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115 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
To meet the requirements of the Aviation Career Improvement Act of
1989, how many months of OFDA must a rated officer have, at the 12-year gate, to qualify for
continuous ACIP?
A rated officer must have 108 months.
How many months of OFDA must a rated officer have at the 12-year gate to qualify for
continuous ACIP if the member must meet the requirements of the NDAA of FY 1996?
To meet NDAA requirements, a rated officer must have 96 months.
How many months of OFDA must a CEA have at the 10-year gate?
A CEA must have72 months.
How many months of OFDA must a CEA have at the 15-year gate?
A CEA must have 108.
How many months of OFDA must a CEA have at the 20-year gate?
A CEA must have 168
What is the flying incentive pay for a CEA who failed to meet the minimum gate requirements?
Conditional CEFIP.
What is HDIP?
HDIP is a special pay given to non-career aviators, operational support members, and parachutists, as an
incentive for performing certain hazardous duties.
What must non-career aviators and operational support members do in order to receive HDIP?
They must fly the required number of hours, monthly, in order to receive HDIP.
Briefly explain how to use the calendar month table.
It is used to determine the amount of flying hours required for a member in conditional pay status. The table is divided into two columns: active and inactive duty. Use the Active Duty column when determining the
amount of flying hours required for an active duty member; the Inactive Duty column is for ARC members
only. Fractions of a calendar month are used when a member is placed or removed from flying status during
any day in a calendar month. This means the flying hour requirement is based on the number of days the
member is on flying status for the month. For instance, if the member was on flying status for 15 days in a month, he or she would have a flight requirement of 2.0 hours for that month.
Which form is used to assist in tracking a member’s flight time for conditional pay purposes?
The AF IMT 1520, ARMS Individual Flight Pay Entitlement Worksheet.
Explain how a member gets excess flight time.
Excess flight time occurs when a member flies and exceeds the minimum flight time requirement for the
month.
What is a grace period?
A window where pay action is purposely delayed while a member attempts to meet flight time
requirements. It is a maximum three-month period given to the member to accrue sufficient flying hours
for a previous month or months when a shortfall in flight time occurs.
When would a grace period begin for a member who was placed on flying status 1 March and does not meet the flight requirement for the month?
In March
For what month(s) does a member receive incentive pay if enough flying hours were not accrued
during the first two months of a grace period, but at least 12.0 hours were accrued by the end of the third month?
For all three months.
List the order you would apply flying hours for incentive pay purposes.
(1) First apply the hours flown during the month to meet the current month’s flight requirement.
(2) Next if the member is in a grace period, apply any excess flight time accrued during the month to meet the flight time requirements of the previous month(s). If the full grace period requirement is not
satisfied, excess flight time will apply only to those months in which flight activity was performed.
(3) Finally apply any banked flight time (excess and insufficient hours) to the first, second, third, fourth, and fifth succeeding months only to the extent the member fails to meet the flight requirement of each month. Use the oldest hours first.
For how long may a member in a continuous incentive pay status continue to receive incentive pay when grounded?
From the date of incapacitation through the day prior to the date of disqualification.
When a member is suspended, what effective date would you use to terminate the member’s
incentive pay?
One calendar day prior to the effective date of the suspension until the member’s status is resolved.
What happens to a member’s incentive pay when the member becomes disqualified from aviation service?
Incentive pay is not authorized for any period during which a member is disqualified from aviation service;
therefore, flight pay is lost during the period a member is disqualified from aviation service.
Members involved in a duty-related mishap are said to have met their flight requirements for a 3-
month period under the “aviation accident” provision of AFI 11–421. When does the 3-month
period begin if the member was injured in February and has already met the flight requirements for that month before the injury occurred?
March.
When does the 3-month period begin if the member was injured in April and the member has not met the flight requirements for the month in which the injury has occurred?
April.
Define IAD.
Duty performed by an ARC member to include pay categories such as TP, UTA, ET, AFTP, AGTP, and
RMP.
What code is used on the AFTO Form 781 that indicates the type of flying duty performed by an ARC member?
RSC
List all RSCs and their description.
(1) RSC 1, AD.
(2) RSC 2, UTA (IAD).
(3) RSC 3, FTP (IAD).
(4) RSC 4, Civilian Technician.
How many days did an ARC member spend in inactive duty pay status for the month of June if the member performed 15 days of active duty?
15 days since ARC members are in an inactive duty status otherwise.
What document dictates the RSC that an ARC member must use in Block 38 of the AFTO Form 781?
Attendance calendar.
List all RSCs that may be used to meet flight time requirements for pay purposes.
RSCs 1, 2, and 3.
Explain the rules for banking active and inactive duty flight time.
IAW the DODFMR, AD hours (RSC 1) may be banked only if the member is on continuous orders for more than 30 days or if the active duty period extends unbroken over parts of two months; otherwise, active duty hours are considered lost. IAD hours (RSCs 2 and 3) may be banked and used up to five succeeding months.
List the basic requirements for HDIP for parachutists.
(1) A parachutist must be on competent orders assigned to a valid J-prefixed UMD position or “jumpinherent”
DAFSC.
(2) Be enrolled in a formal course of instruction leading to the award of the basic parachutist badge.
When do jumps performed not qualify a parachutist for entitlement to HDIP?
Jumps performed while on leave, in PCS status, or TDY/TAD where parachute jumping is not considered
an essential part of duty.
What are the two types of HDIP that pertains to parachute duty?
(1) Type 1 (Static).
(2) Type 2 (HALO).
What action must the HARM office take once a parachutist becomes HALO qualified?
The HARM office publishes an AO authorizing HALO duties and the corresponding pay (Type 2).
What is the effective date authorizing the HALO pay entitlement when a parachutist attends MFF
school?
The class start date of the MFF School provided the member meets HALO performance requirements.
Which rule states that a parachutist is entitled to pay for a 3 consecutive month period based on performing a single jump?
Rule 1.
Which rule qualifies a parachutist for incentive pay for 12 consecutive months based on performing four qualifying jumps during a 9-month period?
Rule 3.
Briefly explain Rule 4.
Rule 4 states that a commander may waive the jump requirements when a member is unable to jump by
reason of being engaged in combat operations in a hostile fire area. For every month a member is in Rule 4,
he or she is entitled to HDIP at the highest rate the member is qualified to receive during the same period.
For which months would a parachutist receive a Rule 4 waiver if the member was deployed to a hostile fire area from 31 March through 5 July, provided the member had not met jump requirements for any of those months?
March, April, May, June, and July because the member must have at least one day during each month.
What months would a parachutist be eligible for jump pay if the member was placed on status effective 1 October and performed a parachute jump in November?
October, November, and December.
When completing the AF IMT 1521, what does the pay type code “H” represent?
That it is a HALO jump.
When completing the AF IMT 1521, what does the pay action code “<<” represent?
Pay is applied back to previous month
When a member is removed from jump status, what effective date would you use to terminate the member’s incentive pay?
The last day the member is assigned to a valid jump position.
When would the 3 consecutive month period of entitlement to HDIP begin if a member was
incapacitated as a result of performing hazardous duty that occurred in March, and the jump requirement for that month had not been met?
March, which is the month of incapacity.
Name the two types of MPOs.
(1) The MPO section of the computer-generated AO (from ARMS) or the AF IMT 1887.
(2) The DD Form 114.
What type of MPO is used when the pay action does not require the publication of an AO?
DD Form 114.
What is the pay start date for an aircrew member in conditional pay status if the AO effective date is 10 October and the member met flight requirements on 26 October?
10 October, which is the AO effective date.
List some of the reasons when incentive pay is automatically stopped.
(1) When an MPO specifies a start and stop date.
(2) When a career aviator completes 25 years of aviation service.
(3) When an operational support member departs due to a PCS move.
(4) When an aircrew member separates or retires.
What is the pay stop date for a parachutist that is reassigned to a non-jumping position due to a
PCS move?
The member’s date of departure.
If the MPO action is to start pay and the termination date is unknown, what must be entered in the termination date block of the form?
Enter “FO” (further orders).
What is the pay termination date for a member disqualified from aviation service effective 28 Aug 2009?
27 August 2009 because it is the last day the member is entitled to incentive pay.
What are the effective and termination dates of a report MPO for an aircrew member in
conditional pay status who failed to meet flight requirements for August and September 2009?
The effective date is 31 July and the termination date is 30 September (pay is collected for August and September).
Who is authorized to certify MPOs?
The CHARM or a designated representative appointed by the OG/CC in writing because funds are expended. The letter of appointment must be filed at the finance office.
IAW AFI 11–421, how often must the HARM office request an EVR from the finance office?
Every quarter.
What type information is included on the EVR?
The names, grades, dates, incentive pay amounts, and organization codes of all personnel receiving
incentive pay that the local finance office pays.
What should you do if you find errors on the EVR?
Research the correct information, make the necessary corrections, and annotate the EVR with an
explanation of your corrective action.
Within how many days after completing an EVR audit must you correct any discrepancies?
Within 10 workdays.
(801) What type of pay was established under the Aviation Career Incentive Act (ACIA) of 1974?
Aviation career incentive pay (ACIP).
(801) To receive aviation career incentive pay (ACIP), a rated officer must be entitled to basic pay,
hold an aeronautical rating, and be qualified for aviation service
(801) In a given month, the amount of flying time required for conditional pay depends on the member’s
placement or removal from active flying status
(801) Which type of incentive pay is given to flight surgeons that are in an active flying status?
Conditional ACIP.
(802) Which of the following pay was established under the Fiscal Year (FY) 2000 National Defense Authorization Act (NDAA)?
Career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP).
(802) Conditional career enlisted flier incentive pay (CEFIP) is the incentive pay given to a
Career enlisted aviator (CEA) who fails to meet gate requirements.
(803) What type of incentive pay is given to non-career aviators, operational support members and parachutists?
Hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP).
(803) Career aviators may also be entitled to hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP) when
performing hazardous duties other than aerial flights
(804) Which publication contains the flying hour requirements for conditional pay?
Department of Defense Financial Management Regulation (DODFMR) 7000.14, Volume 7A,
Military Pay Policy and Procedures—Active Duty and Reserve Pay.
(804) How many flight hours are required for a member that was on flying status for 15 days in a month?
2.0
(804) Which form is used to assist in tracking a member’s flight time for conditional pay?
AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet
(804) Which flight time is computed by subtracting the current month’s requirement from the total hours flown for the month?
Grace period.
(804) Banked time is a combination of
lost and insufficient time
(804) Excess flight time in the month of February may be banked up to and including the month
of
April
(804) Insufficient flight time may be applied up to
five months backward
(804) Regardless of the effective date of the aeronautical order, you must start a grace period the
first month the member has a flight requirement but does not meet the requirement
(804) If the member fails a grace period, start a new grace period
once the member meets flight requirement for one month
(804) For which month(s) will a member receive incentive pay if the member did not fly for the first two months but flew less than 10.0 hours on the third month of a grace period?
First and second months
(804) When determining whether a member has met flight requirements, flying hours flown are first applied
up to two months backward if in a grace period; to the current month; then up to five months forward
(805) What is the pay stop date for a career enlisted aviator (CEA) who was placed on active flying on 1 January 2009 and was placed in a duty not involving flying (DNIF) status on 13 April 2009?
13 April 2010
(805) A career aviator receiving continuous aviation career incentive pay was suspended on 25 April. The member’s incentive pay was terminated on 24 April. On 30 June, the suspension was removed without disqualification. What is the effective date for restarting the member’s incentive pay?
30 June
(806) When does the three month grace period begin, for a member in conditional pay status, who was injured in a duty-related accident on 12 November if the member has met the flight requirement for that month?
12 November
(807) An Air Reserve Component (ARC) member is considered to be in an active duty pay status when performing which of the following duties?
Additional flying training period (AFTP).
(807) What reserve status code (RSC) must an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member use in Block 38 of the Air Force Technical Order (AFTO) Form 781, Aviation Resource Management
System (ARMS) Aircrew/Mission Flight Data Document when logging active duty time?
2
(808) What is the minimum monthly flight requirement for Air Reserve Component (ARC) members?
4.0 hours
(808) When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs active duty during the month, the member incurs a(an)
automatic active duty flight requirement for the month
(809) When an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member performs both active and inactive duty in the same month, the flight time flown may be combined to satisfy the
both active and inactive duty requirements
(809) Inactive duty (IAD) flight time accrued by an Air Reserve Component (ARC) member may be used to satisfy both active duty (AD) and IAD flight requirements for the current month. If there is not enough time to satisfy both requirements, then
AD banked hours must be used to satisfy IAD requirements
(810) Entitlement to hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP) is determined by the
number and type of jumps performed
(810) A parachutist was placed on an aeronautical order to perform high altitude low opening (HALO) jump duties effective 1 April. The member performed a static line jump and a HALO jump in May. What type of pay will the member receive for May?
Type 1 ONLY
(811) Jumps in excess of the minimum monthly requirement cannot be used for hazardous duty incentive pay (HDIP)
unless the member is in Rule 3.
(811) A parachutist was placed on jump status, Rule 1, effective 1 August and performed a jump on 22 September. For what month(s) would the member receive incentive pay?
August, September, and October
(811) How many jumps, in what time period, qualifies a parachutist for hazardous duty incentive
pay for 12 consecutive months if a member is unable to perform due to military operations, no jump equipment or no aircraft?
Four jumps in a 9-month period following a 3-month period of no jumps
(811) What rule applies to a parachutist who is unable to perform a jump because of the
command’s military operations or the absence of jump equipment or an aircraft?
Rule 3.
(811) What rule applies when a commander waives a parachutist’s jump requirements because the
member is engaged in combat operations in a hostile fire area?
Rule 4.
(812) Which form is used to track a member’s entitlement to static line and high altitude low opening (HALO) jump incentive pay?
AF IMT 1521, ARMS Individual Jump Pay Entitlement Worksheet
(812) What code is used to indicate the jump performed is applied to the current month?
Circumflex accents (^^).
(813) Which of the following situations would automatically stop a member’s flight incentive pay?
An operational support member departs for a permanent change of station (PSC).
(813) If the military pay order (MPO) action is to stop a member’s pay, the pay termination date will always be
one day prior to the effective date of the AO
(814) After completing the audit, within what time frame must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office correct errors found on the entitlement verification report?
10 workdays
(814) How many certified copies of the entitlement verification report must the host aviation resource management (HARM) office maintain?
The last four reports
What is a business area?
A set of related information with a common purpose.
How is information in a business area organized?
Into folders
List the business areas in Oracle 91 Discoverer Desktop.
Database information, flying hours information, jump information, public tables, resource information, and
training information (to mirror the ARMS subsystems).
What business area contains folders for rating information, aircrew badge, and crew assignment?
Resource information.
What business area contains task accomplishment and task assignment folders?
Training information
What is a condition?
A filter created on an item that restricts which values to return.
What type of display arranges items in columns?
A Table with items appearing in the top axis as column headings
What type of display arranges items in a matrix of rows and columns?
The Crosstab is used to show how one item relates to another.
How do you select items to be included in your query?
Highlight the item and then click on the right arrow (>), or use the “click and drag” method
Which default option sets the speed and results of a query?
The Query governor tab
Which default option allows you to set the default formats for the data, headings, sheet title, total, and exception in your worksheet?
The Formats tab
What are two reasons you would be required to validate a query?
(1) The query may not provide the results you wanted.
(2) There could be an error if you used a calculation
When using calculations, why should you validate the query against the ARMS database?
To ensure the calculations are correct.
(815) A set of related information with a common purpose is known as a (an)
business area
(815) A filter created on an item that restricts which values to return is a (an)
condition
(816) What type of display would be used to show the data in a matrix of rows and columns to show how one item relates to another?
Crosstab
(816) What feature is used to change the size and color of the font on a worksheet?
Exception
(817) Which default option allows you to determine the number of query documents that are listed in your “Most Recently Used List?”
General tab
(817) Which print option lets you print a worksheet in either portrait or landscape?
Orientation
(818) Why is it necessary to validate a query when using calculations?
The data elements requested might merge in the resulting query.