (a) High (b) high • (a) High (b) low • (a) Low (b) low • (a) Low (b) high |
(a) High (b) low |
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You should use water-cooled GTA welding torches when welding with current above what prescribed amperage? • 100 amp • 50 amp • 200 amp • 150 amp |
200 amp |
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In the GTA welding process, the greatest concentration of heat at the electrode results from what arrangement of (a) current and (b) polarity? • (a) ac (b) reverse • (a) ac (b) straight • (a) dc (b) straight • (a) dc (b) reverse |
(a) dc (b) reverse |
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Which of the following weld joints is made by welding two or more parallel members? • Edge • Tee • Butt • Corner |
Edge |
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What type of flame should you use when welding bronze with an oxyacetylene welding rig? • Neutral • Carburizing • Oxidizing • Nitrating |
Oxidizing |
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When you are GMA welding with a constant-voltage power source, what condition will occur as a result of any changes in the length of the welding arc?
• The welding current will automatically change • The wire driven mechanism will automatically adjust the feed speed • The shielding gases will automatically shut off • The welding gun will automatically stop delivering the electrode until the problem has been resolved |
The wire driven mechanism will automatically adjust the feed speed
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In the GMA welding process, what factor determines the melting rate of the filler wire? • The size of the area to be welded • The level of the welding current • The diameter of the filler wire • The speed rate of the welder |
The level of the welding current |
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Which of the following weld joints is made by joining two pieces of material edge to edge without any overlapping? • Tee • Edge • Butt • Corner |
Butt |
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Which of the following weld joints is made by joining two members located approximately at right angles to each other? • Corner • Butt • Edge • Tee |
Corner |
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On a single-stage oxygen regulator, the outlet pressure gauge provides what indication? • The working pressure • The amount of oxygen in the cylinder • The mixing ratio of the gases • The amount of acetylene in the cylinder |
The working pressure |
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The groups of metals for which separate and distinct welding certifications are required are specified in what manual? • NAVAIR 01-1A-12 • NAVAIR 01-1A-34 • NAVAIR 01-1A-16 • NAVAIR 01-1A-11 |
NAVAIR 01-1A-12 |
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In the oxyacetylene gas welding process, the welding torch is used for which of the following purposes? • To provide a clamping device for the gas tubes and rods • To direct the flame against the metal and mix the gases in proper proportions • To direct the flame against the metal only • To mix the gases in proper proportions only |
To mix the gases in proper proportions only |
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Training programs and testing facilities for those personnel desiring to qualify as aircraft welders are available at which of the following activities? • NAESU • NATTC • NADEP • NADOC |
NADEP |
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Which of the following statements pertaining to oxygen is NOT correct? • It is colorless • It is flammable • It is tasteless • It is heavier than air |
It is flammable |
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When burned with oxygen, acetylene produces a flame in what temperature range? • 5,700 to 6,300°F • 2,850 to 4,500°F • 1,200 to 3,300°F • 6,150 to 7,500°F |
5,700 to 6,300°F |
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What is the most popular gas used in the GTA welding process? • Argon • Hydrogen • Nitrogen • Radon |
Argon |
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If you light the acetylene only on an oxyacetylene welding torch, the flame will be what color? • Blue • Yellow • Orange • Red |
Blue |
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The developer used in a dye penetrant NDI inspection serves what purpose? • It helps draw any trapped penetrant from the discontinuities • It aids the penetrant in filling any discontinuities that are below the surface of the material • It speeds the drying of the penetrant • It neutralizes the dye |
It helps draw any trapped penetrant from the discontinuities |
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When torch welding, you should hold the white cone of the flame at what prescribed distance from the surface of the metal? • 1/2 in. • 1/8 in. • 3/8 in. • 1/4 in. |
1/8 in. |
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A torch flashback can be caused by all EXCEPT which of the following factors? • Loose connection • Touching the tip of the torch against the Work • Overheating of the torch • Improper pressures |
Improper pressures |
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To strike the arc using an ac GTA welding machine, you should angle the end of the torch toward the work so that the electrode is at what prescribed distance above the plate? • 1/4 in. • 1/2 in. • 1/8 in. • 3/8 in. |
1/8 in. |
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On oxyacetylene welding equipment, what color and thread type identifies the (a) oxygen hose and (b) acetylene hose? • (a) Red with left-handed threads (b) Black with right-handed threads • (a) Green with left-handed threads (b) Red with right-handed threads • (a) Black with right-handed threads b) Green with left-handed threads • (a) Green with right-handed threads (b) Red with left-handed threads |
(a) Green with right-handed threads (b) Red with left-handed threads |
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The oxygen pressure is much higher than the acetylene pressure in what type of oxyacetylene welding torch? • The high-pressure type • The injector type • The jet type • The equal-pressure type |
The injector type |
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What welding method should you use when welding material more than 1/8-inch thick? • Forehand • Puddle • Backhand • Ripple |
Puddle |
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In the GMA welding process, what type of shielding gas is preferred for welding thick materials? • Argon • Hydrogen • Neon • Helium |
Helium |
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Which of the following weld joints is made by welding two plates whose surfaces are 90° of each other at the joint? • Corner • Edge • Butt • Tee |
Tee |
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When a nonferrous part is quenched, what is the maximum recommended time between the part's removal from the heat and immersion? • 15 sec • 25 sec • 20 sec • 10 sec |
10 sec |
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When water is used as a quenching medium for steel, the water bath should be held at what prescribed temperature? • 55°F • 48°F • 65°F • 32°F |
65°F |
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Which of the following conditions is a major cause for rejection or failure of aircraft wheels? • Blowouts • Normal wear • Loss of lubrication • Crashes |
Loss of lubrication |
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What color is steel at 1,825°F? • Light lemon • Orange • Salmon • Lemon |
Lemon |
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After welding a ferrous metal, you should use the normalizing process of heat treatment for what reason? • To reduce its carbon content • To make it harder • To induce internal stresses • To remove all strains |
To remove all strains |
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What prescribed temperature is required for nitriding steel parts? • 950°F • 1,300°F • 1,150°F • 1,400°F |
950°F |
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The heat-treatment cycle includes all EXCEPT which of the following events? • Soaking • Cooling • Misting • Heating |
Misting |
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In the heat-treatment process of steel, the element that normally has the greatest influence is carbon. • True • False |
False |
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Which of the following heat-treatment processes is used to relieve the strains induced during hardening? • Normalizing • Case hardening • Tempering • Annealing |
Tempering |
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Which of the following components have been installed on the aircraft wheels to allow the attachment of braking components? • The fusible plug • The drive keys • The demountable flange lock • The bearing cups |
The drive keys |
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Which of the following carburizing methods produces only a thin case? • Gaseous • Nitriding • Pack • Cyaniding |
Cyaniding |
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The flange of a demountable flange wheel is held in place by what component? • Locknut • Locking pin • Lockring • Locking key |
Lockring |
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What term refers to metals with iron bases? • Alloy • Nonferrous • Ferrous • Ironic |
Ferrous |
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Which of the following heat-treatment processes is used for parts that require a wear-resistant surface? • Tempering • Normalizing • Annealing • Case hardening |
Case hardening |
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At ordinary temperatures, the carbon in steel exists in the form of iron carbide particles. These particles are known by what name? • Cordite • Ferrite • Austenite • Pearlite |
Austenite |
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In the GMA welding process, what basic welding position is preferred for most joints because it improves the molten metal flow, bead contour, and gives better gas protection? • Vertical • Overhead • Flat • Horizontal |
Flat |
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Which of the following metals is used to make aircraft wheel assemblies? • Steel • Titanium • Magnesium • Manganese |
Magnesium |
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What is the minimum length of the stem of a deflated tire tag that is inserted into the valve stem of the wheel assembly? • 5/8 inch • 1/2 inch • 1/8 inch • 3/4 inch |
3/4 inch |
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Aluminum alloys are heated by which of the following methods? • A molten salt bath or an electric furnace • A molten salt bath only • An electric furnace only • An air furnace |
A molten salt bath or an electric furnace |
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Which of the following heat-treatment processes is used to reduce residual stresses or induce softness? • Tempering • Case hardening • Normalizing • Annealing |
Annealing |
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Aircraft bearings should be cleaned with what type of solvent? • Fuel • Freon • P-D-680 • Naphtha |
P-D-680 |
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When annealing an aluminum part in a salt bath, you should use equal parts of which of the following chemicals? • Potassium nitrate and sodium nitrate • Epsom salt and sodium nitrate • Epsom salt and silver nitrate • Potassium nitrate and baking soda |
Potassium nitrate and sodium nitrate |
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When steel parts have an uneven cross section, what factor determines the soaking period? • Its lightest section • Its heaviest section • Its overall length and width • Its total weight |
Its heaviest section |
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What tool is used to remove the valve core and deflate an installed wheel assembly prior to any maintenance being performed? • Safe-Core valve tool • Scribe • 3/8 in. socket • Needle nose pliers |
Safe-Core valve tool |
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For safety purposes, when welding cables must reach some distance from the machine, you should run the cables overhead, if possible. • True • False |
True |
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An outer layer of rubber adjoining the tread and extending to the bead is know by what term? • Plies • Tread • Sidewall • Cord body |
Sidewall |
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You have inflated a tube-type tire to its maximum operating pressure. The tire must remain at this pressure for what minimum length of time before you check it for a pressure loss? • 15 min • 20 min • 5 min • 10 min |
10 min |
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Which of the following publications will give detailed information on wheel bearing maintenance? • NAVAIR 01-1A-8 • NAVAIR 01-1A-503 • NAVAIR 04-10-1 • NAVAIR 04-1-506 |
NAVAIR 01-1A-503 |
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The remote tire inflator assembly should be calibrated upon initial receipt, before being placed into service, and at what other maximum interval? • Every 6 months • Every 3 months • Every month • Every 2 months |
Every 6 months |
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What is the maximum allowable tread wear for tires without wear depth indicators? • When the tread pattern is worn to the bottom of the tread groove at any one spot • When 3 layers of cord are exposed at any one spot • When there is 1/16 inch of tread left • When the tire is worn completely smooth |
When the tread pattern is worn to the bottom of the tread groove at any one spot |
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Before disassembling a wheel assembly, what is the first thing you should do? • Break the tire bead • Check the tire for cuts • Remove the wheel flange • Ensure the tire is completely deflated |
Ensure the tire is completely deflated |
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What size magnifier is used to perform a visual inspection of bearings, bearing retainers, and bearing cups? • 8X • 10X • 5X • 12X |
10X |
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The slippage marks on an aircraft tire should be inspected for slippage on the rim at what maximum interval? • After 10 flights • Once a month • After every flight • Once a week |
After every flight |
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A tire and wheel assembly should be removed from an aircraft and sent to AIMD if it shows a repeated pressure loss exceeding what prescribed percent of the correct operating inflation pressure? • 15 % • 10 % • 5 % • 2 %
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5 % |
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A defect in a wheel rim is NOT considered significant unless it is deeper than what prescribed depth? • 0.017 in. • 0.015 in. • 0.010 in. • 0.020 in. |
0.010 in. |
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What color dots mark vent holes on tubeless tires? • Green • Orange • White • Red |
Green |
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What procedure should you use to identify a tubeless tire? • Check to make sure the manufacture's mold number is preceded with the letterX • Check to make sure the word "tubeless" is stamped on the sidewall • Check the inside of the tire for an orange mark • Check the tire's serial number with the list of tubeless tire serial numbers |
Check to make sure the word "tubeless" is stamped on the sidewall |
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Each rebuilt tire receives a final nondestructive inspection by the use of what method? • Penetrating radiation • Visual • Laser beam optical holographic • Electromagnetic |
Laser beam optical holographic |
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Before inserting an inner tube into a tire, you should sprinkle it with which of the following substances? • Water • Flour • Talcum powder • Cornstarch |
Talcum powder |
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What total number of times has this tire been rebuilt? • Five • Four • One • Two |
One |
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Multiple layers of nylon with individual cords arranged parallel to each other is know by what term? • Plies • Bead • Undertread • Cord body
|
Cord body |
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Which of the following tread patterns or designs is NOT used on naval aircraft? • Plain • Nonskid • Ribbed • Twisted |
Twisted |
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The layer of rubber on the outer surface of the tire that protects the cord body from abrasions, cuts, bruises, and moisture is know by what term? • Undertread • Tread • Sidewall • Chafer strips |
Tread |
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What is the dimension of the red slippage mark painted on a tube tire that operates with less than 150 psi? • 2 inches wide and 2 inches long • 1/2 inch wide and 2 inches long • 1 inch wide and 1 1/2 inches long • 1 inch wide and 2 inches long |
1 inch wide and 2 inches long |
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The inner tube of a tube-type aircraft tire may be reused if it is in good condition and less than what total number of years old? • 5 • 7 • 6 • 8 |
5 |
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Information on cleaning aircraft wheels can be found in which of the following publications? • NAVAIR 04-10-506 • NAVAIR 04-10-1 • NAVAIR 04-10-508 • NAVAIR 01-1A-1 |
NAVAIR 04-10-1 |
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What is the ply rating of the tire shown? • 45 • 43 • 26 • 38 |
26 |
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Which of the following tire bead-breaking machines is intended for use at shore-based facilities? • Lee-X • Lee-I • Lee-II • Lee-IX |
Lee-I |
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What is the maximum depression allowable in the eutectic material at the threaded end of a fuse plug? • 1/8 inch • 1/4 inch • 1/32 inch • 1/16 inch |
1/16 inch |
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What is the outside diameter of the tire shown? • 26 in. • 30 in. • 11.5 in. • 14.5 in. |
26 in. |
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Which of the following lubricants is NOT approved for O-ring seals? • MIL-G-81322 • MIL-H-46170 • MIL-H-83282 • VV-L-800 |
VV-L-800 |
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Rapid wear of the center of the tread of a tire is an indication of what problem? • Misalignment • Overinflation • Out-of-balance • Underinflation |
Overinflation |
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Which of the following types of hydraulic fluids is used primarily for preservation? • MIL-H-5606 • MIL-H-83282 • MIL-H-81019 • MIL-H-46170 |
MIL-H-46170 |
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Hydraulic system fluid analysis is NOT required in which of the following situations? • When the aircraft has flown two flights in less than 12 hours • When the system is subjected to excessive heat • When a pump fails • When extensive maintenance has occurred |
When the aircraft has flown two flights in less than 12 hours |
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Rapid and uneven wear at the outer edges of a tire is and indication of what problem? • Misalignment • Overinflation • Out-of-balance • Underinflation |
Underinflation |
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Chlorinated solvents will hydrolyze to form hydrochloric acids when allowed to combine with minute amounts of which of the following substances? • Water • Oil • Fuel • Oxygen |
Water |
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Most of the metallic solid contamination is caused by which of the following hydraulic components? • Hoses • Actuators • Pumps • Reservoirs |
Pumps |
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What is the maximum acceptable Navy Standard Class hydraulic fluid particulate level for (a) naval aircraft and (b) support equipment? • (a) 3 (b) 3 • (a) 3 (b) 5 • (a) 5 (b) 5 • (a) 5 (b) 3 |
(a) 5 (b) 3 |
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How are tire valve cores designed for aircraft uses identified? • Slot in the head of the valve core • Valve core is blue in color • "H" on the head of the valve core • "A" on the head of the valve core |
Slot in the head of the valve core |
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What is the principal hydraulic fluid used in military aircraft? • MIL-H-5606 • MIL-H-83282 • MIL-H-81019 • MIL-H-46170 |
MIL-H-83282 |
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During tire inflation, the setting on the pressure regulator should NEVER exceed what pressure? • 800 psi • 600 psi • 500 psi • 700 psi |
500 psi |
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What type of aircraft tubes have radial vent ridges molded on the surface? • Type III and type VII • Type IV and VII • Type III only • Type VII only |
Type III and type VII |
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On a dual-wheel installation where the tire has an outside diameter of 35 inches, what is the maximum difference allowed in the outside diameter of the tires? • 9/16 in. • 5/16 in. • 7/16 in. • 3/8 in. |
3/8 in. |
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Which of the following types of hydraulic fluids is used in extremely low temperatures? • MIL-H-81019 • MIL-H-83282 • MIL-H-5606 • MIL-H-46170 |
MIL-H-83282 |
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How long is the service hose on the remote inflator assembly? • 8 ft • 15 ft • 10 ft • 20 ft |
10 ft |
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Aircraft tires are inflated to what pressure for storage? • 50 percent of operating pressure • 50 percent of operating pressure or 100 psi, whichever is less • Operating pressure or 100 psi, whichever is less • 100 psi |
100 psi |
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When hydraulic system fluid is lost to the point that the hydraulic pump runs dry or cavitates, you should take what action? • Change the defective pump, change all filter elements, and decontaminate as required • Change the defective pump and filter elements, and purge the system • Change the defective pump and flush the system • Change the defective pump, check the filter elements, and decontaminate as required |
Change the defective pump, check the filter elements, and decontaminate as required |
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What condition code is put on tires that are potentially rebuildable? • "F" (BCM-9) • "F" (BCM-1) • "H" (BCM-1) • "H" (BCM-9) |
"H" (BCM-1) |
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How high above the maximum required pressure should the remote inflator assembly relief valve be set? • 10 psi • 20 psi • 10 % • 20 % |
20 psi |
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Which of the following discrepancies would NOT classify an inner tube nonrepairable? • A valve stem that is pulled out of the fabric base • A cut that completely penetrates the tube • A replaceable leaking valve core • Severe surface cracking |
A replaceable leaking valve core |
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What solution should you use to clean oil or grease from a tire? • Kerosene • Jet fuel • P-D-680 • Soap and water
|
Soap and water |
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A spongy response during hydraulic system operation would normally be caused by what type of contamination? • Particulate • Water • Inorganic • Air |
Air |
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The inorganic solid hydraulic system contamination group includes which of the following contaminates? • Silicates only • Dust only • Dust, silicates, and paint particles • Paint particles only |
Dust, silicates, and paint particles |
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Organic contamination is produced by all EXCEPT which of the following processes? • Glass bead peening • Polymerization • Wear • Oxidation |
Glass bead peening |
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Aircraft tubes being stored, should be marked with what information? • Size, type, cure date, and stock number • Size and type only • Size, type, and stock number only • Size, type, cure date, and aircraft model |
Size, type, cure date, and stock number |
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The purpose of quick-disconnect couplings is to provide a means of quickly disconnecting a line without having to contend with which of the following problems? • Loss of hydraulic fluid or entrance of air into the system • Loss of hydraulic fluid only • Entrance of air into the system only • System pressure surges |
Loss of hydraulic fluid or entrance of air into the system |
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If the hydraulic test filter displays a rust color, what color contamination standards should you use for comparison? • Silica • Gray • Tan • Rust |
Tan |
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O-ring age is computed by what means? • From the service life • From the replacement schedule • From the operational conditions • From the cure date |
From the cure date |
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Which of the following authorities is required to recommend and supervisor and aircraft hydraulic system purging? • The maintenance officer • The commanding officer • The functional wing commander • The cognizant engineering activity |
The cognizant engineering activity |
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What should you do with O-rings that have colored markings, such as dots, dashes, and stripes? • Use them only in an emergency when no other O-ring is available • Do not use them and purge them from the supply system • Use them only in systems operating below 1500 psi • Continue to use them until supply is exhausted |
Do not use them and purge them from the supply system |
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What O-rings are replacing the AN6290 O-ring? • MS28775 • MS28695 • MS28778 • MS28920 |
MS28778 |
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What O-rings are replacing the AN6227 and AN230 O-rings? • AN6290 O-rings • MS28778 O-rings • MS28775 O-rings • MS28777 O-rings |
MS28775 O-rings |
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You should perform a hydraulic fluid patch test from what system component to determine when system flushing is complete? • System reservoir fluid • System return line fluid • Test stand reservoir fluid • System pressure line fluid |
System reservoir fluid |
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Which, if any, of the following types of quick-disconnect couplings allows the use of a wrench to assist in tightening the coupler?
• Series 3200 quick-disconnects • All series 145 and 155 quick-disconnects • Modified series 145 and 155 quick-disconnects only • None of the above |
None of the above
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When an O-ring installation requires spanning or inserting through sharp threaded areas, ridges, slots, and edges, which of the following devices or procedures should you use? • O-ring expanders • Light coating of the threads with MIL-S-8802 • A rolling motion of the O-ring • O-ring entering sleeves |
O-ring entering sleeves |
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Which of the following materials should NOT be used to fabricate tools for use in replacing and installing O-rings and backup rings? • Steel • Brass • Wood • Phenolic rod |
Steel |
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When a hydraulic system is purified, the fluid going to the purification tower is first filtered by what size filter? • 5 micron • 25 micron • 3 micron • 15 micron |
25 micron |
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A hydraulic oil cooler leak would cause which of the following types of contamination? • Air • Foreign fluid • Nonmetallic solid • Particulate |
Foreign fluid |
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You are processing a fluid sample and you have poured the hydraulic fluid from the graduate into the funnel. What total amount of solvent should you pour into the graduate? • 50 ml • 100 ml • 15 ml • 120 ml |
15 ml |
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What is the purpose of the contamination control sequence chart? • Guide for managing the contamination control program • Guide for performing hydraulic fluid patch tests • Guide for decontaminating naval aircraft only • Guide for decontaminating naval aircraft and support equipment |
Guide for decontaminating naval aircraft and support equipment |
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An electronic particle count analysis of hydraulic fluid will NOT be affected by particles smaller than what size? • 15 microns • 5 microns • 35 microns • 25 microns |
5 microns |
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When processing a hydraulic fluid sample, you must use what type of filter? • Single 47-mm test filter • Double 20-mm test filter • double 47-mm test filter • Single 20-mm test filter |
Single 47-mm test filter |
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The hydraulic seal used between non-moving fittings and bosses are known by which of the following terms? • O-rings • Packings • Gaskets • Backup rings |
Gaskets |
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Test stands used for hydraulic system flushing must have an internal reservoir that holds what minimum number of gallons of hydraulic fluid? • 10 gal. • 16 gal. • 20 gal. • 14 gal. |
16 gal. |
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The protruding nose of the series 145 and 155 (Aeroquip) coupling S4 half engages with what component to provide a positive seal? • O-ring • Sleeve • Poppet valve • Tubular valve
|
Tubular valve |
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|
Aircraft filter assemblies are sampled by removing the filter bowl and transferring what fluid contents to a clean sample bottle? • Filter bowl only • Filter element only • Filter element or filter bowl • Filter element and filter bowl
|
Filter element and filter bowl
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Before you sample support equipment hydraulic systems, the fluid must be recirculated at full flow rate a minimum of how many minutes? • 5 min • 15 min • 10 min • 20 min |
5 min |
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What method should you use to inspect the inner diameter of an O-ring for cracks? • Stretch it between two fingers and visually examine it • Perform NDI • Roll it onto an inspection cone or dowel • Use a small mirror |
Roll it onto an inspection cone or dowel |
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What half of a series 145 or series 155 (Aeroquip) coupling has mounting flanges used for attaching them to a bulkhead or other structural member of the aircraft? • S1 • S2 • S3 • S4 |
S4 |
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The halogen leak detector is powered by what source of energy? • Solar • Battery • 110 volts AC • 220 volts AC |
Battery |
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The sight gauge on the HSU-1 servicing unit reads from zero to how many gallons? • 1 gallon • 5 gallons • 3 gallons • 2 gallons |
2 gallons |
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Where is the filter located on the HSU-1 servicing unit? • Below the lower piercing unit • Inside the reservoir • Above the top piercing unit • At the pump base |
At the pump base |
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Teflon® backup rings are identified by which of the following means? • Color coding • Package labels • Coded symbols • Visual appearance |
Package labels |
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Other than filtration, what other function does the 3-micron, in-line filter on the service hose of a H-250-1 unit perform? • Prevents reverse flow • Restrictor valve • Two way check valve |
Prevents reverse flow |
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What type of pump is on the HSU-1 servicing unit? • Single-action, piston air pump • Single-action, piston hand pump • Double-action, piston air pump • Double-action, piston hand pump |
Single-action, piston hand pump |
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|
What size fluid container does the Model 310 fluid servicing unit incorporate? • 10 gallons • 3 gallons • 5 gallons • 8 gallons |
10 gallons |
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What component of the Model 310 fluid servicing unit removes free air present in the fluid? • Lower vent valve • Air trap • Air relief valve • Upper vent valve |
Air trap |
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What component of the Model 310 fluid servicing unit prevents the unit from being operated unless there is a filter installed? • Two-way restrictor valve • Check valve • Air vent valve • One-way restrictor valve |
Check valve |
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The integral reservoir on the HSU-1 servicing unit is constructed from what type of material? • Composite graphite • Iron • Cast aluminum • Stainless steel |
Cast aluminum |
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|
A metallic wiper is installed in what position? • The groove facing outward • The lip facing inward • The lip facing outward • The groove facing inward |
The lip facing outward |
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What is the length of the service hose on a HSU-1 servicing unit? • 5 ft • 10 ft • 7 ft • 8 ft |
7 ft |
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What type of filter is incorporated in the HSU-1 servicing unit? • 3-micron, cleanable filter • 3-micron, disposable filter • 3-micron (absolute) cleanable filter • 3-micron (absolute) disposable filter |
3-micron (absolute) disposable filter |
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What component of the H-250-1 servicing unit minimizes airborne particulates and moisture contamination? • Check valve • 3 micron filter • 5 micron filter • Hand pump restrictor |
Check valve |
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What is the maximum fluid holding capacity of the HSU-1 fluid servicing unit? • 4 gallons • 2 gallons • 1 gallon • 3 gallons |
2 gallons |
|
|
The H-250-1 hydraulic servicing unit is equipped with what size service hose? • 5 ft • 8 ft • 7 ft • 6 ft |
8 ft |
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|
All hydraulic fluid servicing units must be equipped with what type of filtration? • 5 micron • 3 micron • 5 micron (absolute) • 3 micron (absolute) |
3 micron (absolute) |
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|
What are the two types of backup rings used in naval aircraft? • Teflon® single and double spiral • O-ring and V-ring • Flat and parallel • Leather and polyvinyl |
Teflon® single and double spiral |
|
|
You have spilled hydraulic fluid on an aircraft after servicing it. It must be cleaned with approved wiping materials and with what other cleaning material? • Soap and water • Mineral spirits • Air • Dry-cleaning solvent |
Mineral spirits |
|
|
What is the fluid holding capacity of a Model H-250-1 servicing unit? • 5 gallons • 2 gallons • 1 gallon • 3 gallons |
1 gallon |
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|
When you install Teflon® spiral rings in an internal groove, you must use what type of spiral? • Double clockwise • Double counterclockwise • Right-hand • Left-hand |
Right-hand |
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|
The Model 310 fluid servicing unit uses what type of pump? • Double-action hand pump • Constant-displacement, motor-driven pump • Single-action hand pump • Variable-displacement, motor-driven pump |
Single-action hand pump |
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|
Which of the following protective closures are approved for sealing hydraulic equipment? • Plastic caps and plugs • Rubber caps and plugs • Paper caps and plugs • Metal caps and plugs |
Metal caps and plugs |
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|
A vent hose is connected on the HSU-1 servicing unit from the top of the reservoir and what other location? • Base of the unit • Bottom of the reservoir • Vent check valve • Upper can piercer
|
Upper can piercer |
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|
What is the specific shelf life, if any, of Teflon® backup rings? • 3 years • 1 year • They have no shelf life • 2 years |
They have no shelf life |
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|
With every full stroke of the pump, the HSU-1 will deliver what quantity of fluid? • 2.0 fluid ounces • 1.5 fluid ounces • 3.0 fluid ounces • 4.0 fluid ounces |
1.5 fluid ounces |
|
|
How many gpm does the pressure outlet flowmeter on the A/M27T-5 unit indicate? • 2 to 30 gpm • 2 to 50 gpm • 2 to 10 gpm • 2 to 15 gpm
|
2 to 15 gpm
|
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If the manifold of a portable test stand is equipped with a shutoff valve, what position must the valve be in prior to starting the unit? • Close • Open • Normal • Off |
Close |
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|
What publication covers detailed information on the A/M27T-5? • NA 17-15BF-93 • NA 17-15BF-89 • NA 17-15BF-91 • NA 17-15BF-95 |
NA 17-15BF-89 |
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|
What is the recommended minimum inside bend radius for a 1-inch test stand hose? • 5.90 • 4.30 • 7.31 • 5.37 |
5.90 |
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|
At what psi does the A/M27T-5 provide a flow rate of 24 gpm? • 2,000 psi • 1,000 psi • 3,000 psi • 4,000 psi |
3,000 psi |
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|
When using a portable hydraulic test stand on an aircraft in test stand mode, you must adjust the backpressure reducing valve to what pressure? • Half the normal aircraft reservoir pressure • Normal system operating pressure • Half the normal system operating pressure • Normal aircraft reservoir pressure |
Normal aircraft reservoir pressure |
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|
What is the type equipment code (TEC) for the A/M27T-7 unit? • GCAA • GJCA • GGJZ • GGJV |
GGJV |
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|
What is the type equipment code (TEC) for the A/M27T-5 unit? • GGJV • GGJZ • GJCA • GCAA |
GGJZ |
|
|
The fluid temperature warning light on the A/M27T-5 unit will illuminate at what temperature? • 180°F • 200°F • 160°F • 120°F |
160°F |
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|
You can accomplish simultaneous multisystem operational checks on an aircraft by using which of the following methods? • By attaching a T-fitting between the aircraft system's main selector valve • By using a separate hydraulic test stand for each aircraft system only • By manifolding two or more aircraft systems to a common test stand only • Both 2 and 3 above |
By using a separate hydraulic test stand for each aircraft system only |
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|
Portable hydraulic test stands must be allowed to recirculation clean for how long prior to using the unit?
• 1 to 2 minutes • 8 to 10 minutes • 5 to 7 minutes • 3 to 5 minutes |
3 to 5 minutes
|
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|
When you are using a portable hydraulic test stand during an aircraft operation, the bypass control should be in what position? • Half opened • Fully closed • Adjusted to the operating pressure • Fully opened |
Fully closed |
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|
What is the normal fluid operating temperature on a portable hydraulic test stand? • 95° • 100° • 85° • 75° |
85° |
|
|
What is the range of the fluid temperature gauge on the A/M27T-5 unit? • 20° to 220° • 20° to 150° • 10° to 100° • 20° to 175° |
20° to 220° |
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|
What company manufactures the portable Hydraulic Test Stand A/M27T-5? • Janke and Company, Inc. • Dynacorp, Inc. • General Dynamics, Inc. • Teledyne Sprague Engineering |
Janke and Company, Inc. |
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|
What is the recommended minimum inside bend radius for a 1/2-inch test stand hose? • 5.37 • 5.90 • 4.30 • 2.30 |
2.30 |
|
|
The A/M27T-5 portable hydraulic test stand is replacing what other test stand? • A/M27T-3 • AHT-64 • A/M27T-7 • AHT-63 |
AHT-64 |
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|
When operating a portable hydraulic test stand on an aircraft system, you should use the test stand reservoir mode whenever possible for what reason? • This mode allows the test stand reservoir supply valve to remain open, allowing greater backpressure in the return system • This mode eliminates the possibility of aircraft pump cavitation • This mode ensures positive flow to the aircraft pump • This mode enables aircraft fluid deaeration during system operation |
This mode enables aircraft fluid deaeration during system operation |
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|
During normal operation of a portable hydraulic test stand, an engine part fails. What procedure should you follow? • Reduce the pressure slowly • Turn off electrical power • Reduce the pressure rapidly • Stop the engine |
Stop the engine |
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On the A/M27T-5, the S2 switch will close when the pressure between the high pressure filter inlet and outlet port is different by how much psi? • 75 psi • 50 psi • 25 psi • 100 psi |
100 psi |
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Other than a loaded filter, what will cause a pressure differential indicator (PDI) on a filter assembly to pop up? • Low fluid level • Cold weather starting • A new filter • Hot weather starting |
Cold weather starting |
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Other than providing external hydraulic power to an aircraft, a portable hydraulic test stand also serves as the primary means of aircraft decontamination. • True • False |
True |
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During shutdown, before the throttle of an engine-driven portable hydraulic test stand is pushed completely closed, the engine should run at 100 rpm for approximately how many minutes? • 12 min • 10 min • 1 min • 5 min |
5 min |
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What action must you take if a pressure differential indicator pops up on a portable hydraulic test stand after you have reset the indicator? • Reset the indicator again • Turn in the equipment to the supporting Activity • Remove and replace the filter • Check the fluid level |
Turn in the equipment to the supporting Activity |
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What is the range of the head temperature gauge on the A/M27T-5 unit? • 350° to 500° • 50° to 100° • 250° to 350° • 100° to 250° |
100° to 250° |
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When free air enters a fluid at a very high rate, the rapid collapse of bubbles generates extremely high local fluid velocities that are converted into impact pressure. What is this phenomenon known as? • Cavitation • Modulation • Consumption • Starvation |
Cavitation |
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Where should an identification tag be placed on a locally manufactured hose assembly? • Directly following the end fitting • Not less than 1/2 inch from the end fitting • 1/4 inch from the end • In the middle of the hose |
Not less than 1/2 inch from the end fitting |
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What part of a hose fitting fits the inside diameter of a hose? • Sleeve • Flange • Socket • Nipple |
Nipple |
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What style of fittings is authorized as replacement fittings for replacement hose assemblies? • Crimp style • Swage style • Reusable style • Flared style |
Reusable style |
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Fabrication of hoses is the function of what maintenance level? • Intermediate • Intermediate and Depot • Organizational • Depot |
Intermediate and Depot |
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Before connecting a portable hydraulic test stand to an aircraft system, what two tasks must you ? • Service the reservoir and set parking brake • Service reservoir and take a hydraulic sample • Set parking brake and apply electrical power • Recirculation clean the unit and take a hydraulic sample |
Recirculation clean the unit and take a hydraulic sample |
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What are the two methods used to secure a hose fitting on a hose? • Flareless and reusable • Flared and crimp • Reusable and crimp • Flared and flareless |
Reusable and crimp |
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When the hydraulic fluid of SE contains a substance not readily removed by the internal filters, what decontamination method should you use? • Purging • Purifying • Flushing • Recirculation cleaning |
Flushing |
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What size is a -8 hose assembly? • 3/8 inch • 1/2 inch • 8/16 inch • 1/4 inch |
8/16 inch |
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The test chamber of the HCT-10 stationary hydraulic test stand is constructed from what material? • 1/2-inch steel plate • 1/4-inch steel plate • 1/2-inch aluminum plate • 7/8-inch aluminum plate |
1/4-inch steel plate |
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Which of the following identification band codes identifies a hose assembly that was manufactured in June 1980? • 2Q1980 • 6Q1980 • A3Q80 • A2Q80 |
A2Q80 |
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When failure of a flexible hose assembly with swaged end fittings occurs, what procedure should you follow? • Remove and replace the entire assembly • Splice the damaged section • Retorque the fittings • Replace the fitting |
Replace the fitting |
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Prior to hydraulic sampling, SE must be run for what maximum length of time? • 7 min • 10 min • 5 min • 15 min |
5 min |
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What type of fitting requires the socket to be permanently deformed by an electric or hydraulic-powered machine? • Crimp • Flared • Reusable • Flareless |
Crimp |
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How many basic types of hoses are used in military aircraft? • Three • Four • Two • One |
Two |
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To aid in the removal of free air, what components are sometimes provided at high points in the aircraft hydraulic circulatory system? • Air bleed valves • Restrictor valves • Filler valves • Check valves |
Air bleed valves |
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Aircraft hose fittings are manufactured from aluminum, carbon steel, and what other material? • Corrosion-resistant steel • Brass • Titanium alloy • Iron |
Corrosion-resistant steel |
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What decontamination method must be performed under the direct supervision of the cognizant engineering activity? • Flushing • Purging • Purifying • Recirculation cleaning
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Purging |
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How is a wire-braid Teflonâ hose assembly identified?
• A band at both ends • A band at each end and in intervals of every 3 feet • A band in the middle of the hose • A band at one end |
A band in the middle of the hose
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What must be accomplished after you have completed all air bleed operations? • Disconnect and reconnect the unit to the aircraft • Turn in the unit for further maintenance • Shut down the unit and re-start it • Check the hydraulic fluid levels |
Check the hydraulic fluid levels |
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What is the part number for the hydraulic fluid contamination analysis kit? • P/N 574141 • P/N 571414 • P/N 571114 • P/N 574411 |
P/N 571414 |
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Air in a hydraulic system generates no problem as long as it remains in what state? • Free • Dissolved • Filtered • Entrained |
Dissolved |
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When SE is found to be unacceptably contaminated with particulate matter, but the fluid is otherwise considered satisfactory, you should use which of the following decontamination methods? • Flushing • Recirculation cleaning • Purging • Purifying |
Recirculation cleaning |
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What color is a steel flared hose fitting? • Blue • Black • Cadmium • Brown |
Black |
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Age-controlled, deteriorative-type hoses used to carry hydraulic fluid in SE units should NOT remain in service for more than what maximum number of years beyond the manufacturer's cure date? • 7 years • 6 years • 5 years • 8 years |
7 years |
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What is the maximum torque applied to the end fittings of a -8 hose assembly with aluminum fittings? • 260 inch-pounds • 470 inch-pounds • 430 inch-pounds • 230 inch-pounds |
260 inch-pounds |
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Oxygen hose assemblies must be cleaned and tested in accordance with what manual? • NA 01-1A-20 • NA 13-1-4-4 • NA 13-1-6-4 • NA 01-1A-17 |
NA 13-1-6-4 |
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The Greer aircraft hydraulic hose test stand is capable of developing static pressure up to what psi? • 50,000 psi • 40,000 psi • 30,000 psi • 3,000 psi |
30,000 psi |
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What is the smallest size of aluminum tubing that you can bend by hand to form a radius? • 1/8 inch • 3/8 inch • 1/4 inch • 1/16 inch
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1/4 inch |
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If a leak on a swivel nut of a hose assembly is still present after you have retorqued it, what procedure should you follow? • Replace the swivel fitting • Replace the entire hose assembly • Remove fitting, clean, and reinstall • Retorque it once again |
Replace the entire hose assembly |
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What is the maximum pneumatic pressure available on the CGS Scientific hose burst test stand? • 1,000 psi • 3,000 psi • 1,500 psi • 5,000 psi |
1,500 psi |
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The double-flared joint is used on 5052 aluminum alloy tubing with an outside diameter that is less than what measurement? • 1/8 inch • 1/4 inch • 3/8 inch • 1/2 inch |
1/2 inch |
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Tubing assemblies used in landing gear, wing flap, and brake systems are manufactured from what type of tubing? • Aluminum alloy • Titanium alloy • Stainless steel • Corrosion-resistant steel |
Corrosion-resistant steel |
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What period of time applies to a hose from its cure date to the procuring activity's date of acceptance? • Age control • Acceptance life • Service life • Shelf life |
Acceptance life |
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What color is an aluminum alloy tube fitting? • Brown • Blue • Black • Cadmium |
Blue |
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The wall thickness of a tube assembly is specified in what measurement? • Thousandths of an inch • Hundredths of an inch • Tenths of an inch • Ten thousandth of an inch |
Thousandths of an inch |
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How many times can a steel connector be used as a presetting tool on a piece of aluminum tubing? • Two times • One time • Four times • Five times |
Five times |
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What is the outside diameter of a No. 6 tubing assembly? • 5/16 inch • 1/4 inch • 3/8 inch • 1/8 inch |
3/8 inch |
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The chamfer left on the end of a tube after it has been deburred should not exceed what measurement? • 1/4 wall thickness • 1/8 wall thickness • 1/2 wall thickness • 1/3 wall thickness
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1/2 wall thickness |
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What is the maximum hydraulic pressure available on the CGS Scientific hose burst test stand? • 15,000 psi • 5,000 psi • 3,000 psi • 10,000 psi |
15,000 psi |
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How many different types of tube cutters can be used to cut a piece of tubing? • Three • Four • One • Two |
Two |
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What is the first step in proof testing a hose assembly using the Greer test stand? • Connect air supply to the stand • Make sure the reservoir is full • Pressure regulator to the off setting • Pressure regulator to the low setting |
Pressure regulator to the low setting |
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What manual contains information on the fabrication of a hose assembly? • NA 01-1A-20 • NA 01-1A-22 • NA 01-1A-23 • NA 01-1A-17 |
NA 01-1A-20 |
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What type of aluminum alloy tubing can be used to replace any aluminum line? • 2024 T3 • 6061 T6 • 5056 T6 • 2024 T6 |
6061 T6 |
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If a tube cutter is not available, what other method can be used to cut a piece of tubing? • Coping saw • Fine-tooth hacksaw • Jig saw • Band saw |
Fine-tooth hacksaw |
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What other test media can be used to proof pressure test a hydraulic hose assembly other than MIL-H-6083 and MIL-H-46170, Type II? • Lubricating oil • Clean, dry air • Nitrogen • Water |
Nitrogen |
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The number of degrees marked on a hand tube bender are from 0 to what degree? • 60 degrees • 180 degrees • 90 degrees • 45 degrees |
180 degrees |
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What type of hose assembly is replaced on a conditional basis? • Teflonâ hose • Synthetic rubber hose • Steel braided hose • Carbon Steel braided hose |
Teflonâ hose |
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What is the first step in the removal of a hydraulic hose assembly from an aircraft? • Turn swivel nuts to remove the hose assembly • Perform contamination control procedures • Remove all supporting clamps • Remove any lockwire |
Remove all supporting clamps |
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How many different types of flared tubing joints are used to manufacture aircraft tubing assemblies? • Three • Five • Four • Two |
Two |
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Tube assemblies that will be installed in a system with an operating pressure of less that 50 psi must be proof tested at what minimum pressure? • 50 psi • 75 psi • 100 psi • 200 psi |
100 psi |
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The operation of a single-acting 56143753 spring-loaded, piston-type actuating cylinder is normally controlled by what component?
• A sequence valve • A directional control valve • A priority valve • A limiting switch |
A directional control valve
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If hydraulic pressure is used to move a single-acting actuating cylinder in only one direction, all EXCEPT which of the following forces may be used to move it in the opposite direction? • Fluid bypass • Gravity • Nitrogen pressure • Spring tension |
Fluid bypass |
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What manual contains information on the type of protective finishes that must be applied to aircraft tubing assemblies? • NA 01-1A-22 • NA 01-1A-1 • NA 01-1A-20 • NA 01-1A-509 |
NA 01-1A-509 |
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To equalize the displacement of fluid on either side of the piston, a double-action, finger-lock actuator incorporates what component? • An integral spring-loaded mechanical lock • A piston spring • An inner cylinder • A balance shaft |
An inner cylinder |
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How much psi does the D10004 portable hydraulic power supply generate when used for swaging tube fittings? • 5,500 psi • 1,000 psi • 3,500 psi • 3,000 psi |
5,500 psi |
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An aluminum alloy tube carrying pressure greater than 100 psi must be replaced if it has a scratch or nick greater than what percentage of the tube wall thickness? • 15% • 5% • 10% • 20% |
15% |
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Aircraft actuating cylinders are used when which of the following mechanism movements are required? • Linear motion only • Linear or reciprocating motion • Bilateral motion • Reciprocating motion only |
Linear motion only |
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When the cylinder is in the down and locked position, the locking ball bearings are held in the locking position by what means? • Detent springs • Hydraulic pressure • A ball-lock plunger • A piston shaft |
A ball-lock plunger |
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In the maintenance of actuating cylinders, what is the most common trouble encountered? • Internal leakage • External leakage • Electrical damage • Mechanical damage |
External leakage |
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A tandem-type, control surface actuating cylinder uses a synchronizing rod for what purpose? • To equalize the flow of fluid into the actuator piston chambers • To isolate fluid pressure during an emergency • To direct pressure to each control surface • To allow the pilot to operate either flight control surface independently |
To equalize the flow of fluid into the actuator piston chambers |
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In a power-operated flight control system, all the force necessary for deflecting the control surface is supplied by hydraulic pressure. • True • False |
True |
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How many general classes of hazards are associated with fluids that travel through a tubing assembly? • 2 • 5 • 4 • 10 |
4 |
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In reference to a double-acting, piston-type actuating cylinder, which of the following statements is correct? • The stroke of the piston rod travels in one direction only • The cylinder contains two pistons and one rod • Fluid pressure can be applied to either side of the piston • There are two pressure and two return ports |
There are two pressure and two return ports |
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What tool should NOT be used to tighten a tube connector? • Adjustable wrench • Pliers • Strap wrench • Combination wrench |
Pliers |
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How far beyond the normal torque can a steel flared tube assembly be tightened if it is leaking? • 1/8 turn • 1/16 turn • 1/2 turn • 1/4 turn |
1/16 turn |
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Engine related tube assemblies are normally manufactured from what material? • Stainless steel • Corrosion-resistant steel • Titanium alloy • Aluminum alloy |
Corrosion-resistant steel |
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When does a temporary repair of a tube assembly need to be replaced by a permanent repair? • During the next daily inspection • During the next phase inspection • During the next special inspection • During the next rework cycle
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During the next rework cycle
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How many different types of tube failures can you repair by using Permaswage fittings and techniques? • 5 • 3 • 4 • 10 |
4 |
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What is the maximum lengthwise movement a sleeve can have on the fittings of a tube assembly? • 1/64 inch • 1/8 inch • 1/32 inch • 1/16 inch |
1/64 inch |
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During normal extension of a landing gear finger-lock actuator, which of the following forces move(s) the piston over the fingers? • Hydraulic pressure and spring tension only • Hydraulic pressure, spring tension, and the Airstream • The airstream only • Hydraulic pressure only |
Hydraulic pressure and spring tension only |
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How far apart should you install support clamps on a 3/8-inch aluminum alloy tube assembly? • 16-1/2 inches • 26-1/2 inches • 28-1/2 inches • 13-1/2 inches |
16-1/2 inches |
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An unbalanced, double-acting, piston-type actuating cylinder uses a directional control valve capable of directing fluid in what total number of ways? • Four • Two • Three • One |
Four |
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What method is use to identify a tube assembly where identification tape cannot be installed because of the location of the line? • Use an etcher • Use a scribe • Use colored markers • Use paint |
Use paint |
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What unit transforms hydraulic fluid pressure into mechanical force, which performs work by moving some mechanism? • A control unit • A power unit • An actuating unit • A cylinder unit |
An actuating unit |
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For the proper cleaning, inspection, repair, and testing of selector valves, you should use what series of NAVAIR manuals as a guide? • 04 series • 03 series • 01 series • 02 series |
03 series |
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An actuating units speed of operation is controlled by what component? • A priority valve • A sequence valve • A capacitor • A restrictor |
A restrictor |
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A closed-center hydraulic system with a variable displacement pump has what type of valve installed as a backup safety for over pressurization? • A selector valve • A check valve • A relief valve • A bypass valve |
A relief valve |
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In an open-center hydraulic system, what type of valve prevents pressure from building up until a demand is placed on the system? • A bypass valve • A selector valve • A pressure-relief valve • A check valve |
A selector valve |
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A slide-type selector valve should have a light film of hydraulic fluid applied to the exposed areas of the slide primarily for what purpose? • To prevent corrosion • To lubricate the slide • To prevent external leakage • To prevent the entry of foreign matter |
To prevent corrosion |
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A solenoid-operated selector valve is controlled by what means? • Hydraulically • Mechanically • Pneumatically • Electrically |
Electrically |
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Isolation of the normal system from the emergency hydraulic system is the main function of what valve? • The priority valve • The shuttle valve • The isolation valve • The control valve |
The shuttle valve |
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Hydraulic flight control system design specifications require what total number of separate systems for operation of the primary flight controls? • Three • One • Two • Four |
Two |
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Hydraulic pressure is converted into rotary mechanical motion by which of the following components? • A hydraulic motor • A control surface actuator • A power control cylinder • An actuating cylinder |
A hydraulic motor |
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A bypass check valve differs from an automatic check valve in which of the following ways? • It can be manually closed to completely stop the flow of fluid in both directions • It is automatically opened to allow fluid to flow in both directions • It is automatically opened to allow restricted flow in both directions • It can be manually opened to allow fluid to flow in both directions |
It can be manually opened to allow fluid to flow in both directions |
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Trouble associated with a mechanically operated sequence valve is most commonly a result of what problem? • Improper adjustment • Foreign matter • Weak valve springs • Faulty O-ring seals |
Improper adjustment |
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Sequence valves may be operated in which of the following ways? • By pressure only • By pressure, mechanically, or electrically only • By pressure, mechanically, electrically, or Pneumatically • By pressure or mechanically only |
By pressure or mechanically only |
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In an open-center hydraulic system, the selector valve automatically returns to the neutral position and to open-center flow when the actuating mechanism reaches the end of its cycle and the system relief valve setting is reached. This is known as what type of selector valve? • Manually engaged and manually disengaged • Pressure engaged and manually disengaged • Pressure engaged and pressure disengaged • Manually engaged and pressure disengaged |
Manually engaged and pressure disengaged |
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Currently, what type of selector valve is the most durable and trouble-free? • The slide-type • The poppet-type • The solenoid-type • The shuttle-type |
The slide-type |
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When all four of the poppets of a poppet-type selector valve are held firmly seated by the springs and there is no fluid flow, the valve is in what position? • The pressure position • The neutral position • The return position • The working position |
The return position |
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External leakage from a poppet-type selector valve could be caused by which of the following conditions? • A damaged O-ring packing on the poppet • A damaged bottom gasket on the poppet Seat • A damaged gasket under the sealing plug • Adamaged center packing on the camshaft |
A damaged O-ring packing on the poppet |
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The slide-type selector valve has raised, machined portions that are known by which of the following terms? • Lobes • Lands • Stops • Retainers |
Lands |
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The poppets of a poppet-type selector valve are actuated by what means? • The cams on the camshaft • The return fluid pressure • The solenoid • The poppet spring |
The cams on the camshaft |
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What are the two types of mechanically operated sequence valves? • Balanced and unbalanced • Equal and unequal • Loaded and unloaded • Manual and automatic |
Balanced and unbalanced |
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To retard the action of a hydraulic cylinder by limiting the flow of fluid in both directions, you should use which of the following devices? • A one-way restrictor • A control valve • A timing valve • A two-way restrictor |
A two-way restrictor |
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Excessive heating of a shuttle valve is a good indication of what type of problem? • Broken mechanical linkage • External leakage • Internal leakage • Improper adjustment |
Internal leakage |
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Hydraulic motors are commonly used to operate which of the following aircraft equipment? • Radar and wing flaps • Landing and arresting gear • Speed brakes and trim tabs • Rudders and stabilizers |
Radar and wing flaps |
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A slide-type selector valve has three grooves at the end next to the eye. The grooves are known by which of the following terms? • Lines • Detents • Rings • Lands |
Lands |
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A system that combines the use of hydraulics and pneumatics is known by what term? • Pneumatolytic • Hydroponics • Hydropneumatics • Pneumatophore |
Hydropneumatics |
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For the operation of actuating units in an emergency, what type of pump is generally installed? • An engine-driven pump • A double-action pump • A motor-driven pump • A single-action hand pump |
An engine-driven pump |
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The use of a variable displacement pump in a hydraulic system eliminates the need for what component? • A hydraulic fuse • A reservoir • A pressure regulator • An accumulator |
A pressure regulator |
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The fluid quantity of a nonpressurized reservoir is indicated by a float and arm liquidometer. The liquidometer is operated by what means? • Electrically • Mechanically • Hydraulically • Pneumatically |
Mechanically |
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In an air-pressurized reservoir, the fluid quantity is indicated by what means? • The level of fluid shown in the sight gauge • The level of fluid in the filter neck • The distance the piston rod protrudes from the reservoir end cap • The level of fluid on the dip stick |
The distance the piston rod protrudes from the reservoir end cap |
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What valve shuts off flow to the secondary systems during flight? • The isolation valve • The air valve • The snubber valve • The check valve |
The isolation valve |
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A pump that delivers 3 gallons of fluid per minute at a speed of 2,800 rpm, and continues to deliver at that rate regardless of the pressure in the system, is known as what type of pump? • A variable-displacement pump • A constant-displacement pump • A rotary-action pump • A gear-type pump |
A variable-displacement pump |
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What is the purpose of a reservoir pressure and vacuum-relief valve? • To maintain a differential pressure range between the reservoir and the cabin • To vent the reservoir to the cabin • To allow fluid to flow between the main system reservoirs • To maintain 15 psi in the reservoir |
To maintain a differential pressure range between the reservoir and the cabin |
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The reservoir is pressurized by what force? • Hydraulic pressure • Engine bleed air • Ram air • Accumulator preload |
Engine bleed air |
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The instruction plate of a reservoir contains all EXCEPT which of the following information? • The fluid capacity of the reservoir • The complete instructions for filling the reservoir • The specification number and color of the fluid to be used • The frequency the reservoir should be purged |
The fluid capacity of the reservoir |
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To change the rotation of a piston-type (constant displacement) pump, you must perform which of the following functions? • Reverse the drive gears • Reverse the universal link • Rotate the valve plate 90 degrees • Rotate the valve plate 180 degrees
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Rotate the valve plate 180 degrees
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What type of hydraulic control valves and actuators operate the primary flight controls? • Hydropneumatic • Double acting • Single acting • Tandem construction |
Tandem construction |
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Gear-type pumps are usually driven by what means? • A servo unit • A dc electric motor • An ac electric motor • An aircraft engine |
A dc electric motor |
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Normally, an air pressure regulator maintains what amount of pressure in the reservoir? • 10 psi • 90 psi • 40 psi • 15 psi |
40 psi |
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A fluid-pressurized reservoir is divided into two chambers by what device? • A floating piston • A horizontal diaphragm • A vertical baffle • A pressure probe |
A floating piston |
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A piston-type (constant displacement) pump sucks fluid into one port and forces it out the other port. This is known as what type of piston motion? • Rotary • Axial • Reciprocating • Counterrotating |
Reciprocating |
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What type of hand pumps is used in naval aircraft hydraulic systems? • Double-action • Single-action • Compound-stroke • Simple-stroke |
Double-action |
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There are a total of how many classes of hydraulic reservoirs? • Four • Three • Two • One |
Two |
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When air is in the emergency hydraulic system and the handle of the hand pump is moved to the right, what handle reaction, if any, will occur? • It will creep slowly to the left only • It will creep slowly to the left and then spring rapidly to the right • It will spring rapidly to the left • None |
It will creep slowly to the left only |
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What is the purpose of a chemical air dryer? • To prevent moisture from escaping from the reservoir • To prevent air from entering the system • To seal the reservoir at the filler neck • To absorb moisture that may collect from air entering the system |
To prevent air from entering the system |
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The Bourdon tube in a direct-reading pressure gauge is operated by what means? • Electrical current • Fluid pressure • Mechanical linkage • Spring action |
Mechanical linkage |
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You can preload an accumulator by using which of the following procedures? • Pressurizing the fluid chamber with compressed air • Filling the fluid chamber with a prescribed amount of fluid • Inflating the air chamber to a predetermined pressure below the system operating pressure • Inflating the air chamber to a predetermined pressure above the system operating pressure |
Inflating the air chamber to a predetermined pressure below the system operating pressure |
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To increase the opening pressure of a thermal relief valve, what action must you take? • Replace the poppet spring and ball with a smaller one • Turn the adjusting screwcounterclockwise • Turn the adjusting screw clockwise • Replace the poppet spring and ball with a larger one |
Turn the adjusting screw clockwise |
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Which of the following components is/are NOT a part of a cylindrical type accumulator? • Rubber diaphragm • Cylinder • End caps • Piston assembly |
Rubber diaphragm |
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As system pressure drops, the Vickers electric, motor-driven pump will provide what maximum flow rate? • 8 gpm at 2,200 psi • 8 gpm at 3,000 psi • 6 gpm at 2,900 psi • 9 gpm at 3,100 psi |
8 gpm at 2,200 psi |
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The differential pressure indicator on a filter assembly is reset by what means once the button is extended? • Hydraulically • Manually • Electrically • Pneumatically |
Manually |
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You can stop the flow of fluid in a needle-type, manual shutoff valve by which of the following means? • Turning the handle in a clockwise direction • Pulling the lever • Pushing the lever • Turning the handle in a counterclockwise Direction |
Turning the handle in a clockwise direction |
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What component is used to conserve space and provide a means where common fluid lines may come together? • A venturi • A network • A control center • A manifold |
A manifold |
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What type of noncleanable filter element is used on most naval aircraft? • 3-micron • 5-micron • 3-micron (absolute) • 5-micron (absolute) |
5-micron (absolute) |
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What type of accumulator is most commonly used in high-pressure hydraulic systems? • The spherical type • The ball type • The cylindrical type • The diaphragm type |
The cylindrical type |
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During operation of a Stratopower pump in a nonflow condition, lubrication is provided by what means? • A bypass piston • A compensator piston • A compensator spring • A bypass system |
A bypass system |
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To indicate the amount of pressure in A hydraulic system, naval aircraft use what two types of pressure gauges? • Synchro and electric • Direct-reading and Bourdon • Direct-reading and synchro • Direct-reading and indirect-reading |
Synchro and electric |
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To prevent fluid loss when the bowl has been removed, most filter assemblies incorporate what item in the head? • A check valve • An automatic shutoff valve • A quick-disconnect • A cover plate |
An automatic shutoff valve |
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A shutoff valve is used for all EXCEPT which of the following purposes? • To relieve excessive pressure • To control the speed a component moves • To control the flow of fluid • To help isolate trouble by shutting off systems or subsystems |
To relieve excessive pressure |
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A synchro-type pressure indicator transmits what type of signal from the synchro to the indicator? • Electrical • Pneumatic • Hydraulic • Mechanical |
Hydraulic |
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An electric solenoid shutoff valve is also referred to as what type of valve? • A sequential valve • A priority valve • A compensator valve • An electrocontrol valve |
A priority valve |
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Relief valves are installed in aircraft hydraulic systems for what purpose? • To direct the flow of fluid from the pump to the actuators • To aid in control stick movement • To protect the system from excessive fluid pressurization • To prevent shock strut overpressurization |
To protect the system from excessive fluid pressurization |
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A Stratopower pump has creep plates installed for what purpose? • To decrease wear on the revolving cam • To provide a support for the stationary bearing • To ensure proper alignment of the nutation Plate • To increase the angle of the drive cam
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To decrease wear on the revolving cam |
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To provide a positive fluid pressure at the suction port, what type of boost pump is incorporated into the Vickers electric, motor-driven, variable-displacement pump? • A turbo boost pump • A Stratopower boost pump • A ramp-type boost pump • A centrifugal boost pump |
A centrifugal boost pump |
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The internal parts of a Stratopower (variable displacement) pump perform what four major functions? • Hydraulic drive, flow control, pressure regulation, and bypass • Pressure control, flow control, mechanical drive, and pressure regulation • Bypass, pressure regulation, fluid displacement, and hydraulic drive • Pressure control, mechanical drive, bypass, and fluid displacement |
Pressure control, mechanical drive, bypass, and fluid displacement |
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What is the maximum allowable temperature for any type of military aircraft hydraulic system? • 200°F • 100°F • 300°F • 400°F |
400°F |
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A radiator-type hydraulic fluid cooler uses what medium for cooling? • Engine oil • Engine fuel • Electric blower • Ambient air |
Electric blower |
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• Rotate the eccentric bushing • Remove the nut and cotter pin from the lock arm shaft • Disconnect the upper drag brace • Disconnect the lower drag brace |
Remove the nut and cotter pin from the lock arm shaft |
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When inspecting a strut assembly at an intermediate maintenance activity, what tool should you use to check the bearings for residual magnetism? • A magnet • A dial indicator • A mattock • A sensitive compass |
A sensitive compass |
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At intermediate level, once you have removed the air valve from a strut, what is the next step when rebuilding a strut? • Fill the strut with hydraulic fluid • Drain the hydraulic fluid • Extend the strut • Remove the gland nut |
Remove the gland nut |
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What should be used to blend out minor scratches, nicks, and burrs from a machined surface of a steel part? • Crocus cloth • Scribe • Flap brush • Grinding wheel |
Crocus cloth |
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When inspecting the machined surfaces of a disassembled strut, you should look for corrosion, abrasions, gouges, grooves, scores scratches, and what other discrepancy? • Mars • Nicks • Burrs • Roughness |
Mars |
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After you have serviced a shock strut, the air valve swivel nut should be tightened to what torque? • 80 to 90 inch pounds • 50 to 70 inch pounds • 20 to 30 inch pounds • 100 to 110 inch pounds |
100 to 110 inch pounds |
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When performing a drop check with the test stand set at 3,000 psi and 3 gpm, how long should it take the gear to make a complete up and down cycle? • 9 to 11 seconds • 12 to 14 seconds • 3 to 5 seconds • 5 to 8 seconds |
12 to 14 seconds |
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The landing gear drag brace is hinged at the center for which of the following reasons? • To facilitate maintenance • To facilitate proper inspections • To permit the brace to jackknife during gear retraction • To permit the brace to jackknife during gear extension
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To permit the brace to jackknife during gear extension |
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What does the term Brinelling mean when you are inspecting the bearings of a shock strut? • Warpage of the bearing retainer • Loose rollers • Shallow indentations in the raceway • Binding rollers |
Shallow indentations in the raceway |
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What type of tool is used for replacing O-rings in a disassembled shock strut machined surface? • Brass tool • Screwdriver • Awl • Scribe |
Brass tool |
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What is the first step in performing an emergency landing gear system drop check once you have the aircraft on jacks and hydraulic and electrical power hooked up to the aircraft? • Pull and hold the emergency extension Handle • Place the landing gear handle in the down position • Secure hydraulic pressure • Retract the gear normally |
Retract the gear normally |
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What is used to secure the gland nut of a shock strut once it has been tightened? • Two screws and safety wire • Clip locks • Cotter pins • Roll pin |
Two screws and safety wire |
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The brake linings of a single disc brake assembly are known by what term? • Discs • Pucks • Plates • Rotors |
Pucks |
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In an independent brake system, the reservoir fluid level is checked by what means? • A dip stick • A lower ring in the filler neck • A sight gauge • A cockpit indicator |
A sight gauge |
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An overheated wheel brake assembly should be allowed to cool in the ambient air for what prescribed amount of time? • 30 to 40 min • 15 to 25 min • 45 to 60 min • 35 to 45 min |
45 to 60 min |
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Before disassembling a master brake cylinder, what device should you install on the end of the piston rod to prevent personal injury? • A nut • A spring compressor • A rig pin • A clamp |
A nut |
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What must be done to a strut that passes the bench test but is not installed on an aircraft immediately before it goes to supply? • Deflate the strut • Flush it with preservative hydraulic fluid • Fill it with compressed air • Drain the hydraulic fluid |
Flush it with preservative hydraulic fluid |
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When performing a thermal crack test on an automatic brake adjuster valve, you should crack the valve at what prescribed pressure range? • 12 to 17 psi • 41 to 45 psi • 30 to 37 psi • 20 to 29 psi |
30 to 37 psi |
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What factor(s) generally determine(s) the method you should use for bleeding brake systems? • The type of main hydraulic system used in the aircraft • The type and design of the brake system to be bled • The means by which the brake is mounted on the strut • The amount of air in the system
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The type and design of the brake system to be bled |
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In a power boost brake system, main hydraulic system pressure is used for what purpose? • To operate the emergency system only • To assist in pedal movement only • To assist in pedal movement and operate the emergency system • To assist in pedal movement, operate the emergency system, and actuate the brake cylinders |
To assist in pedal movement only |
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Fluid is routed to a Goodyear master cylinder by (a) what method and from (b) what source? • (a) Gravity (b) internal reservoir • (a) Hydraulic pump (b) external reservoir • (a) Gravity (b) external reservoir • (a) Hydraulic pump (b) internal reservoir
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(a) Gravity (b) external reservoir |
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The independent brake system reservoir leakage test is performed by connecting a source of air to the filler port at what prescribed pressure? • 25 psi • 30 psi • 35 psi • 50 psi |
25 psi |
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What type of report must accompany a strut that has been removed for unusual failure or malfunction? • Engineering investigation • Hazardous Material Report • Technical Publication Deficiency Report • Quality Deficiency Report (QDR) |
Quality Deficiency Report (QDR) |
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The brake pedal linkage of a power brake control valve (pressure ball check type) system is connected to the control valve by what component? • A piston shaft • A shackle • A tuning fork • A link |
A tuning fork |
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To perform an operational test on a power brake valve, you must have a test stand capable of supplying what minimum amount of hydraulic pressure? • 3000 psi • 4500 psi • 2000 psi • 1500 psi |
4500 psi |
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What is the purpose of a brake debooster cylinder? • To increase the pressure and decrease the volume of fluid flow to the brake • To decrease the pressure and increase the volume of fluid flow to the brake • To decrease both the pressure and the volume of fluid flow to the brake • To increase both the pressure and the volume of fluid flow to the brake |
To decrease the pressure and increase the volume of fluid flow to the brake |
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To give correct clearances between the rotating and stationary discs in a multiple/trimetallic brake system, what device traps a predetermined amount of fluid in the brake? • The annular piston • The stator • The backup ring • The automatic adjuster |
The automatic adjuster |
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What must be done to a strut that fails a bench test at intermediate-level maintenance? • Tighten the gland nut • Forward to next higher level of maintenance • Deflate and reservice • Replace the packings |
Forward to next higher level of maintenance |
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When you are performing an operational test on a power/manual brake valve, the hydraulic fluid must be within what prescribed temperature range? • 40° to 90°F • 70° to 110°F • 85° to 130°F • 55° to 100°F |
70° to 110°F |
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An independent-type brake system employing a Goodyear master cylinder must be bled by what method? • Top up • Bottom down • Bottom up • Top down |
Top up |
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What type of damage will condemn the inner cylinder of a shock strut from further service? • Nicks • Corrosion • Partial removal of plating • Roughness |
Partial removal of plating |
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During the reassembly of a master brake cylinder, what type of lubricant should you apply to the suspension rod end bearing? • Oil • Hydraulic fluid • Grease • Wax |
Hydraulic fluid |
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The tapered grip method is used to restrict the movement of the captured torquing-type automatic adjuster? • True • False |
True |
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During brake application in a trimetallic disc brake assembly, the braking force is directly transmitted to which of the following components? • The rotating disc • The pressure plate subassembly • The self-adjusting mechanism • The brake pistons |
The self-adjusting mechanism |
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In an ac generator drive system (hydraulically operated), when the return fluid exits the motor, it is routed through a heat exchanger and is cooled by what means? • By an electrically driven blower unit • By a compressor • By ram air • By fuel |
By ram air |
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In a wing fold system, what device prevents the wing fold handle from moving past the first stop when you are folding the wings? • A spring-loaded mechanical latch at the wing lock cylinder • A hydraulic lock at the wing fold cylinder • A hydraulic lock at the wing lock cylinder • A spring-loaded mechanical latch at the wing fold cylinder |
A spring-loaded mechanical latch at the wing lock cylinder |
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In a nosewheel steering system, what component generates an electrical signal proportional to the amount of deflection? • The steering amplifier • The feedback potentiometer • The steering transducer • The command potentiometer |
The command potentiometer |
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When the brakes are released, what component prevents the piston from returning to its original position? • The spring guide • The return spring • The adjusting pin • The retaining ring |
The return spring |
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What integral type of arresting hook has a Metco-coated hook point? • Type III • Type I • Type IV • Type II |
Type II |
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If automatic retraction fails, what components will raise the launch bar to the retracted position? • The locking fingers • The nose axle beam horns • The leaf springs • The coil springs |
The leaf springs |
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To prevent overtemperature and/reverse airflow in the engine compartment, the variable bypass bellmouth system is supplemented at low airspeeds and during ground operations by which of the following units? • The auxiliary air doors • The bellmouth ring • The front variable ramp • The aft variable ramp |
The auxiliary air doors |
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In a wing fold system, the spring-loaded check ball of the thermal relief valve reseats at what prescribed pressure? • 4,150 psi • 3,590 psi • 3,970 psi • 3,360 psi |
3,360 psi |
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What is the maximum operating pressure within a liquid centering spring assembly when it is bottomed out? • 10,000 psi • 1,000 psi • 20,000 psi • 50,000 psi |
20,000 psi |
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In a catapult system, the launch bar moves down and encloses the two horns on the nose gear axle beam enabling what action to take place? • The launch bar to be attached to the tension bar • The launch bar to steer the nose gear • The launch bar to be locked in the extend Position • The launch bar to remain straight |
The launch bar to steer the nose gear |
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You are performing an operational test of the air refueling probe system. What is the prescribed time range for the complete (a) extension cycle and (b) retraction cycle? • (a) 1 to 3 sec (b) 4 to 7 sec • (a) 2 to 5 sec (b) 5 to 9 sec • (a) 3 to 5 sec (b) 6 to 8 sec • (a) 5 to 7 sec (b) 9 to 11 sec |
(a) 5 to 7 sec (b) 9 to 11 sec |
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When pressure testing a dual disc brake assembly for leaks, you should hold the test pressure for what total number of minutes? • 5 min • 2 min • 4 min • 3 min |
2 min |
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When the control valve is in the neutral position in a bomb bay system, the doors are held closed by what means? • A hydraulic lock valve • Mechanical locks • Hydraulic pressure • A check valve |
Mechanical locks |
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The disc guide lining is attached to the disc guide by which of the following items? • Bolts • Nuts • Pins • Rivets |
Rivets |
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You are testing a trimetallic disc brake and have 90 psi applied to the brake assembly. What is the minimum clearance you must have between the pressure plate and the first rotating disc? • 0.075 in. • 0.045 in. • 0.065 in. • 0.055 in. |
0.065 in. |
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When you are adjusting the blades to the parking area in a windshield wiper system, rotating a blade one serration will equal approximately how many degrees rotation? • 5° • 3° • 10° • 2° |
5° |
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The rotating disc of a trimetallic disc brake must be replaced if it is worn below what prescribed thickness? • 0.2 in. • 0.4 in. • 0.1 in. • 0.3 in. |
0.2 in. |
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During a bench test, what is the maximum allowable torque required to rotate the swivel? • 60 in.-lb • 40 in.-lb • 50 in.-lb • 30 in.-lb |
40 in.-lb |
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The arresting hook assembly must be lowered to adjust the liquid centering spring. • True • False |
True |
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On a combination aileron and spoiler/deflector system, what is the maximum degree of deflection of (a) the spoiler and (b) the deflector? • (a) 60° (b) 30° • (a) 40° (b) 20° • (a) 50° (b) 25° • (a) 30° (b) 15° |
(a) 60° (b) 30° |
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When the flaperon autopilot actuator is operating in the series mode, the AFCS can be overridden by the pilot applying what minimum amount of force to the control stick? • 15 lb • 20 lb • 10 lb • 25 lb |
25 lb |
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Readjustment of primary flight control power actuators should be accomplished at which of the following maintenance activities? • Depot or intermediate level only • Depot level only • Intermediate level only • Depot, intermediate, or organizational Level |
Depot or intermediate level only |
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The backup flight control system reservoir has what total capacity? • 0.84 quart • 0.97 quart • 1.31 quarts • 1.75 quarts |
0.84 quart |
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Flaperon autopilot actuators are capable of operating in which of the following modes? • Manual, series, or parallel • Manual or series only • Manual only • Manual, series, parallel, or independent |
Manual or series only |
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To provide longitudinal trim to the aircraft, an electric trim actuator is linked to the artificial-feel bungee in what manner? • Mechanically • Electrically • Pneumatically • Hydraulically |
Mechanically |
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In a spoiler control system, spoiler action is provided by all EXCEPT which of the following components? • The mechanical interlock • The spoiler actuators • The roll command transducer • The pitch computer |
The mechanical interlock |
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To balance the forward and aft bobweights when an aircraft elevator is in a neutral position, what component is installed between the bell crank and the fin structure? • A load-feel bungee • A truss assembly • A push-pull tube • A load spring |
A load spring |
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The three-position backup system hydraulic test switch located in the cockpit is spring-loaded to what position? • COMBINED • FLIGHT • ON • OFF |
OFF |
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Control surface throws may be measured in which of the following units? • Inches and degrees only • Inches only • Inches and fractions or degrees and minutes • Inches, fractions, or degrees only |
Inches and fractions or degrees and minutes |
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The combination aileron and spoiler/deflector system is used to enhance what in-flight capability of the aircraft? • Increased climb rate about the lateral axis • Increased roll rate about the longitudinal Axis • Increased yaw control during high-speed turns • Increased pitch control in rapid descents |
Increased roll rate about the longitudinal Axis |
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The servo cylinders used in an electronic flight control system are controlled by what means? • Hydraulic impulses from electronic data Centers • Mechanical linkage • Electrical impulses from computers • Electrically controlled cables |
Mechanical linkage |
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Horizontal stabilizer movement is controlled only by input signals from the AFCS system when it is functioning in what mode? • Parallel • Series • Independent • Manual |
Series |
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The approach power compensator system (APC) aids the pilot in what manner? • It regulates the position of the flap's power mechanism during the approach for landing • It maintains a varying spoiler deflector position during landing to compensate for varying approach speeds • It regulates the throttle position to maintain the desired angle of attack during approaches and landings • It maintains a fixed angle of attack during landing to compensate for varying gross weight |
It regulates the throttle position to maintain the desired angle of attack during approaches and landings |
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If a jammed flight control system malfunction can NOT be duplicated or the cause determined, you should take which of the following actions? • Make at least three penalty flights • Request a P&E inspection • Make an aircraft logbook entry • Request a NADEP evaluation of the aircraft |
Make an aircraft logbook entry |
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An aircraft lateral control system incorporates a load-feel bungee in the aileron system for which of the following purposes? • To provide a centering device only • To provide artificial feel, a centering device, and effortless control stick movement • To provide artificial feel only • To provide artificial feel and a centering device only |
To provide artificial feel and a centering device only |
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Flutter, free play, and sluggishness of control surfaces are usually the result of which of the following problems? • Freely rotating pushrods and bell cranks • Broken cables • Low cable tension • High cable tension |
Low cable tension |
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An aircraft elevator control system has viscous dampers on the bobweight assemblies for what purpose? • To help the pilot move the stick from the neutral position • To reduce push-pull tube vibration • To retard control stick movement to prevent overcontrol • To decrease control stick load |
To retard control stick movement to prevent overcontrol |
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In reference to a cable control system, which of the following statements is NOT correct? • Cables are easily led around obstacles • Cables can be run over long distances • Cables are rigid • Cables are stronger than steel rods or Tubing
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Cables are rigid |
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What type of flight control system is moved manually through a series of push-pull rods, cables, bell cranks, sectors, and idlers? • Mechanical (unboosted) • Power-assisted • Power-boosted • Mechanical (boosted) |
Mechanical (unboosted) |
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The aircraft flaperon control system has a total of how many actuators? • Five • Two • Three • Seven |
Three |
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What amount of cable should extend through an MS 20667 terminal when you swag it with a pneumatic swagger? • 1/8 in. • 3/4 in. • 1/2 in. • 1/4 in. |
1/4 in. |
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You are checking a 1/8-inch cable using a No. 1 riser, and the dial pointer indicates 33. What is the cable tension? • 70 lb • 80 lb • 50 lb • 60 lb |
50 lb |
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When the emergency flap system has been actuated, in what position are (a) the leading edge flaps and (b) the trailing edge flaps? • (a) Up (b) full down • (a) Up (b) 1/2 down • (a) Full down (b) 1/2 down • (a) 1/2 down (b) full down |
(a) Up (b) 1/2 down |
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The maximum up and down travel of the aircraft elevators is controlled by the adjustment of which of the following components? • The vertical reference line at the forward control stick • The stop bolts on the aft control stick • The stop bolts on the forward control stick • The forward push-pull tube at the aft control stick |
The stop bolts on the aft control stick |
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To replace cables in an aircraft when they are routed through inaccessible areas, you should use which of the following items? • A swaging device • A fairlead guide • A snaking line • A tensiometer |
A snaking line |
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In a conventional wing flap system, a wing flap retraction shutoff valve is energized during which of the following conditions? • When the aircraft is in flight with the landing gear up • When the aircraft is in flight with the flaps up • When the aircraft's weight is on its wheels • When the aircraft is experiencing an in-flight split flap condition |
When the aircraft's weight is on its wheels |
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You should begin rigging the system at what component? • The bobweight • The bell crank • The aft control stick • The aft sector |
The aft sector |
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In a semi-independent flap and slat system, if the flap control handle is moved to the takeoff position, a limit switch will halt flap movement at what position? • 30° • 10° • 20° • 40° |
30° |
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Basically, what total number of distinct steps are there to follow in aircraft troubleshooting? • Seven • Ten • Three • Nine |
Three |
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Aircraft control cables should NOT be cut by which of the following tools? • A pair of side cutters • A pair of heavy-duty diagonal pliers • A cold chisel • An oxyacetylene cutting torch |
An oxyacetylene cutting torch |
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The slat system provides which of the following aerodynamic features? • Higher takeoff speeds • Increased turning radius • Additional lift and stability at lower speeds • Additional lift and stability at higher Speeds |
Additional lift and stability at lower speeds |
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In a conventional wing flap system, what condition ensures that the wing flaps will be locked in the full up position? • The spring pressure exerted by the follow-up pushrod • The selector valve slightly displaced from neutral • The selector valve in neutral • The flap control handle in its detent position |
The selector valve slightly displaced from neutral |
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Direct lift control (DLC) is incorporated into some aircraft to perform what function? • To increase the vertical descent rate of the aircraft during landings • To decrease the ascent rate of the aircraft during takeoffs • To increase the ascent rate of the aircraft during takeoffs • To decrease the vertical descent rate of the aircraft during landings |
To increase the vertical descent rate of the aircraft during landings |
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Aircraft that incorporate fuselage type speed brakes have an interconnect between the left-hand speed brake and the elevator nose-down control cable for what purpose? • To assist the pilot in bringing the nose of the aircraft up when the speed brakes are applied • To stabilize aircraft yaw when the speed brakes are actuated • To prevent the aircraft from assuming a nose up attitude when the speed brakes are extended • To prevent the aircraft from assuming a nose down attitude when the speed brakes are extended |
To assist the pilot in bringing the nose of the aircraft up when the speed brakes are applied |
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What method(s) of aircraft leveling is/are the most accurate? • Plumb bob and datum plate • Spirit • Suspension • Transit |
Plumb bob and datum plate |
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For acceptable aerodynamic tolerances, the left- and right-hand wing twist must be within what maximum readings? • 2°, 12 min • 0°, 12 min • 3°, 12 min • 1°, 12 min |
0°, 12 min |
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Rotor blades that are highly polished will reduce which of the following forces? • Drag • Lift • Velocity • Speed |
Speed |
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Minimum wing sweep limiting is NOT available under what method of control? • Bomb manual • Automatic • Mechanical • Electronic |
Mechanical |
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The proper operation of gearboxes, interconnecting splined shafts, and screw jack actuators is essentially dependent upon which of the following maintenance functions? • Correct adjustment • Proper installation • Correct alignment • Proper lubrication |
Proper lubrication |
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The maximum ground cushion effect is achieved during what condition? • 7 knots • 12 knots • 15 knots • 0 knots |
0 knots |
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Rotor blade dissymmetry is created by what means? • By hovering in a wind condition only • By horizontal flight only • By horizontal flight or hovering in a wind condition • By hovering in a no-wind condition
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By horizontal flight or hovering in a wind condition |
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A longitudinal trim actuator has what total number of operating speeds? • Four • Two • One • Five |
Two |
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What component in a wing surface control system ensures symmetrical operation of the wings? • A synchronizing shaft • A flow divider • An air data computer • A sweep control box |
A synchronizing shaft |
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What method corrects dissymmetry by equalizing lift? • Fluttering • Coning • Blade flapping • Autorotating |
Autorotating |
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What type of main rotor allows each of its blades to move vertically and horizontally? • A hinged rotor • An articulated rotor • An adjustable rotor • A horizontal rotor |
An articulated rotor |
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To allow for automatic retraction under high air loads, what type of valve is installed in a fuselage speed brake system? • A restrictor valve • A check valve • A solenoid control valve • A blow-back relief valve |
A blow-back relief valve |
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During a malfunction, the null detector of the wingtip speed brake system causes the speed brakes to close when they reach what maximum amount of disparity? • 8° • 12° • 15° • 21° |
8° |
