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120 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What unit of measurement is common to both the English system and to the metric system?
1. distance
2. force
3. mass
4. time
4. time
what is the basis for metric units of length?
1. the angstrom
2. the micron
3. the meter
4. the kilometer
3. the meter
to convert meters to millimeters, you should move the decimal point to the:
1. right, six places
2. left, nine places
3. right, three places
4. left, six places
3. right three places
the mil is a measure of a length equal to one one-thousandth of a/an
1. centimeter
2. inch
3. foot
4. yard
4. yard
what term defines the quantity of matter that a body contains?
1. volume
2. height
3. mass
4. density
3. mass
a given object will weigh the most under which of the following conditions?
1. when compressed to a greater density and a smaller volume
2. when expanded to a greater volume and a lesser density
3. when located at one of the earth's poles
4. when located on the equator
3. when located at one of the earth's poles
dynes and newtons are used in the metric system as units of
1. work
2. force
3. pressure
4. mass
2. force
the knot is a derived unit that combines the unit of distance with the unit of
1. power
2. work
3. time
4. acceleration
3. time
under which of the following conditions may the term velocity be used in place of speed?
1. only if the unit of measurement is distance per second for a given length of time
2 only if the unit of measurement is distance per hour for a given length of time
3. only if the motion of the body is in a circular path following a given arc
4. only if the motion of the body is in a straight path in a given direction
4. only if the motion of the body is in a straight path in a given direction
to raise the temperature of 8 pounds of water 5 degrees F requires a heat energy of
1. 40 calories
2. 40 Btu
3. 252 calories
4. 777.8 foot-pounds
3. 252 calories
what is the mechanical equivalent of 10 BTU of heat energy?
1. force, distance, and time
2. mass, velocity, and time
3. work and distance
4. mass and distance
1. force, distance, and time
the power unit watt is not restricted to electricity. it may be converted to horsepower for mechanical purposes. therefore, 746 watts is the equivalent of what horsepower?
1. 1.0 hp
2. 2.0 hp
3. 0.5 hp
4. 2.5 hp
1. 1 hp
all matter, regardless of its form, has mass and which of the following characteristics?
1. it has a constant weight
2. it occupies space
3. it is measured in newtons
4. it weighs more at the equator than at the north pole
2. it occupies space
matter exists in three natural states. of the following lists, which one contains the states of matter?
1. physical, chemical, and nuclear
2. electron, proton, and neutron
3. solid, liquid, and gas
4. fluid, porous, and vapor
3. solid, liquid, and gas
which of the following materials possesses the property of porosity?
1. liquids
2. solids
3. empty space
4. all of the above
1. liquids
the reluctance of an object to change its speed, direction, or position of rest is known as
1. cohesion
2. density
3. inertia
4. weight
3. inertia
what term describes the quantitative measure of inertia?
1. acceleration
2. density
3. weight
4. mass
4. mass
acceleration does NOT occur in which of the following circumstances?
1. a car traveling at 50 MPH turns a curve
2. a car traveling at 50 MPH in one direction for 2 minutes
3. a car starts from a stop and reaches 60 MPH in 18 seconds
4. a car slows from 60 MPH to 45 MPH in 12 seconds
2. a car traveling at 50 MPH in one direction for 2 minutes
what name is given to the space through which action-at-a-distance forces are effective?
1. weight
2. gravity
3. force field
4. force space
3. force field
a vector has which of the following quantities?
1. magnitude and direction only
2. mass, magnitude, and direction only
3. magnitude, space, and direction only
4. mass, magnitude, space, and direction
1. magnitude and direction only
the weight of a body is determined by calculating the
1. sum of the body mass and acceleration
2. gravitational pull on the body minus the associated frictional forces
3. gravitational pull between 1 cubic inch of the body and the earth's surface
4. force on the body exerted by gravity
4. force on the body exerted by gravity
what mathematical calculation should you use to determine the specific gravity of a substance?
1. divide the volume of the substance by its weight
2. divide the weight of the substance by the weight of an equal volume of water
3. divide the volume of the substance by the volume of an equal weight of water
4. take the reciprocal of the substance's density
2. divide the weight of the substance by the weight of an equal volume of water
a mass in motion is stopped. wht happens to its kinetic energy?
1. it is converted to other forms of energy
2. it is returned to the source that produced it
3. it is increased by the amount necessary to stop the mass
4. it is destroyed
1. it is converted to other forms of energy
which of the following statements describes an ion?
1. an atom that does not have protons in its nucleus
2. an atom that does not attract other atoms
3. an atom with an overall neutral electrical charge
4. an atom with an unequal number of electrons and protons
4. an atom with an unequal number of electrons and protons
the mass, and consequently the weight, of an atom is contained almost entirely in the
1. nucleus
2. orbiting electrons
3. neutrons
4. electrons in the nucleus
1. nucleus
what is indicated by the atomic number assigned to an element?
1. the number of protons in its nucleus
2. the number of atoms that give the element its distinguishing characteristics
3. the total mass of one of its atoms
4. the chronological order in which the element was discovered.
1. the number of protons in its nucleus
which of the following characteristics indicates that an element is inert?
1. the outer electron shell of each atom is completely filled
2. the outer electron shell of each atom is balanced with the nucleus.
3. it attracts free electrons
4. it repels free electrons
1. the outer electron shell of each atom is completely filled
valence bonds hold ions together and form them into molecules. this action results from interaction between:
1. protons
2. nuclei
3. inner-shell electrons
4. outer-shell electrons
4. outer-shell electons
what is the result of elements physically combining without undergoing a chemical change?
1. a compound
2. a mixture
3. a valence bond
4. a loss of their chemical identities
2. a mixture
molecules are constantly in motion in which of the following substances?
1. gases only
2. solids and liquids only
3. liquids only
4. gases, solids, and liquids
4. gases, solids, and liquids
which of the following metals has the highest property of elasticity?
1. lead
2. bronze
3. tin
4. aluminum
2. bronze
which of the following substances possesses the property of elasticity of compression?
1. liquids
2. solids
3. gases
4. all of the above
4. all of the above
which of the following statements is correct concerning the mechanical nature of liquids?
1. hydraulic machinery permits liquids to be used to maintain input forces, which limits the advantages gained in mechanics
2. uniform action is obtained operation of the system largely affected only by vibrations in loads
3. liquids can transmit energy around bends by using gears and levers, making remote location of system components possible
4. energy can be transmitted through liquids instantaneously and equally in all directions
4. energy can be transmitted through liquids instantaneously and equally in all directions
the accepted theory of gases assumes that gas molecules possess which of the following properties?
1. high cohesion
2. high elasticity
3. in an unpressurized enclosed container, they eert pressure on the bottom and sides only
4. they exert equal pressure at all points on enclosing surfaces
4. they exert equal pressure at all points on enclosing surfaces
according to the kinetic theory, which of the following statements is correct concerning gases when absolute zero temperature is reached?
1. it is the temperature at which no heat remains in the gas, but not the lowest temperature obtainable
2. it has been obtained only once, at which time the absolute zero point of -273.16 degrees C was determined
3. it is the temperature at which all molecular activity stops
4. it is the temperature to which liquids, solids, and gases can be reduced and at which most molecular activity ceases
3. it is the temperature at which all molecular activity stops
under some conditions, it is possible for the center of gravity to revolve around the center of
1. rotation
2. a tangent
3. revolution
4. levity
1. rotation
in the study of masses in motion, which of the following is a description of the term acceleration?
1. an act or process of changing place or position
2. a change in the body's speed or direction of travel
3. a natural tendency of a body in motion to continue moving in a straight line
4. an opposition of a body to having its state of motion changed
2. a change in the body's speed or direction of travel
which of the following statements is correct concerning work doen by a person who lifts a 50-pound weight 5 feet and holds it there for 1 minute?
1. work is done both in the lifting the weight and holding it steady
2. work is done in lifting the weight but not in holding it steady
3. no work is done because the person does not move
4. no work is done because there is no translational force present.
1. wok is done both in lifting the weight and holding it steady
for a body to possess kinetic energy, it must be in which of the following conditions?
1. elevated from a position to which it can return
2. compressed or stretched from its natural condition
3. at rest after working against a restoring force
4. in motion
4. in motion
which of the following is an illustration of friction?
1. the contact of an airborne aircraft with the air
2. the use of brakes on a landing aircraft
3. the action of skates against ice
4. each of the above
4. each of the above
releative to the center of revolution, the direction of (a) centrifugal force and (b) centripetal force is in what direction?
1. (a) away from (b) toward
2. (a) toward (b) away from
3. (a) away from (b) away from
4. (a) toward (b) toward
1. (a) away from (b) toward
the velocity of a wave depends on which of the following factors?
1. frequency of the wave
2. amplitude of the disturbance within the wave
3. the distance between the crests of two adjacent waves
4. the type of wave and the medium through which it travels
4. the type of wave and the medium through which it travels
a single disturbance induced into a medium is known as a
1. pulse train
2. wave pulse
3. wave train
4. wave
2. wave pulse
which of the following terms defines a wave as having the disturbance take place at right angles to the direction of wave travel?
1. periodic
2. compressional
3. transverse
4. longitudinal
3. transverse
which of the following is an example of waves that are both transverse and longitudinal?
1. water waves
2. sound waves
3. light waves
4. electromagnetic waves
1. water waves
of several transparent substances, which one has the largest index of refraction?
1. the one with the greatest thickness
2. the one with the most curvature of its surface
3. the one in which light travels the slowest
4. the one that the light strikes nearest the perpendicular to its surface
1. the one with the greatest thickness
a simple lens that is thicker in the center than at the edges is known as a
1. positive or convergent lens
2. positive or divergent lens
3. negative or convergent lens
4. negative or divergent lens
1. positive or convergent lens
in a given medium, the color of a light wave is determined by which of the following factors?
1. the wavelength only
2. the frequency only
3. the speed of travel and the frequency
4. the speed of travel and the wavelength
2. the frequency only
of the several factors affecting sound velocity in any medium, which ones have the greatest effect?
1. pressure and temperature of the medium
2. density and elasticity of the medium
3. frequency and amplitude of the sound waves
4. intensity and pitch of the sound waves
2. density and elasticity of the medium
what is the minimum change in the sound level that the human ear can detect?
1. 0.1 db
2. 1.0 db
3. 1.0 bel
4. 10.0 bels
2. 1.0 db
the audio power output from a speaker would double if the sound intensity were increased by what amount?
1. 1 db
2. 10 db
3. 3 db
4. 30 db
3. 3 db
what does a vu meter indicate?
1. the number of decibels above or below the input reference volume level
2. the amount of deviation in decibels from 1 milliwatt of power
3. the amt of power dissipated in a load resistance of 660 ohms
4. the multiple of 0.7746 X 600 variation above or below 1 milliwatt
1. the number of decibels above or below the input reference volume level
which of the following statements applies to infrared radiation (IR) and radio frequency waves?
1. both travel at the same speed
2. both possess identical reflection characteristics
3. both may be absorbed by the medium through which they travel
4. all of the above
4. all of the above
photography using natural light is an example of which of the following infrared systems?
1. passive only
2. active only
3. active and passive
1. passive only
frequencies designated as intermediate infrared are located in the spectrum in the band between
1. visible light on the high side and EHF on the low side
2. near infrared on the high side and EHF on the low side
3. far infrared on the high side and near infrared on the low side
4. near infrared on the high side and far infrared on the low side
4. near infrared on the high side and far infrared on the low side
under which of the following conditions is it possible to detect a given object by means of infrared detection?
1. when the object is emitting more infrared radiation than its background only
2. when the object is emitting less infrared radiation than its background only
3. when the object is emitting either more or less infrared radiation than its background
4. when the object and its background are emitting the same amt of infrared radiation per unit area
1. when the object is emitting more infrared than its background only
the total energy emitted by an object depends on its temperature. if the temperature of a body is increased 10 times, the IR radiation emitted by the body will be increased by what number of times?
1. 100
2. 1,000
3. 10,000
4. 100,000
3. 10,000
a change in the temperature of a body is accompanied by a change in which of the following IR characteristics?
1. the amount of energy radiated
2. the wavelength of the peak radiation
3. both 1 and 2 above
4. the frequency of the average radiation
3. both 1 and 2 above
according to the Stefan-Boltzmann law, if the absolute temperature of a body is doubled, by what factor does the radiation factor increase?
1. 8
2. 2
3. 16
4. 4
3. 16
due to molecular absorption, IR energy suffers greater attenuation at low altitudes for which of the following reasons?
1. the absorption bands are narrower
2. the number of molecules that absorb energy is greater
3. the natural resonance of the molecules is closer to that of IR
4. the molecules are lighter and can oscillate with greater energy
3. the natural resonance of the molecules is closer to that of IR
what characteristic must an IR dome possess so that maximum infrared radiation can be focused on the detector?
1. be opaque to IR
2. be constructed of fiber glass
3. be transparent to IR
4. be as similar to a blackbody as possible
3. be transparent to IR
which of the following qualities is desirable in IR optics?
1. the optics should be transparent at the wavelengths on which the system is operating
2. the optics should have high mechanical strength
3. the optics should have a high surface hardness
4. each of the above
4. each of the above
what is the purpose of the chopping reticle used in some IR optical systems?
1. to modulate the incoming IR to match the natural resonant frequency of the molecules used in the photodetector
2. to decrease the intensity of the incoming IR to an acceptable level
3. to provide better discrimination between target and background
4. to demodulate the incoming IR to produce a lower frequency signal
3. to provide better discrimination between target and background
of the components in the IR imaging system, which one is the most important?
1. optics
2. sensor
3. detector
4. receiver
3. detector
what type of optical configuration in an infrared detector produces an entire image instantaneously?
1. imaging detector
2. thermal detector
3. elemental detector
4. photon detector
1. imaging detector
what factor determines the speed with which a given detector can scan a search area?
1. the time constant of the detector
2. the operating temperature of the detector
3. whether the detector is photoelectric or thermal
4. the amt of bias current flowing through the connector
1. th time constant of the detector
a detector with a high useful sensitivity is characterized as having which of the following characteristics?
1. low defectivity
2. a low noise equivalent power
3. a narrow spectral response
4. a high noise equivalent power
2. a low noise equivalent power
what type of energy-matter interaction is the result of radiant energy changing the electrical conductivity of the detector material?
1. photoconductive
2. photoelectric
3. photoemissive
4. thermal
1. photoconductive
what is one advantage that infrared communication has over conventional types of communication?
1. greater range
2. greater security
3. it is not restricted to line of sight
4. it is attenuated much less at sea level
2. greater security
which of the following is the simplest infrared imaging system configuration used by the navy?
1. serial-scan standard video
2. two-dimensional array
3. serial-scan video
4. direct-view parallel scan linear
4. direct-view parallel scan linear
what element of a scanning infrared imaging system converts mechanical scanner motion into electronic signals?
1. detector
2. synchronizer
3. scan encoder
4. optomechanical scanner
3. scan encoder
what element of a scanning infrared imaging system converts detector information into the format necessary for the monitor and adds any additional information?
1. built-in test
2. detector
3. filter
4. video processor
4. video processor
which of the following is a range of cryogenic temperatures?
1. from -240 to -460 degrees F
2. from -150 to -273 degrees C
3. from 123 to 0 K
4. each of the above
2. from -150 to -273 degrees C
when comparing real gas with ideal gas, which of the following statements is correct?
1. ideal gas has larger molecules
2. the molecules of ideal gas collide with each other while the molecules of real gas do not
3. ideal gas is identical to real gas
4. ideal gas and real gas behave in a similar manner at low pressures
4. ideal gas and real gas behave in a similar manner at low pressures
the process by which a solid changes to a liquid is known as
1. fusion
2. evaporation
3. vaporization
4. pressurization
1. fusion
which of the following displays provides a maplike presentation that is practically an exact replica of the region scanned by the radar antenna?
1. A-scope
2. C-scope
3. PPI
4. RHI
3. PPI
which of the following radar characteristics depends on transmitted power, PRF, and receiver sensitivity?
1. range
2. azimuth
3. resolution
4. accuracy
1. range
radar resolution includes range and azimuth resolution. which of the following is a description that identifies azimuth resolution?
1. minimum resolvable target separation at different ranges
2. a function of antenna beamwidth and the range of the targets
3. the targets must be separated by at least two beamwidths
4. the ability to separate targets at different ranges but on the same bearing
2. a function of antenna beamwidth and the range of the targets
which of the following are factors that affect radar?
1. maintenance and knowledge
2. peak power, pulsewidths, and beamwidth
3. receiver sensitivity, indicators, and antenna
4. all of the above
4. all of the above
of the following components, which one can be shared by the radar and IFF?
1. transmitter
2. indicator
3. interrogator
4. transponder
2. indicator
which of the following navigation terms is the horizontal direction in which the aircraft is pointing?
1. course
2. bearing
3. heading
4. position
2. bearing
which of the following terms is used to identify any point on the earth?
1. poles
2. circles
3. parallels and meridians
4. latitude and longitude
4. latitude and longitude
which of the following is the net result of declination and the error in a magnetic compass?
1. variation
2. deviation
3. compass error
4. magnetic dip
2. deviation
which of the following types of navigation involves dead-reckoning ad is independent of environmental conditions?
1. inertial
2. radio
3. radar
4. all of the above
1. inertial
navigation is the process of directing a vehicle from one point to another. intor which of the following categories can navigation be divided?
1. position fixing
2. dead reckoning
3. both 1 and 2 above
3. both 1 and 2 above
which of the following characteristics would an ideal navigation system possess?
1. global coverage
2. active operation
3. susceptibility to countermeasures
4. all of the above
1. global coverage
TACAN operates in bands, modes, and conditions in the A/A. which of the following is a list of TACAN operating bands, modes, and conditions for using the A/A function?
1. VHF, X-pulse mode, and 67 channel separation
2. UHF, X or Y pulse modes, and 63 channel separation
3. UHF, Y-pulse mode, and channel 4 on both aircraft
2. UHF, X or Y pulse modes, and 63 channel separation
what navigation system uses sky waves and overcomes the loss in position accuracy?
1. TACAN
2. Loran
3. Omega
4. Doppler
3. Omega
what component of a navigational computer system uses loran, TACAN, and Doppler as possible inputs?
1. data-gathering units
2. computer units
3. navigational panels
4. navigational indicators
1. data-gathering units
what component of a navigational computer system lets the navigator switch from one mode of operation to another?
1. navigation panels
2. computer units
3. data gathering units
4. repeater display units
1. navigation panels
which of the following is the definition of the term ballistics?
1. the science of the motion of a weapon system
2. the study of all the various forces that govern the movement of projectiles
3. the curve a projectile describes as it travels to the target
4. the science of trajectories
2. the study of all the various forces that govern the movement of projectiles
you can detect an object under the water from the air. which of the following is the reason for your ability to do this?
1. any magnetic property that distorts the earth's magnetic field
2. compensation of magnetic noise
3. radar theory
4. disturbance in the wave motion
1. any magnetic property that distorts the earth's magnetic field
into which of the following groups can sonobuoys be categorized?
1. passive
2. active
3. special purpose
4. all of the above
4. all of the above
the operation of which of the following sonobuoys allows it to operate silently until it is commanded to radiate sound?
1. RO
2. CASS
3. BT
4. SAR
2. CASS
which of the following modes of operation are associated with the DIFAR system?
1. range
2. omnisearch
3. ALI-LOFAR
4. all of the above
1. range
what is the basic power source of an electrical system in an aircraft?
1. generator
2. ram-air turbine
3. rectifier
4. engine
4. engine
what device is inserted between the engine and the AC generator to provide a constant speed to the generator?
1. CSD unit
2. governor
3. rectifier
4. dynamotor
1. CSD unit
in most modern aircraft, what type of power is produced by the main electrical power generation system?
1. three-phase AC power at 60 Hz
2. three-phase AC power at 400 Hz
3. DC power only
4. DC and AC power
2. three-phase AC power at 400 Hz
which of the following publications contains a discussion of transformer-rectifier units for each applicable aircraft?
1. MIM
2. NAMP
3. MTIP
4. TRAMAN
1. MIM
which of the following devices is used to convert low-voltage dc to ac?
1. frequency-change
2. rectifier
3. amplifier
4. inverter
4. inverter
which of the following devices protects the aircraft's electrical system from damage and failure?
1. fuse
2. current limiter
3. circuit breaker
4. each of the above
4. each of the above
what type of fuse contains a compound spring and link structure?
1. fast-acting
2. medium-acting
3. vibratioin-resistant
4. slow-acting
3. vibration resistant
when possible, a fuse should be operated at what percentage of its rated value?
1. 75%
2. 85%
3. 95%
4. 100%
1. 75%
what is the most common class of fuse holder used by the navy?
1. indicating
2. nonindicating
3. splashproof
4. post-type
4. post-type
circuit breakers are rated in which of the following units of measurement?
1. watts and amperes
2. resistance and amperes
3. watts and volts
4. amperes and volts
4. amperes and volts
what are the three basic types of circuit breakers?
1. thermal, magnetic, thermomagnetic
2. thermal, magnetic, trip-free
3. trip-free, nontrip-free, toggle
4. magnetic, toggle, disk
1. thermal, magnetic, thermomagnetic
what prefix identifies a piece of SE that gives the AC output power only?
1. NA
2. NB
3. NC
4. ND
2. NB
the mobile motor-generator set has which of the following characteristics?
1. requires an external source of electrical power
2. operates only on diesel fuel
3. is used only on jet aircraft
4. operates only with the NC-2A
1. requires an external source of electrical power
the flight-line electrical distribution system (FLEDS) receives electrical power from what source?
1. deckedge power system, flight deck
2. deckedge power system, hangar deck
3. mobile electrical power plant
4. underground power lines
3. mobile electrical power plant
in which of the following ways does soldering flux aid the soldering process?
1. it prevents rosin from adhering to the metallic surface
2. it removes oxide from the metallic surface
3. it cleans the surfaces to be soldered
4. it prevents solder from adhering to the soldering gun
2. it removes oxide from the metallic surface
rosin-based flux is acceptable for use in electronics work for which of the following reasons?
1. it is noncorrosive, if neutralized
2. its corrosive period is brief and the resulting damage is minimal
3. it is noncorrosive and electrically nonconductive
4. its electrical conductive quality is reduced to a harmless level if the visible residue is removed
3. it is noncorrosive and electrically nonconductive
which of the following is a mian cause of test equipment failure?
1. improper operating procedure
2. excessive sotrage time
3. improper calibration
4. excessive usage
1. improper operating procedure
at what level of maintenance is calibration of test equipment seldom performed?
1. AIMD
2. Intermediate
3. Depot
4. Organizational
4. Organizational
if test set calibration is not involved, minor repairs to test equipment should be made at which of the following levels of maintenance?
1. depot maintenance level only
2. intermediate maintenance level only
3. only the level of maintenance that performs calibration
4. the level of maintenance at which the test set is used
4. the level of maintenance at which the test set is used
when making resistance or continuity tests on electronic equipment containing a meter, you should take which of the following steps to protect the meter from burning out?
1. short the meter terminals to ground
2. disconnect the meter from the circuit
3. use an extremely low-resistance range on the test equipment
4. ensure meter current flows in an up-scale direction
2. disconnect the meter from the circuit
which of the following meters is designed to measure more than one electrical quanitity?
1. an ohmmeter
2 an ammeter
3. a voltmeter
4. a multimeter
4. a multimeter
which of the following test instrument is used to measure resistances of 10 milliohms or less?
1. simpson 260
2. megger
3. USM-21A
4. VTVM
3. USM-21A
what instrument measure reistance of many megohms by applying high voltage to the component under test and measuring its insulation leakage current?
1. a megger
2. a multimeter
3. a volt-ammeter
4. a volt-ohm-milliammeter
1. a megger
a megger is prevented from exceeding its rated output voltage by action of a/an
1. inherent current leakage through its internal insulation
2. battery discharge limiter
3. voltage regulator
4. slip clutch
4. slip clutch
meggers are used to test the insulation resistance of which of the following conductors?
1. power cables and high voltage cables only
2. high-voltage cables and transmission lines only
3. transmission lines and motor and generator windings only
4. power and high-voltage cables, transmission lines, and motor and generator windings
4. power and high-voltages cables, transmission lines, and motor and generator windings