Atp Knowledge Test

Front 1

Which of the following meets the requirements of a "serious injury" as defined by the NTSB

Back 1

An injury which caused severe tendon damage

Front 2

What period of time must be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a "serious injury"?

Back 2

48 hours; commencing within 7 days after date of the injury.

Front 3

Which of the following constitutes "substantial damage" according to NTSB Part 830?

Back 3

Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement.

Front 4

Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB?

Back 4

Flight control system malfunction.

Front 5

Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?

Back 5

Immediately.

Front 6

Within how many days must the operator of an aircraft involved in an accident file a report to the NTSB?

Back 6

10 days.

Front 7

When is an operator of an aircraft, which has been involved in an incident, required to submit a report to the nearest field office of the NTSB?

Back 7

Only if requested to do so by the NTSB.

Front 8

What is the name of a plane beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-power aircraft?

Back 8

Clearway

Front 9

Which is a definition of the term "crewmember" ?

Back 9

A person assigned to perform duty in an aircraft during flight time.

Front 10

Regulations concerning the operational control of a flight refer to?

Back 10

exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight.

Front 11

What is an area identified by the term "stopway"?

Back 11

An area designated for use in decelerating an aborted takeoff.

Front 12

Which is the correct symbol for designed cruising speed?

Back 12

Vc

Front 13

Which is a definition of V2

Back 13

Takeoff safety speed.

Front 14

Which speed symbol indicates the maximum operating limit speed for an airplane

Back 14

Vmo/Mmo

Front 15

What is the correct symbol for minimum unstick speed?

Back 15

Vmu.

Front 16

Which is the correct symbol for the stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed at which the airplane is controllable?

Back 16

Vs.

Front 17

Which is the correct symbol for the minimum steady-flight speed or stalling speed in the landing configuration?

Back 17

Vso

Front 18

The symbol for the speed at which the critical engine is assumed to fail during takeoff is

Back 18

Vef

Front 19

The maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot may abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distance is

Back 19

V1

Front 20

The minimum speed during takeoff, following a failure of the critical engine at Vef, at which the pilot may continue the takeoff and achieve the required height above the takeoff surface within the takeoff distance is indicated by symbol

Back 20

V1

Front 21

What is the lowest HAT for which a category II applicant can be certified during the original issuance of the authorization?

Back 21

150 feet AGL

Front 22

A category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited to

Back 22

Category II operations not less than 1600 RVR and a 150-foot DH

Front 23

When may a Category II ILS limitation be removed?

Back 23

When three Category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot decision height and landing.

Front 24

How soon after the conviction for driving while intoxicated by alcohol or drugs shall it be reported to the FAA, Civil Aviation Security Division?

Back 24

No later than 60 days after the motor vehicle action.

Front 25

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an approved flight simulator, is

Back 25

not required to have a medical certificate.

Front 26

An applicant who is taking a practical test for a type rating to be added to a commercial pilot certificate, in an approved simulator, is

Back 26

not required to have a medical certificate.

Front 27

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight training device and/or approved flight simulator, the applicant is

Back 27

not required to have a medical certificate.

Front 28

When a temporary replacement is received for an airman's medical certificate, for what maximum time is this document valid?

Back 28

60 days

Front 29

Unless otherwise authorized, when is the pilot in command required to hold a type rating?

Back 29

When operating an aircraft having a gross weight of more than 12,500 pounds

Front 30

An applicant who is scheduled for a practical test for an airline transport pilot certificate, in an aircraft, needs

Back 30

at least a current third-class medical certificate.

Front 31

When a type rating is to be added to an airline transport pilot certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant is

Back 31

required to have at least a current third-class medical certificate

Front 32

What instrument flight time may be logged by a second in command of an aircraft requiring two pilots?

Back 32

All of the time the second in command is controlling the airplane solely by reference to flight instruments.

Front 33

To satisfy the minimum required instrument experience for IFR operations, a pilot must accomplish during the past 6 months at least

Back 33

six instrument approaches, holding, intercepting, and tracking courses through the use of navigation systems in an approved flight training device/simulator or in the category of aircraft to be flown.

Front 34

A pilot, acting as second in command, successfully completes the instrument competency check specified in FAR Part 61. How long does this pilot remain current if no further IFR flights are made?

Back 34

6 months.

Front 35

Whithing the past 6 moths, a pilot has accomplished:

Two approaches in a helicopter
Two approaches in an airplane
Two approaches in a glider

What additional instrument experience must the pilot obtain in prior to acting as second in command (under 14 CFR part 135) on an IFR flight?

Back 35

Four approaches in an aircraft, approved training device, flight simulator (that is representative of the aircraft category), holding, intercepting and tracking courses using the navigation systems.

Front 36

What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issue of a Category II authorization?

Back 36

Withing the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

Front 37

To be eligible for the practical test for the renewal of a Category II authorization, what recent instrument approach experience is required?

Back 37

Within the previous 6 months, six ILS approaches, three of which may be flown to the Category I DH by use of an approach coupler.

Front 38

A commercial pilot has a type rating in a B-727 and B737. A flight test is completed in a B-747 for the Airline Transport Pilot Certificate. What pilot privileges may be exercised regarding these airplanes?

Back 38

ATP - B-727, and B-737

Front 39

A commercial pilot has DC-3 and DC-9 type ratings. A flight test is completed for an Airline Transport Pilot Certificate in a B-727. What pilot privileges may be exercised?

Back 39

ATP - B-727, DC-3, and DC9

Front 40

In a 24-hour consecutive period, what is the maximum time, excluding briefing, that an airline transport pilot may instruct other pilots in air transportation service?

Back 40

8 hours

Front 41

The flight instruction of other pilots in air transportation service by an airline transport pilot is restricted to

Back 41

36 hour in any 7-consecutive-day period.

Front 42

An airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of providing service to a community when the regular airport is not available is a/an:

Back 42

provisional airport

Front 43

A provisional airport is an airport approved by the Administrator for use by an air carrier certificate holder for the purpose of

Back 43

providing service to a community when the regular airport is unavailable.

Front 44

A person who is not authorization to conduct direct air carrier operations, but who is authorized by the Administrator to conduct operations as a U.S. commercial operator, will be issued

Back 44

an Operating Certificate

Front 45

Which document specifically authorizes a person to operate an aircraft in a particular geographic area?

Back 45

Operations Specifications.

Front 46

The kinds of operation that a certificate holder is authorized to conduct are specified in the

Back 46

certificate holder's operations specifications

Front 47

A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding

Back 47

8 hours

Front 48

At what maximum indicated airspeed may a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane be operated withing Class D airspace?

Back 48

200 knots

Front 49

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a turbine-powered aircraft may be operated below 10,000 feet MSL?

Back 49

250 knots.

Front 50

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a reciprocated-engine airplane operate in the airspace underlying Class B airspace?

Back 50

200 knots.

Front 51

At what maximum indicated airspeed can a B-727 operate within class B airspace without special ATC authorization?

Back 51

250 knots.

Front 52

What is the maximum indicated airspeed a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane may be operated within Class B airspace?

Back 52

250 knots.

Front 53

When may ATC request a detailed report on an emergency even through a rule has not been violated?

Back 53

When priority has been given.

Front 54

During an emergency, a pilot in command does not deviate from an FAR rule but is given priority by ATC. To whom or under what condition is the pilot required to submit a written report?

Back 54

Upon request by ATC, submit a written report to the ATC manager.

Front 55

A pilot approaching to land a turbine-powered aircraft on a runway served by a VASI shall

Back 55

maintain an altitude at or above the glide slope until a lower altitude is necessary for a safe landing.

Front 56

At what minimum altitude is a turbine-engine-powered, or large airplane, required to enter Class D airspace?

Back 56

1,500 feet AGL

Front 57

A pilot of a turbine-powered airplane should climb as rapidly as practicable after taking off to what altitude?

Back 57

1,500 feet AGL.

Front 58

What is the required flight visibility and distance from clouds if you are operating in Class E airspace at 9,500 feet with a VFR-on-Top clearance during daylight hours?

Back 58

3 statue miles, 1,000 feet above, 500 feet below, and 2,000 feet horizontal.

Front 59

What is the minimum flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 10,500 feet, in Class E airspace, with a VFR-onTop clearance during daylight hours?

Back 59

5 statute miles, 1,000 feet above, 1,00 feet below, and 1 mile horizontal.

Front 60

Fig 128. What is the minimum inn-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,200 feet AGL during daylight hours in the circle 6 area?

Back 60

1 mile; (I) clear of clouds; (K) clear of clouds; (L) clear of clouds.

Front 61

Fig 128 What in-flight visibility and distance from clouds is required for a flight at 8,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) in VFR conditions during daylight hours for the circle 4 area?

Back 61

1 mile; (E) 1,000 feet; (G) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

Front 62

Fig 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for a VFR-on-Top flight at 9,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 3 area?

Back 62

3 miles; (E) 1,000 feet; (F) 2,000 feet; (H) 500 feet.

Front 63

fig 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1,200 feet AGL) during daylight hours for the circle 2 area?

Back 63

5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (C) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.

Front 64

fig 128 A flight is to be conducted in VFR-on-Top conditions at 12,500 feet MSL (Above 1,200 feet AGL). What is the in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for operation during daylight hours for the circle 1 area?

Back 64

5 miles; (A) 1,000 feet; (B) 1 mile; (D) 1,000 feet.

Front 65

Fig 128 What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required for an airplane operating less than 1,2000 feet AGL under special VFR during daylight hours in the circle 5 area?

Back 65

1 mile;(I) clear of clouds;(J) clear of clouds;(L)clear of clouds.

Front 66

Which checks and inspections of flight instruments or instruments systems must be accomplished before an aircraft can be flown under IFR?

Back 66

VOR within 30 days an daltimeter systems and transponder within 24 calendar months.

Front 67

Which entry shall be recorder by the person performing a VOR operational check?

Back 67

Date, place, bearing error, and signature.

Front 68

What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking one VOR against the other?

Back 68

4 degrees on the ground and in flight.

Front 69

What record shall be made by the pilot performing a VOR operational check?

Back 69

The date, place, bearing error, and signature in the aircraft log or other record.

Front 70

During a VOT check of the VOR equipment, the course deviation indicator centers on 356 degrees with the TO/FROM reading FROM. This VOR equipment may.

Back 70

be used during IFR flights, since the error is within limits.

Front 71

If an airborne checkpoint is used to check the VOR system for IFR operations, the maximum bearing error permissible is

Back 71

plus or minus 6 degree

Front 72

A pilot is operating in Class G airspace. If existing weather conditions are below those for VFR flight, an IFR flight plan must be filed and an ATC clearance received prior to

Back 72

entering controlled airspace

Front 73

When takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a civil airport, what are the takeoff minimums under IFR for a three-engine airplane?

Back 73

1/2 SM

Front 74

Assuming that all ILS components are operating and the required visual references are not acquired, the missed approach should be initiated upon

Back 74

arrival at the DH on the glide slope

Front 75

What action should be taken when a pilot is "cleared for approach" while being radar vectored on an unpublished route?

Back 75

Remain at last assigned altitude until established on a published route segment.

Front 76

Under which condition, if any, may a pilot descend below DH or MDA when using the ALSF-1 approach light system as the primary visual reference for the intended runway?

Back 76

The approach light system can be used as a visual reference, except that descent below 100 feet above TDZE requires that the red light bars be visible and identifiable.

Front 77

If being radar vectored to the final approach course of a published instrument approach that specifies "NO PT," the pilot should

Back 77

not execute the procedure turn unless specifically cleared to do so by ATC

Front 78

What altitude is a pilot authorized to fly when cleared for an ILS approach? The pilot

Back 78

must maintain the last assigned altitude until established on a published route or segment of the approach with published altitudes.

Front 79

When must the pilot initiate a missed approach procedure from an ILS approach?

Back 79

At the DH, if the visual references for the intended runway are not distinctly visible or anytime thereafter that visual reference is lost.

Front 80

When proceeding to the alternate airport, which minimums apply?

Back 80

The actual minimums shown on the IAP chart for the airport.

Front 81

The visibility criteria for a particular instrument approach procedure is RVR 40. What minimum ground visibility may be substituted for the RVR value?

Back 81

3/4 SM

Front 82

The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported. What minimum ground visibility may be used of the RVR value?

Back 82

5/8 SM

Front 83

What minimum ground visibility may be used instead of a prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 16 when that RVR value is not reported?

Back 83

1/4 SM

Front 84

Which facility may be substituted for the middle marker during a Category I ILS approach?

Back 84

Compass locator.

Front 85

If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and loses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?

Back 85

Fly direct to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.

Front 86

While in IFR conditions, a pilot experiences two-way radio communications failure. Which route should be flown in the absence of an ATC assigned route or a route ATC has advised to expect in a further clearance?

Back 86

The route filed in the flight plan.

Front 87

What altitude and route should be used if the pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure?

Back 87

Continue on the route specified in the clearance and fly the highest of the following: the last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has informed the pilot to expect, or to the MEA

Front 88

A pilot is flying in IFR weather conditions and has two-way radio communications failure. What altitude should be used?

Back 88

Last assigned altitude, altitude ATC has advised to expect, or the MEA, whichever is highest.

Front 89

After experiencing two-way radio communications failure en route, when should a pilot begin the descent for the instrument approach?

Back 89

Upn arrival at any initial approach fix for the instrument approach procedure but not before the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.

Front 90

A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?

Back 90

At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC

Front 91

While flying in controlled airspace under IFR, the ADF fails. What actions is required?

Back 91

Notify ATC immediately.

Front 92

While flying IFR in controlled airspace, if one of the two VOR receivers fails, which course of action should the pilot in command follow?

Back 92

Advise ATC immediately

Front 93

What action is necessary when a partial loss of ILS receiver capability occurs while operating in controlled airspace under IFR?

Back 93

Report the malfunction immediately to ATC.

Front 94

What action should be taken if one of the two VHF radios fail while IFR in controlled airspace?

Back 94

Notify ATC immediately

Front 95

When may a pilot descend below 100 feet above above the touchdown zone elevation during a Category II ILS instrument approach when only the approach lights are visible?

Back 95

When the red terminal bar of the approach light systems are in sight.

Front 96

When is DME required for an instrument flight?

Back 96

At or above 24,000 feel MSL is VOR navigational equipment is required.

Front 97

A function of the minimum equipment list is to indicate instruments or equipment which

Back 97

may be inoperative prior to beginning a flight in an aircraft.

Front 98

In what altitude structure is a transponder required when operating in controlled airspace?

Back 98

Above 10,000 feet MSL, excluding the airspace at and below 2,5000 feet AGL.

Front 99

Information obtained from flight data and cockpit voice recorders shall be used only for determining

Back 99

possible causes of accidents or incidents.

Front 100

For what purpose may cockpit voice recorders and flight data recorders NOT be used?

Back 100

Determining any certificate action, or civil penalty, arising out of an accident or occurrence.

Front 101

How long is cockpit voice recorder and flight recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?

Back 101

60 days.

Front 102

How long is cockpit voice recorder and light recorder data kept, in the event of an accident or occurrence resulting in terminating the flight?

Back 102

60 days

Front 103

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying an air carrier airplane when one of its three turbine engines is inoperative?

Back 103

The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR

Front 104

Which operational requirement must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine-engine-powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?

Back 104

The weather conditions at takeoff and destination must be VFR

Front 105

When a turbine-engine-powered airplane is to be ferried to another base for repair of an inoperative engine, which operational requirement must be observed?

Back 105

Only the required flight crew memebers may be on board the airplane.

Front 106

Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large, three-engine, turbojet-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?

Back 106

No passenger may be carried.

Front 107

A commercial operator plans to ferry a large, four-engine, reciprocating-engine-powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine. Which is an operational requirement for the three-engine flight?

Back 107

Weather conditions at the takeoff and destination airports must be VFR

Front 108

Which publication includes information operations in the North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace?

Back 108

FAR Part 91

Front 109

How many an aircraft operate in North Atlantic (NAT) Minimum Navigation Performance Specifications Airspace with less than the Minimum navigation capability required by FAR part 91, appendix C?

Back 109

By requesting a deviation from the Administrator.

Front 110

When a passanger notifies the certificate holder prior to checking baggage that an unloaded weapon is in the baggage, what action is required by regulation regarding this baggage?

Back 110

The baggage must remain locked and carried in an area that is inaccessible to the passenger, and only the passenger retains the key.

Front 111

A certificate holder is notified that a person specifically authorized to carry a deadly weapon is to be aboard an aircraft. Except in an emergency, how long before loading that flight should the air carrier be notified?

Back 111

A minimum of 1 hour.

Front 112

Which applies to the carriage of a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel?

Back 112

No more than one person considered to be in the maximum risk category may be carried on a flight, and that person must have at least two armed law enforcement escorts.

Front 113

When a person in the custody of law enforcement personnel is scheduled on a flight, what procedures are required regarding boarding of this person and the escort?

Back 113

They shall be boarded before all other passengers board, and deplaned after all the other passengers have left the aircraft.

Front 114

leg 34. If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing acetone?

Back 114

FLAMMABLE LIQUID

Front 115

Leg 34. What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetyl bromide in one package that may be carried in a cargo-only aircraft?

Back 115

1 gallon.

Front 116

What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of acetylene in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?

Back 116

Any amount is forbidden.

Front 117

Leg 36. If not excepted, what label, if any, must be placed on a package containing allethrin?

Back 117

None.

Front 118

Leg 36. What is the maximum, if any, net quantity of aluminum hydride in one package that may be carried in a passenger-carrying aircraft?

Back 118

Any amount is forbidden.

Front 119

Hazardous material shipped on an aircraft must be described and certified on a shipping paper. For what period of time must the originating aircraft operator retain one copy of this document?

Back 119

90 days.

Front 120

Certain classes of hazardous material may be shipped by air but are not permitted aboard passenger-carrying aircraft. How must such material be labeled?

Back 120

CARGO AIRCRAFT ONLY

Front 121

The aircraft operator discovers that the label on a container of hazardous material is missing. How should the appropriate replacement label be determined?

Back 121

Shipping papers.

Front 122

An operator makes a telephone report of an incident involving fire during the loading of hazardous materials. Within what period of time must a written report be submitted?

Back 122

15 days.

Front 123

Which procedure must be followed if an operator, when loading magnetized material, cannot avoid placing it in a position where it affects the accuracy of the magnetic compass?

Back 123

Make a special compass swing and calibration.

Front 124

Which class of hazardous material must be loaded aboard an aircraft in a position that allows no contact with containers of corrosive materials?

Back 124

Oxidizing materials.

Front 125

What is the maximum weight of hazardous material (other than nonflammable compressed gas) that may be carried in an accessible cargo compartment of a passenger-carrying aircraft?

Back 125

50 pounds, unless otherwise specifically permitted.

Front 126

What is the maximum, if any, number of packages of ORM material that may be transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft?

Back 126

No limit applies.

Front 127

If transported in a passenger-carrying aircraft, what is the maximum combined transportation indices of packages containing radioactive materials?

Back 127

50

Front 128

What precaution, if any, should be taken if dry ice is carried aboard an aircraft?

Back 128

Proper ventilation of the aircraft should be assured.

Front 129

Who should be notified if there is a suspected radioactive contamination involving a radioactive materials shipment and it is determined that radiological advice is needed?

Back 129

U.S. Energy Research and Development Administration.

Front 130

What is the minimum distance that a package of radioactive materials bearing the label 'RADIOACTIVE YELLOW II' and having a transport index of 15, may be placed from a space continuously occupied by people?

Back 130

4 feet

Front 131

What is the maximum quantity of flammable liquid fuel that may be carried in the cabin of a small, nonscheduled, passenger-carrying aircraft being operated in a remote area of the United States?

Back 131

20 gallons.

Front 132

Who must the crew of a domestic or flag air carrier airplane be able to communicate with, under normal conditions, along the entire route (in either direction) of flight?

Back 132

Appropriate dispatch office.

Front 133

For which of these aircraft is the "clearway" for a particular runway considered in computing takeoff weight limitations?

Back 133

Turbine-engine-powered transport airplanes certificated after September 30, 1958

Front 134

What effective runway length is required for a turbojet-powered airplane at the destination airport if the runways are forecast to be wet or slippery at the ETA?

Back 134

115 percent of the runway length required for a dry runway.

Front 135

What restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment of an airplane operated under FAR Part 121?

Back 135

Cargo may be carried aft of a divider if properly secured by a safety belt or other tiedown devices to withstand certain load stresses.

Front 136

What requirement must be met regarding cargo that is carried anywhere in the passenger compartment of an air carrier airplane?

Back 136

The bin in which the cargo is carried may not be installed in a position that restricts access to, or use of, any aisle int eh passenger compartment.

Front 137

How many portable battery-powered megaphones are required on an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 150 passengers on a trip segment when 75 passengers are carried

Back 137

Two; one at the forward end, and the other at the most rearward location of the passenger cabin.

Front 138

Which factor determines the minimum number of hand fire extinguishers required for flight under FAR Part 121?

Back 138

Airplane passenger seating accommodations.

Front 139

Which requirement applies to emergency equipment (fire extinguishers, megaphones, first-aid kits, and crash ax) installed in an air carrier airplane?

Back 139

Emergency equipment must be clearly identified and clearly marked to indicate its method of operation.

Front 140

The emergency lights on a passenger-carrying airplane must be armed or turned on during

Back 140

taxiing, takeoffm and landing.

Front 141

If a passenger-carrying landplane is required to have an automatic deploying escape slide system, when must this system be armed?

Back 141

For taxi, takeoff, and landing.

Front 142

If there is a required emergency exit located in the flight crew compartment, the door which separates the compartment from the passenger cabin must be

Back 142

latched open during takeoff and landing.

Front 143

Federal Aviation Regulations require that interior emergency lights must

Back 143

be operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the passenger compartment.

Front 144

When may two persons share one approved safety belt in a lounge seat?

Back 144

Only during the en route flight.

Front 145

In the event of an engine emergency, the use of a cockpit check procedure by the flight crew is

Back 145

required by regulations to prevent reliance upon memorized procedures.

Front 146

An air carrier airplane must have an operating public address system if it

Back 146

has a seating capacity for more than 19 passengers.

Front 147

A crewmember interphone system is required on which aiplane

Back 147

An airplane with more than 19 passenger seats.

Front 148

For a 2-hour flight in a reciprocating-engine-powered airplane at a cabin pressure altitude of 12,000 feet, how much supplemental oxygen for systenance must be provided? Enough oxygen for

Back 148

30 minutes for 10 percent of the passengers

Front 149

What is the passenger oxygen supply requirement for a flight, in a turbine-powered aircraft, with a cabin pressure altitude in excess of 15,000 feet? Enough oxygen for

Back 149

each passenger for the entire flight above 15,000 feet cabin altitude.

Front 150

At which cabin altitude must oxygen be provided for all passengers during the entire flight at those altitudes?

Back 150

16,000 feet

Front 151

How much supplemental oxygen for emergency descent must a pressurized turbine-powered air transport airplane carry for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty when operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet?

Back 151

A minimum of 2-hours' supply

Front 152

What is the highest flight level that operations may be conducted without the pilot at the controls wearing and using an oxygen mask, while the other pilot is away from the duty station?

Back 152

FL 250

Front 153

If either pilot of an air carrier airplane leaves the dity station while flying at FL 410, the other pilot

Back 153

shall put on the oxygen mask and breathe oxygen.

Front 154

If a turbine-engine-powered, pressurized airplane is not equipped with quick-donning oxygen masks, what is the maximum flight altitude authorized without one pilot wearing and using an oxygen mask?

Back 154

FL 250

Front 155

Each air carrier flight deck crewmember on flight deck dity myst be provided with an oxygen mask that can be rapidy placed on his face when operating at flight altitudes.

Back 155

above FL 250

Front 156

A flight crewmember must be able to don and use a quick-donning oxygen mask within

Back 156

5 seconds

Front 157

What is the minimum number of acceptable oxygen-dispensing units for first-aid treatment of occupnats who might requiere undiluted oxygen for physiological reason?

Back 157

Two

Front 158

A passenger briefing by a crewmember shall be given, instructing passengers on the necesseity of suing oxygen in the event of cabin depressurization, prior to flights conducted above

Back 158

FL250

Front 159

The supplemental oxygen requirements for passengers when a flight is operated at FL250 is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make ana emergency descent to a flight altitude of

Back 159

14,000 feet within 4 minutes.

Front 160

Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier flight between John F. Kennedy International Airport and London, England?

Back 160

An appropriately equippped survival kit attached to each required life raft.

Front 161

What emergency equipment is required for extended overwater operations?

Back 161

A life preserver equippped with a survivor locator light, for each person on the airplane.

Front 162

Each large aircraft operating over water must have a life preserver for each

Back 162

aircraft occupant.

Front 163

Life preservers required for overwater operations are stored

Back 163

within easy reach of each seated occupant.

Front 164

For the purpose of testing the flight recorder system,

Back 164

a total of 1 hours of the oldest recorded data accumulated at the time of testing may be erased.

Front 165

When an air carrier flight is operated under IFR or over-th-top on "victor airways," which navigation equipment is required to be installed in duplicate?

Back 165

VOR

Front 166

An air carrier operates a flight in VFR over-the-top conditions, What radio navigation equipment is required to be a dual installation?

Back 166

VOR

Front 167

When must an air carrier airplane be DME equipped?

Back 167

Whenever VOR navigational receivers are required.

Front 168

When a pilot plans a flight using NDB NAVAIDS, which rule applies?

Back 168

The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of VOR NAVAIDS, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system.

Front 169

If an air carrier airplane is flying IFR using a single ADF navigation receiver and the ADF equipment fails, the flight must be able to

Back 169

proceed safely to a suitable airport using VOR aids and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio sytem.

Front 170

While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace, the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate report to ATC?

Back 170

DME

Front 171

For a flight over unihabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for

Back 171

all aircraft occupants.

Front 172

For a flight over uninhabited terrain, an airplane operated by a flag or supplemental air carrier must carry enough appropriately equipped survival kits for

Back 172

all aircraft occupants

Front 173

When a supplemental air carrier is operating over an unnhabited area, how many appropriately equipped survival kits are required aboard the aircraft?

Back 173

One for each occupant of the aircraft.

Front 174

An airplane operated by a flag air carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?

Back 174

Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

Front 175

An airplane operated by a supplemental air carrier flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?

Back 175

Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices.

Front 176

An airplane operated by a commercial operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which emergency equipment?

Back 176

An approved survival-type emergency locator transmitter.

Front 177

If an air carrier airplane's airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the proposed route of flight, an airplane may be dispatched only

Back 177

in day VFR conditions.

Front 178

An air carrier airplane's airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating condition prior to dispatch, if the flight will be

Back 178

conducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorm reported en route.

Front 179

What action should be taken by the pilot in command of a transport category airplane if the airborne weather radar becomes inoperative en route on an IFR flight for which weather reports indicate possible thunderstorms?

Back 179

Proceed in accordance with the approved instructions and procedures specified in the operations manual for such an event.

Front 180

Information recorded during normal operation of a cockpit voice recorder in a large pressurized airplane with four reciprocating engines.

Back 180

may all be erased or otherwise obliterated except for the last 30 minutes.

Front 181

Which rule applies to the use of the cockpit voice recorder erasure feature?

Back 181

Any information more than 30 minutes old may be erased.

Front 182

A cockpit voice recorder must be operated

Back 182

from the start of the before starting engine checklist to completion of final checklist upon termination of light.

Front 183

Which airplanes are required to be equipped with a ground proximity warning glide slope deviation alerting system?

Back 183

All turbine-powered airplanes.

Front 184

The "age 60 rule" of FAR Part 121 applies to

Back 184

any required pilot crewmember.

Front 185

If a flight engineer becomes incapaciated during flight, who may perform the flight engineer's duties?

Back 185

Any flight crewmember, if qualified.

Front 186

An air carrier uses an airplane that is certified for operation with a flightcrew of two pilots and one flight engineer. In case the flight engineer becomes incapacitated,

Back 186

at least one other flight crewmember must be qualified to perform flight engineer duties.

Front 187

When a flight engineer is a required crewmember on a flight, it is necessary for

Back 187

at least one other flight crewmember to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required.

Front 188

Under which condition is a flight engineer required as a flight crewmember in FAR Part 121 operations?

Back 188

If required by the airplane's type certificate.

Front 189

When the need for a flight engineer is determined by aircraft weight, what is the takeoff weight that requires a flight engineer?

Back 189

more than 80,000 pounds.

Front 190

Routes that require a flight navigator are listed in the

Back 190

Air Carrier's Operations Specifications.

Front 191

Where are the routes listed that require special navigation equipment?

Back 191

Certificate holder's Operations Specifications.

Front 192

A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the 48 contiguous United States and District of Columbia when

Back 192

the airplanes' position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than 1 hour

Front 193

An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crewmembers. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?

Back 193

Three

Front 194

When an air carrier airplane with a seating capacity of 187 has 137 passengers on board, what is the minimum number of flight attendants required?

Back 194

Four

Front 195

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane having a passenger seating capacity of 188 with only 117 passengers aboard?

Back 195

Four

Front 196

What is the minimum number of flight attendants required on an airplane with a passenger seating capacity of 333 when 296 passengers are aboard?

Back 196

Seven