Ate2639 Tollon Final Study Flash Cards

Front 1

What is Dioctophyma Renale?

Back 1

the Giant Kidney Worm.

Front 2

Define Lymphopenia.

Back 2

A decrease in lymphocytes.

Front 3

Define Eosinopenia.

Back 3

A decrease in eosinophils.

Front 4

Define Glucosuria.

Back 4

The presence of glucose in the urine.

Front 5

Define Left Shift.

Back 5

When there is a higher number band neutrophils

Front 6

What are the 3 examples of granulocytes?

Back 6

Neutrophils
Basophils
and Eosinophils.

Front 7

What are Granulocytes?

Back 7

A white blood cell with secretory granules in its cytoplasm.

Front 8

What are Agranulocytes?

Back 8

White blood cells with a one-lobed nucleus.

Front 9

What are the 2 types of Agranulocytes?

Back 9

Monocytes

Lymphocytes

Front 10

Of the granulocytes, which is the most common?

Back 10

Neutrophils

Front 11

Which is the most common agranulocyte ?

Back 11

Lymphocyte

Front 12

What is the scientific name of Coccidia?

Back 12

Isospora

Front 13

What is this a picture of?

Back 13

Coccidia.

Front 14

What is Dipetalonema reconditum a parasite which in its immature form can be confused with ?

Back 14

Dirofilaria immitis (heartworm).

Front 15

What are the three RBC indices?

Back 15

MCV

MCH

MCHC

Front 16

What does MCV stand for?

Back 16

Mean Corpuscular Volume

Front 17

What does MCV measure?

Back 17

The size of RBCs

Front 18

What is the formula for MCV?

Back 18

PCV x 10 / RBC

Front 19

What is the unit of measurement for MCV?

Back 19

fl

Front 20

What is the normal range for MCV?

Back 20

60-70fl

Front 21

What does MCH stand for?

Back 21

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin

Front 22

What does MCH measure?

Back 22

The weight of the hemoglobin

Front 23

What is the formula for MCH?

Back 23

Hgb x 10 / RBC

Front 24

What is the unit of measurement for MCH?

Back 24

pg

Front 25

What is a normal MCH?

Back 25

20pg.

Front 26

What does MCHC stand for?

Back 26

Mean Corpuscular Hemoglobin Concentration.

Front 27

What does MCHC measure?

Back 27

The concentration of hemoglobin

Front 28

What is the formula for MCHC?

Back 28

Hgb x 10 / PCV

Front 29

What is the unit of measurement for MCHC?

Back 29

g/dl

Front 30

What is a normal range for MCHC?

Back 30

30-36 g/dl.

Front 31

What is Paragonimus kellicotti?

Back 31

Lung fluke

Front 32

What genus is Paragonimus kellicotti?

Back 32

Trematode

Front 33

What is Dipylidium caninum?

Back 33

Tapeworm

Front 34

What is this a picture of?

Back 34

A tapeworm egg.

Front 35

What is a T Lymphocyte?

Back 35

white blood cell which plays a central role in cell-mediated immunity.

Front 36

What is a B lymphocyte?

Back 36

A type of white blood cell which secretes antibodies.

Front 37

What is hemobartonella?

Back 37

A blood parasite

Front 38

What is this? It's found in urine.

Back 38

Capillaria plica

Front 39

What is a normal BUN?

Back 39

10-30

Front 40

What does BUN stand for?

Back 40

Blood Urea Nitrogen

Front 41

What are 3 causes of icterus?

Back 41

1) Liver Problems

2) Hemolysis

3) Cholestasis (blockage of the bile duct)

Front 42

What is Dirofilaria immitis?

Back 42

Heartworm

Front 43

What are the 3 portions of a urinalysis?

Back 43

1) Gross

2) Physical

3) Chemical

Front 44

What is the arrow pointing to?

Back 44

Babesia

Front 45

List the 5 types of WBCs.

Back 45

1) Neutrophil

2) Lymphocyte

3) Monocyte

4) Eosinophil

5) Basophil

Front 46

List the 2 types of lymphocytes.

Back 46

1) B Lymphocytes

2) T Lymphocytes

Front 47

What is the function of B Lymphocytes?

Back 47

Involved with antibody production.

Front 48

What is the function of T Lymphocytes?

Back 48

Involved with cell mediated immunity.

Front 49

What is the significance of monocytes?

Back 49

They are associated with chronic inflammation.

Front 50

What are 4 possible causes of a stress leukogram?

Back 50

1) Muscular Activity

2) Increased Heart Rate

3) Increased Blood Pressure

4) Steroids

Front 51

Define neutropenia.

Back 51

Decrease in Neutrophils.

Front 52

True or False: Eosinophilic cytoplasmic granules vary in shape, size, and number.

Back 52

TRUE

Front 53

True or False: Canine eosinophils vary in size, are round to oval, and have cytoplasmic vacuoles.

Back 53

TRUE

Front 54

What shape are the eosinophilic granules in felines?

Back 54

Rod-like.

Front 55

True or False: Monocytes become macrophages in tissues.

Back 55

TRUE

Front 56

What are the 3 causes of anemia?

Back 56

1) Lack of Production

2) Blood Loss

3) Hemolysis

Front 57

What are the 4 signs of regenerative anemia?

Back 57

1) Anisocytosis

2) Polychromasia

3) Howell Jolly Bodies

4) Nucleated Red Blood Cells (NRBCs)

Front 58

What is the significance of ketones in the urine?

Back 58

Ketones are caused by fat metabolism and may indicate diabetes mellitis

Front 59

What is Ketonuira usually associated with?

Back 59

Metabolic Acidosis

Front 60

How long is a red blood cell's life span in cats?

Back 60

90 days

Front 61

How long is a red blood cell's life span in dogs?

Back 61

100-110 days

Front 62

What are 2 types of leptocytes?

Back 62

Bar Cells and Target Cells

Front 63

What is the arrow pointing to?

Back 63

A Bar Cell.

Front 64

What are the arrows pointing to?

Back 64

Target Cells.

Front 65

Define acanthocyte.

Back 65

Cells with oblique, thorny, projections.

Front 66

What is the significance of acanthocytes?

Back 66

They are frequently seen in hemolytic anemias or with liver disease.

Front 67

What is the arrow pointing to?

Back 67

Acanthocyte.

Front 68

What is the significance of spherocytes?

Back 68

They are seen in IMHA.

Front 69

What is the arrow pointing to?

Back 69

A Spherocyte.

Front 70

True or False: Heinz Body Cells are commonly seen in cats.

Back 70

TRUE

Front 71

What is the significance of Heinz Body Cells?

Back 71

Can be caused by ingestion of onions, toxic drugs (acetaminophen).

Front 72

Define echinocytes.

Back 72

Red blood cells with multiple, small, evenly distributed projections.

Front 73

What is the significance of echinocytes?

Back 73

Can be caused by renal disease or snake bites.

Front 74

True or False: The most common cause of echinocytes is crenation.

Back 74

TRUE

Front 75

Define Schistocytes.

Back 75

Fragments of red blood cells.

Front 76

What is the arrow pointing to?

Back 76

A Schistocyte.

Front 77

What is a reticulocyte?

Back 77

An immature red blood cell that contains clumps of RNA.

Front 78

True or False: You can see reticulocytes when staining with Diff-Quick.

Back 78

FALSE, they can only be seen by staining with NMB.

Front 79

True or False: Reticulocytes are a sign of regeneration.

Back 79

TRUE

Front 80

What is the significance of Reticulocytes?

Back 80

It is used as a clinical index of Erythropoiesis (the production of red blood cells).

Front 81

What is the formula for Observed Reticulocytes?

Back 81

Observed = # counted / 1000 x 100 = _________%

Front 82

What is the formula for Corrected Reticulocytes?

Back 82

Observed x Patient PCV / Normal PCV = _______%

Front 83

What is the formula for Absolute Reticulocytes?

Back 83

# Counted x RBC Count (written out) = ________uL

Front 84

Which types of Reticulocytes do you count in the cat?

Back 84

Aggregate

Front 85

Of the two types of reticulocytes which on is older, punctate or aggregate?

Back 85

Punctate

Front 86

What is a normal RBC count?

Back 86

6-7 million.

Front 87

What is a normal WBC count?

Back 87

6,000 - 16,000.

Front 88

How do you find the hemoglobin estimated value?

Back 88

PCV/3.

Front 89

How do you find the RBC estimated count?

Back 89

PCV/6.

Front 90

What is a normal PCV for a cat?

Back 90

~37%.

Front 91

What is a normal PCV for a dog?

Back 91

~45%.

Front 92

Define dysuria.

Back 92

Difficult Urination.

Front 93

Define Isosthenuria.

Back 93

Urine with a Specific Gravity of 1.010, which is similar to that of glomerular filtrate.

Front 94

Define Glomerular Filtrate

Back 94

The fluid produced from blood by the glomerulus

Front 95

Define Pyelonephritis

Back 95

Bacterial infection in the kidney

Front 96

Define Polyuria

Back 96

Large amounts of urine

Front 97

Define Hematuria

Back 97

Blood in the urine

Front 98

Define Oliguria

Back 98

Decreased amounts of urine

Front 99

Define Anuria

Back 99

Lack of urine production

Front 100

Define Cystitis

Back 100

Inflammation of the Urinary Bladder

Front 101

Define Hemoglobinuria.

Back 101

The patient has red cloudy urine, but there are very few RBCs in the sediment

Front 102

Define Pyuria

Back 102

White/Cloudy urine with WBC's and Bacteria

Front 103

What is the scientific name of the hookworm?

Back 103

Ancylostoma caninum

Front 104

What is this a picture of?

Back 104

A hookworm egg.

Front 105

What is the scientific name for roundworms?

Back 105

Toxocara canis

Front 106

What is this a picture of?

Back 106

A roundworm egg.

Front 107

What genus is Toxocara Canis?

Back 107

Nematode

Front 108

What is the parasite typically associated with Raccoons?

Back 108

Baylisascaris procyonis.

Front 109

What is the scientific name for Whipworms?

Back 109

Trichuris vulpis

Front 110

Where do Whipworms live in the body?

Back 110

Cecum

Front 111

What is this a picture of?

Back 111

Whipworm Eggs

Front 112

What is the scientific name for tapeworms?

Back 112

Dipylidium caninum

Front 113

What genus are tapeworms?

Back 113

Cestodes

Front 114

What is this a picture of?

Back 114

A tapeworm egg.

Front 115

What is the scientific name for Coccidia?

Back 115

Isospora.

Front 116

What is this a picture of?

Back 116

Coccidia eggs.

Front 117

What is the scientific name of the stomach worm?

Back 117

Physaloptera Rara

Front 118

What is the scientific name for the Giant Kidney Worm?

Back 118

Dioctophyme renale

Front 119

What is the scientific name for the bladder worm?

Back 119

Capillaria Plica

Front 120

What is the current term for Hemobartonella?

Back 120

Mycoplasma haemofelis

Front 121

What does Mycoplasma haemofelis cause?

Back 121

FIA (Feline Infectious Anemia).

Front 122

What is Ehrlichia?

Back 122

A tick born disease.

Front 123

What is the most common type of flea found on both dogs and cats?

Back 123

The cat flea (Ctenocephalides felis)

Front 124

List the 4 stages of a flea lifecycle.

Back 124

1) Egg

2) Larvae

3) Pupae

4) Adult

Front 125

What organism causes Lyme Disease?

Back 125

Burrelia Burgdorfori

Front 126

What are the 3 types of granulocytes?

Back 126

1) Neutrophils

2) Basophils

3) Eosinophils

Front 127

What are the 3 causes of Leukocytosis?

Back 127

1) Infection

2) Stress

3) Inflammation

Front 128

What are the 2 causes of Leukopenia?

Back 128

1) Parvo (dogs)

2) Panleukopenia (cats)

Front 129

What is the normal range for Creatnine?

Back 129

1-2

Front 130

What is a regenerative left shift?

Back 130

When there are more young WBCs in the blood with an increased WBC count with segmented neutrophils

Front 131

What type of drug can be associated with a lymphopenia?

Back 131

Steroid

Front 132

The scientific name of the mite associated with immune problems is what?

Back 132

Demodex.

Front 133

What are the 6 stages of a neutrophil?

Back 133

1) Myloblast

2) Promyloblast

3) Mylocyte

4) Metamylocyte

5) Band Neutrophil

6) Segmented Neutrophil

Front 134

What are the 6 stages of an erythrocyte?

Back 134

1) Rubriblast

2) Prorubricyte

3) Rubricyte

4) Metarubricyte

5) Reticulocyte

6) Erythrocyte

Front 135

What does FIP stand for?

Back 135

Feline Infectious Peritonitis

Front 136

What is FIP?

Back 136

A viral disease in cats caused by the corona virus

Front 137

What does FIV stand for?

Back 137

Feline Immunodeficiency Virus.

Front 138

What is FIV?

Back 138

A lentivirus

Front 139

What does FeLV stand for?

Back 139

Feline Leukemia Virus

Front 140

What is FeLV?

Back 140

A retrovirus

Front 141

What does IMHA stand for?

Back 141

Immune Mediated Hemolytic Anemia.

Front 142

What does AIHA stand for?

Back 142

Autoimmune Hemolytic Anemia.

Front 143

What does FIA stand for?

Back 143

Feline Infectious Anemia

Front 144

What is another name for FIA?

Back 144

Haemobartonellosis

Front 145

What is serum?

Back 145

The liquid portion of clotted blood

Front 146

What is plasma?

Back 146

The liquid portion of whole blood

Front 147

What is a normal Thyroid value range?

Back 147

1-4.

Front 148

What is this a picture of

Back 148

Metamyelocytes

Front 149

What is this a picture of

Back 149

Large granular lymphocyte

Front 150

What is this a picture of

Back 150

Reactive lymphocyte

Front 151

What is this a picture of

Back 151

Vacuolated Lymphocyte

Front 152

What is this a picture of

Back 152

Monocyte

Front 153

What is this a picture of

Back 153

Eosinophil

Front 154

What is this a picture of

Back 154

Basophil

Front 155

What is this a picture of

Back 155

Metarubricyte

Front 156

What is this a picture of

Back 156

Granulocytic lukemia

Front 157

What is this a picture of

Back 157

Monocytic lukemia

Front 158

What is this a picture of

Back 158

Megakaryoblasts

Front 159

Which of the following wbc's tend to have a kidney bean shaped nucleus:

Back 159

metamyelocytes

Front 160

A leukogram that shows a decrease of wbc's along with an increase of bands is termed a:

Back 160

degenerative left shift

Front 161

T or F: When performing a differential, the wbc count should always be reported in relative numbers in order to be diagnostically useful.

Back 161

FALSE

Front 162

T or F: Immunocytes are the same cell as a reactive lymphocyte

Back 162

TRUE

Front 163

T or F: It is easy to differentiate T and B lymphocytes based upon theirmorphology

Back 163

FALSE

Front 164

Which of the following is the most immature recognizable cell in the erythroid series?

Back 164

rubriblast

Front 165

Which cell in the WBC line is one stage less mature then the band neutrophil?

Back 165

metamyelocyte

Front 166

Abone marrow aspiration on a cat may be obtained from the

Back 166

proximal humerus, femur, and the wing of the ileum

Front 167

Which cell in the RBC line is the most immature, with a large nucleus and nucleoli still present?

Back 167

rubriblast

Front 168

In what species is a bone marrow sample the primary means buy which to judge the animals response to an anemia?

Back 168

Equine

Front 169

Abone marrow aspiration in small animals can sometimes be performed with whichof the following

Back 169

Tranquilizer or General anesthetic

Front 170

What does the term hyperplastic mean?

Back 170

increased number of cells

Front 171

T or F: When performing an M:E ratio you would count all mature nucleated cells with the bone marrow.

Back 171

FALSE

Front 172

About how many days does it take a RBC to mature?

Back 172

5

Front 173

When following a bone marrow case, besides actually examining the bone marrow what other lab test might the technician be performing?

Back 173

CBC

Front 174

T or F: Diagnostic cytology offers significant time savings in thedifferentiation between inflammatory disease and cancer

Back 174

TRUE

Front 175

T or F: It is ok to send cytology samples and formalin fixed samples to areference laboratory in the same box as long as they are wrapped and addressedproperly

Back 175

FALSE

Front 176

T or F: When performing a fine needle aspirate, the best technique is to directthe needle into the mass one time and then remove the needle from the animal

Back 176

FALSE

Front 177

T or F: The term for study of diseased tissues is histopathology

Back 177

FALSE

Front 178

When performing a fine needle aspirate, which of the following pieces of equipment is not advised

Back 178

25 gauge needle

Front 179

T or F: When examing cellular detail of a cytology sample, it is wise to use the10X objective

Back 179

FALSE

Front 180

T or F: Cytology seldom will provide a definitive diagnosis when used as the sole diagnostic test as other tests may be needed

Back 180

TRUE

Front 181

T or F: Exudates are an abnormal collection of normal fluid.

Back 181

FALSE

Front 182

T or F: Normal body cavities (pleural, peritoneal and visceral) are lined by mesothelial cells in variable numbers.

Back 182

TRUE

Front 183

Transudates are effusions that are relatively unique because of all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:

Back 183

SPECIFIC GRAVITY >1.017

Front 184

T or F: Congestive heart failure may result in an animal developing a transudateor a modified transudate

Back 184

TRUE

Front 185

TRUE or FALSE: Increased turbidity is most commonly associated with increased numbers of cellular elements.

Back 185

TRUE

Front 186

TRUE or FALSE: Transudates are a normal collection of abnormal fluid.

Back 186

FALSE

Front 187

TRUE or FALSE: Inflammation can be classified based upon its duration by the terms acute, subacute (same as chronic-active) or chronic inflammation.

Back 187

TRUE

Front 188

TRUE OR FALSE: Acute neutrophilic inflammation is less than 70% Neutrophils, normalneutrophils

Back 188

FALSE

Front 189

TRUE OR FALSE: Complete characterization of an effusion requires evaluation of various features such as the cellular content and specific gravity.

Back 189

TRUE

Front 190

Chronic inflammation is characterized by:

Back 190

greater than 50% macrophages

Front 191

TRUE OR FALSE: Collection of exfoliative cytology samples always requires at least local anesthesia of the site.

Back 191

FALSE

Front 192

TRUE OR FALSE:In general, skin biopsies are not performed as often as they should bein veterinary medicine

Back 192

TRUE

Front 193

List 3 unusual complications from a biopsy sample collection might include

Back 193

minor hemorrhage

infection

and dissemination of neoplastic cells

Front 194

List 4 agents can cause inflammatory lesions in the skin?

Back 194

bacteria

fungi

foreign bodies

and parasites

Front 195

The most common skin biopsy punches areapproximately

Back 195

4-6 mm

Front 196

Taking a section of the liver would be:

Back 196

incisional biopsy

Front 197

T or F: The removal of a portion of the lesion is known as excisional biopsy

Back 197

FALSE

Front 198

True or False: The removal of a portion of the lesion is known as excisional biopsy

Back 198

FALSE

Front 199

Which of the following techniques minimizes pharyngeal contamination of the sample obtained?

Back 199

Transtracheal

Front 200

True or False: In general, skin biopsies are not performed as often as they should be in veterinary medicine.

Back 200

TRUE

Front 201

Which of the following organs can be easily aspirated?

Back 201

Liver

Front 202

What are two examples of discrete cells:

Back 202

histiocytoma and transmissible venereal tumors

Front 203

When sending biopsy samples in to the lab, all of the following arealways necessary

Back 203

name of patientbreed of patient age of patient location of lesion

Front 204

True or False: Nuclear criteria of malignancy are more reliable than cytoplasmic criteria for estimating malignant potential.

Back 204

TRUE

Front 205

Tumors can be classified into what 3 categories?

Back 205

epithelial

mesenchymal (spindle-cell)

discrete round cell tumors

Front 206

Variable size and shape in cells of the same type is termed:

Back 206

pleomorphism

Front 207

True or False: A Mast Cell Tumor is an example of around or discreet cell tumor?

Back 207

TRUE

Front 208

True or False: Biopsy and aspiration are inter-changeable terms.

Back 208

FALSE

Front 209

The study of cells is known as

Back 209

CYTOLOGY

Front 210

A vaginal smear during this time would appear"clearer" showing a predominance of cornified cells, with no WBCs and decreasing RBC's

Back 210

estrus

Front 211

The first heat cycle experienced by the femaledog can occur anywhere from 6-24 months of age depending on the breed

Back 211

TRUE

Front 212

Ovulation usually occurs during the end of:

Back 212

estrus

Front 213

Female cats are seasonally polyestrus

Back 213

TRUE

Front 214

The mean duration of estrus in a cat is

Back 214

8 days

Front 215

True or False: Progesterone is the predominant hormone during proestrus.

Back 215

FALSE

Front 216

Vaginal epithelial cells can be classified into which of the following type:

Back 216

basal cells

paranasal cells

intermediateintermeidate cells

superficial cells

Front 217

The stage of the estrus cycle that is markedwith predominantly red blood cells is

Back 217

proestrus

Front 218

Estrogen is the predominant hormone during metestrus

Back 218

FALSE

Front 219

Through cytological examination of the vaginal smear, optimum breeding times can be managed.

Back 219

FALSE

Front 220

Which are included in the components of the immune system?

Back 220

B-lymphocytes

T-lymphocytes

Macrophages

Front 221

The ELISA test for FeLV tests for exposure to the disease.

Back 221

TRUE

Front 222

Lymphocyte counts are a very crude estimate in evaluating a cell mediated response of the immune system.

Back 222

TRUE

Front 223

There is not presently a good test for FIP.

Back 223

TRUE

Front 224

Renal failure may depress red blood cell formation.

Back 224

TRUE

Front 225

Hemolytic anemia is the type of anemia that shows the most regenerative response.

Back 225

TRUE

Front 226

TRUE OR FALSE: The Monocyte is the body's first line of defense in infection.

Back 226

FALSE

Front 227

TRUE OR FALSE: Lymphocytes are the primary cellular components of the antibody producing system.

Back 227

TRUE

Front 228

True or False: When using serological test kits, it is important that the directions be followed carefully.

Back 228

TRUE

Front 229

Which of the following is an example of a coronavirus?

Back 229

FIP

Front 230

True or False: Animals in the recovery phase of an infectious disease is resistant to reinfection.

Back 230

TRUE

Front 231

The maternal immunity in young kittens does interfere with FeLV diagnostic tests.

Back 231

FALSE

Front 232

True or False: There is presntly no good test for FIP in cats

Back 232

TRUE

Front 233

FeLV is considered to be a CORE vaccine for cats.

Back 233

FALSE

Front 234

Neoplastic cells in the blood or bone marrow are significant in diagnosing

Back 234

Leukemia

Front 235

A group of bone marrow disorders, usually neoplastic, characterized by proliferation of the bone marrow cell lines

Back 235

Myeloproliferative disorders

Front 236

__________ are 0.5 to 2.0 µm angular blue grey particles, usually at the periphery of the cell.They represent aggregations of rough endoplasmic reticulum.

Back 236

Doehle bodies

Front 237

Name the RBC Maturation

Back 237

Rubriblast

Prorubricyte

Rubricyte

Metarubricyte

polychromatophillic rubricyte

mature erythrocyte

Front 238

Name 3 specific cell type tumors

Back 238

(squamous cell, fibroblast, lymphoblast)

Front 239

variation in cellmorphology within thesame population

Back 239

Pleomorphism

Front 240

Variation in size and shape of cells

Back 240

anisokaryosis

Front 241

Name 3 Routes of Metastasis

Back 241

Hematagenous

Lymphatic

Implantation

Front 242

malignant tumors involving epithelial origin

Back 242

Carcinomas

Front 243

malignant tumors involving connective tissue origin

Back 243

Sarcomas

Front 244

Chemo for Transmissable Venereal Tumors

Back 244

vincristine

Front 245

Treatment of Lymphosarcoma -

Back 245

steroids, cyclophosphamide, vincristine

Front 246

Treatment for mast cell tumors

Back 246

steroids

Front 247

3 Main Categories of tumors

Back 247

Round (Discrete) Cell Tumors

Epithelial Tumors

Mesenchymal (Connective

Front 248

Name the 4 Epithelial Tumors

Back 248

Squamous Cell

Basal Cell

Adenomas

Adenocarcinomas

Front 249

Name all 6 Spindle Cell Tumors (mesenchymal/connective)

Back 249

Fibrosarcoma

Osteoma

Osteosarcomas

Lipoma

Hemangiosarcoma

Sarcoma

Front 250

Name the sites for bone marrow collection

Back 250

Dorsal iliac crest (wing of the ilium)

Trochanteric fossa of proximal femur

Proximal humerus

Rib

Front 251

RBC Mature in approximately ____ days and then circulate for _______ days depending on the species.

Back 251

4-5

100-120

Front 252

Granulocytes take approximately _____ days to mature and then only have a half life of @ ___ hours, before they Sequester into the tissues

Back 252

5-7

12

Front 253

____ Lymphocytes are associated with the Thymus and are involved with cellular immunity.

Back 253

T

Front 254

____ Lymphocytes are associated with the Bursa of Fabricious and are involved with humoral immunity, specifically the production of immunoglobulins.

Back 254

B

Front 255

Megakaryocyte maturation takes hours and then the platelets circulate ______ days.

Back 255

6-10

Front 256

Term that means no bone marrow development

Back 256

Aplastic

Front 257

Term that means ineffective (common cats) - an alteration in size, shape and organization in adult cells, this indicates ineffective bone marrow development

Back 257

Dysplastic

Front 258

Term that means Abnormal development of cells, any new, abnormal growth, one where cell multiplication is uncontrolled.

Back 258

Neoplastic

Front 259

________ cells have > 75% cellularity, abnormal increase of a tissue or organ caused by formation of normal new cells. Indicates greater then 75% cellularity in the bone marrow

Back 259

hyperpastic

Front 260

_________ cells have < 25% cellularityaplastic- Having no tendency to develop into new tissue, no bone marrow development, incomplete or underdevlopment of a organ or tissue. Indicates less then 25% in the bone marrow

Back 260

hypoplastic

Front 261

____________ conditions- abnormal proliferation of bone marrow constituates.

Back 261

Myeloproliferative

Front 262

________ leukemia is a leukemia associated with hyperplasia and over development of lympoid tissue.

Back 262

Lymphocytic

Front 263

___________ disease- transfer of cells/ disease/ cancer from one organ to another.

Back 263

Metastatic neoplastic

Front 264

____________- abnormal increase of erythroid cells.

Back 264

Erythroid hyperplasia

Front 265

_______________ : The study of diseased tissue

Back 265

Histopathology

Front 266

____________ : The study of diseased cells

Back 266

Cytopathology

Front 267

Divide malignant tumors into three categories

Back 267

Epithelial

Connective Tissue

Round Cell

Front 268

__________________ They entire lesion is removed. Usually sent off for analysis, this is up to the owner.

Back 268

Excisional

Front 269

____________ Cut into the lesion and remove a portion of the lesion.usually done when the lesion is large and removal may compromise.

Back 269

Incisional

Front 270

____________ Cytology includes Skin Scrapings, Impression Smears. KOH Preps, Vaginal Cytology, and Body Fluids

Back 270

Exfoliative

Front 271

______________ - an abnormal collection of normal fluid. Have low total cell counts(> 500/ul) Watery fluid

Back 271

Transudates

Front 272

___________- an abnormal collection of abnormalfluidnHave high total cell counts(<500/ul) usualy Thick fluid

Back 272

Exudates

Front 273

__________ Greater than 70% nutrophils

Back 273

Acute

Front 274

______ ________ 50-70% are nutrophils and 30-50% are macrophages, a few eosinophils may be present.

Back 274

Chronic Active

Front 275

________ Greater than 50% of the cells are macrophages

Back 275

Chronic

Front 276

___________ term used when giant or epitheliod cells are present

Back 276

Granulatomous

Front 277

__________ are foreign substances, usually proteins,that can be viral, bacterial, or fungal.

Back 277

Antigens

Front 278

____________ are responsible for the recognition and elimination or antigens. (Ab) In-responsive to antigens.

Back 278

Antibodies

Front 279

__________ cells - include macrophages, neutrophils

Back 279

Accessory

Front 280

__________________ is the separation of plasma proteins by molecular weight in an electric field.

Back 280

Electrophoresisois

Front 281

What are the three methods of biopsy that are used for bone marrow collection?

Back 281

aspiration

core

incisional biopsy

Front 282

___________ will frequently have a specific gravity less than 1.017

Back 282

Transudates

Front 283

_______have specific gravity more than 1.017

Back 283

Exudates

Front 284

Transudates are frequently:

Back 284

Clear

Front 285

___________ are frequently cloudy

Back 285

Exudates

Front 286

____________________ an example of a modified transudate which shares some of the characteristics of both transudates and exudates.

Back 286

F I P (Feline Infectious Peritonitis) is

Front 287

The preferred site for obtaining a CSF tap in a dog is the __________________

Back 287

cerebellomedullary cistern

Front 288

When performing a transtracheal wash, one should direct the catheter needle through the _______________________

Back 288

cricothyroid membrane.

Front 289

How much fluid should normally be collected when performing a spinal tap?

Back 289

2cc

Front 290

____________- is an increase in the size of an organ caused by an increase in the size of the cells rather than the number of cells.

Back 290

hypertrophy

Front 291

____________- an increase in the number of cells of a body part.

Back 291

hyperplasia

Front 292

Purulent or suppurative inflammatory responses are characterized by _____ neutrophils.

Back 292

> 85%

Front 293

The most common tumors in the cat are associated with which system?

Back 293

hemolymphatic system

Front 294

What is a commonly used drug that can be used in cancer therapy?

Back 294

prednisolone

Front 295

____________ and __________ are examples of chemotherapeutic drugs that are used in veterinary medicine to treat cancer.

Back 295

Cyclophosphamide

Chorambucil

Front 296

Myelosuppressive drugs should not be used if the WBC count drops below ______ cells/mm3.

Back 296

4,000

Front 297

Toxicities to chemotherapy are seen most commonly in rapidly dividing tissues, such as ______, _________, and ________

Back 297

bone marrow

hair follicles

and intestines.

Front 298

_________ tumors are commonly referred to as sarcoma tumorsc

Back 298

Spindle cell

Front 299

__________ may last 4 to 13 days, with an average of 9 days.

Back 299

Proestrus

Front 300

____________ usually lasts 4 to 13 days, with an average of 9 days. No neutrophils will be present.

Back 300

Estrus

Front 301

_______________ may last 2-3 months. Erythrocytes are generally absent.

Back 301

Metestrus

Front 302

How often should a bitch be bred during estrus?

Back 302

Every fourth day throughout the period

Front 303

Which 3 neoplastic cells may be seen on a vaginal cytology?

Back 303

Transitional-cell carcinoma

squamous-cell carcinoma

vaginal lymphosarcomas

Front 304

What are some disorders which may result from the malfunctioning of the immune system?

Back 304

allergies, immunodeficiency, neoplasia, or autoimmune diseases

Front 305

What are the two immune systems at work in vertebrate species?

Back 305

innate immune system and adaptive immune system

Front 306

What are the 2 components of the adaptive immune system?

Back 306

humoral immune system and cell-mediated immune system

Front 307

__________ is abnormalities in serum immunoglobulins characterized by increased levels

Back 307

Gammopathies

Front 308

In AIHA affected cats, what are the common underlying systemic diseases seen?

Back 308

FeLV, myeloproliferative disease, Hemobartonella felis

Front 309

What does the Coombs Test detect the presence of, and what disease does it confirm diagnosis?

Back 309

AIHA

Front 310

List the 3 types of enzyme immuno assays.

Back 310

sandwich assay -for antigens

indirect assay-- for antibodies

competitive assay -for drugs and hormones

Front 311

__________ is a common skin disease of cats caused by fungal infections with Microsporum canis, M. gypseum or Trichophyton mentagrophytes.

Back 311

Ringworm

Front 312

The five primary classes of immunoglobulins are ________________________ These are distinguished by the type of heavy chain found in the molecule.

Back 312

IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD and IgE.

Front 313

____________ tests are used to demonstrate the presence of antibodies against a specific antigen in serum.

Back 313

Indirect fluorescent-antibody

Front 314

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down starches?

Back 314

Amylase

Front 315

Which of the following is a test of the liver that is not anenzyme?

Back 315

Bile Acids

Front 316

What is a normal blood glucose?

Back 316

100 mg/dl

Front 317

The term for too much sodium is

Back 317

Hypernatremia

Front 318

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down protein?

Back 318

Trypsin

Front 319

What is the old term for ALT?

Back 319

SGPT

Front 320

What enzyme is responsible for breaking down fats?

Back 320

Lipase

Front 321

When the pH of the blood drops below the normal 7.3 range,then the animal is thought to be in

Back 321

acidosis.

Front 322

Increases of what electrolyte may be associated withkidney disease?

Back 322

K

Front 323

Carbonic acid breaks down to which of the following?

Back 323

H, H20, HC03, & CO2

Front 324

An increase of what electrolyte is associated with renaldisease?

Back 324

K

Front 325

Blood gasses are measured using what type of vacutainer?

Back 325

HEPARIN

Front 326

Increases of what electrolyte may be associated withmetastatic or neoplastic disease?

Back 326

Ca

Front 327

What hormone decreases blood sugar?

Back 327

INSULIN

Front 328

Calcium concentrations generally are inversely related toinorganic phosphorus.

Back 328

TRUE

Front 329

Serology is the branch of science primarily involved with

Back 329

antibodies or antigens

Front 330

Renal threshold of glucose is approximately

Back 330

175 mg/dl

Front 331

The adrenal gland causes the production of

Back 331

Cortisol

Front 332

Which of the following tests are used in the diagnosis of hyperadrenocorticism

Back 332

Dexamethasone suppression and ACTH stimulation test

Front 333

Which of the following tests is for the liver

Back 333

ALT

Front 334

The opposite of Cushing's Disease is

Back 334

Hypoadrenocorticism

Front 335

Hypothyroidism is NOT associated with pu/pd

Back 335

TRUE

Front 336

T4 IS PRODUCED BY THE

Back 336

THYROID

Front 337

TSH is produced in the

Back 337

pituitary gland

Front 338

In reference to specimen collection the Vagina is NOT considered a closed body area

Back 338

TRUE

Front 339

When obtaining a sample for evaluation, your biggest concern is

Back 339

Avoiding contamination from other tissues, secretions, or foreign substances

Front 340

Which stain is most useful when differentiating the bacterial species present on a sample smear

Back 340

Gram stain

Front 341

It is ok to leave anaerobic samples out overnight, as long as you package and transport them to a laboratory facility first thing in the morning

Back 341

FALSE

Front 342

To reduce the incidence of nosocomial infections, veterinary hospitals should only use disinfectants that:

Back 342

Are registered by the E.P.A.

Front 343

Nosocomial infections are most often seen in

Back 343

Large, referral practices or teaching institutions

Front 344

Osha stands for Occupational Safety and Hazard Administration

Back 344

FALSE

Front 345

Gram positive cocci will appear what color on a well gram stained slide

Back 345

PURPLE

Front 346

In the gram stain procedure, the safarin counterstain is

Back 346

The last solution used in the procedure, before rinsing.

Front 347

On stained smears, bacteria are best identified on:

Back 347

100x oil Immersion objective.

Front 348

Which of the following groups most frequently requires routine anti microbial testing?

Back 348

Gram-negative bacteria

Front 349

The MIC in susceptibility testing is defined as

Back 349

The lowest concentration of antimicrobial that macroscopically inhibigts growth of the organism

Front 350

Antimicrobial susceptibility testing is performed because

Back 350

Some microorganisms are resistant to a given antibiotic

Front 351

If Anthrax is suspected you should

Back 351

Refrain from opening body cavities. Draw blood for diagnosis, preferably from an ear vein

Front 352

How many mls of blood should be obtained for a blood culture

Back 352

5-10 ml's

Front 353

True or False: Pseudomonas is a gram-positive bacterial pathogen

Back 353

FALSE it is a gram-negative

Front 354

Cat scratch fever is caused by the following bacterial organism

Back 354

Bartonella

Front 355

True or False: Always use a pure culture of bacteria for inoculation for antimicrobial susceptibility testing using agar diffusion test

Back 355

TRUE

Front 356

Within the Bacterial Growth Curve, which phase includes as many bacteria multiplying as there are dying?

Back 356

stationary phase

Front 357

There are three ways in which bacteria can modify their genetic make-up through sexual methods. This is known as what?

Back 357

recombination

Front 358

Name 3 examples of a mechanism for host resistance.

Back 358

Mucous membranes

Phagocytosis

Lymph tissue

Front 359

You should allow inoculated primary-isolation media to incubate for how long before issuing a "no growth" final report

Back 359

72 hours

Front 360

A Catalase test differentiates what from what.

Back 360

staph + and strep –

Front 361

In this type of hemolysis you will see, partial clearing and greening of the agar around the colonies.

Back 361

Alpha hemolysis

Front 362

The four quadrant streaking method of solid-media inoculation of plates is specifically designed to

Back 362

dilute the specimen (in a way that isolated colonies develop, each representing a single bacterial organism)

Front 363

Lack of color or a color change surrounding colonies on the normal red blood- agar plates is caused by:

Back 363

Hemolysis

Front 364

Disease caused by dermatophytes is also known as:

Back 364

ringworm

Front 365

Systemic Mycoses are important to us because:

Back 365

they can be zoonotic

Front 366

The following is a systemic mycosis commonly found in cats and presents kennel cough like symptoms in dogs.

Back 366

coccidiomycosis

Front 367

Name 3 types of yeast

Back 367

Malassezia

Candida

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 368

The following is a pathogen that usually involves the mucous membranes or wet areas of the body.

Back 368

Candida albicans

Front 369

Name an example of a coronavirus?

Back 369

FIP

Front 370

Animals in the recovery phase of an infectious disease is resistent to reinfection

Back 370

TRUE

Front 371

The mean age of puberty is

Back 371

10-12 months

Front 372

Name the four stages of the estrous cycle

Back 372

Proestrus

Estrus

Metestrus (diestrus)

Anestrus

Front 373

What stage of the estrus cycle is this photo

Back 373

PROESTRUS

Note the parabasal cells, intermediate cells, and superficial cells. Many erythrocytes but only small amount of neutrophils

Front 374

What stage of the estrus cycle is this photo

Back 374

LATE PROESTRUS

Front 375

The average length of estrus is _____ days

Back 375

9 days

Front 376

What stage of the estrus cycle is this photo

Back 376

ESTRUS notate the cornified superficial cells

Front 377

What stage of the estrus cycle is this photo

Back 377

Metestrus: note the decline in cornified cells, reappearance of intermediate, and parabasal cells

Front 378

What stage of the estrus cycle is this photo

Back 378

Anestrus: Superficial cells are absent or in small numbers neutrophils may be present or absent

Front 379

Epithelial Tumors include these 4 classifications

Back 379

Squamous Cell

Basal Cell

Adenomas

Adenocarcinomas

Front 380

What are the 3 main categories of tumors

Back 380

Round (discrete) cell tumors

Epithelial Tumors

Mesenchymal (Connective)

Front 381

Spindle cell tumors aka mesenchymal/connective tumors include

Back 381

Fibrosarcoma

Osteoma

Osteosarcoma

Lipoma

Hemangiosarcoma

Sarcoma

Front 382

Round cell tumors aka Discreet tumors include

Back 382

Mast Cell

Melanoma

Transmissible venereal tumors

Histiocytoma (can be confused with TVT)

Front 383

______ biopsy is the removal of the entire lesion

Back 383

Exisional

Front 384

______ biopsy is the removal of a portion of the lesion

Back 384

Incisional

Front 385

_____ is the most abundant of the immunoglobulins it plays a major role in humoral immunity

Back 385

IgG

Front 386

This immunoglobulin prevents the attachment of pathogens to the mucosal surfaces. This includes the intestinal, respiratory and urogenital tracts.

Back 386

IgA

Front 387

This immunoglobulin has the largest antibody, the first to respond to an antigen

Back 387

IgM

Front 388

This immunoglobulin is found in allergic and parasitized patients

Back 388

IgE

Front 389

Name two autoimmune diseases

Back 389

AIHA

Demodex

Front 390

______ is considered a Immunoproliferative disease

Back 390

Felv

Front 391

Anaerobic bacteria needs to be protected from __________ and must be obtained with a sterile syringe with a small needle

Back 391

Oxygen

Front 392

_______ are obligate intercellular parasites and they cannot live or function outside a living cell

Back 392

Viruses

Front 393

_________ response includes phagocytic response, fever, increased blood flow, pain, swelling

Back 393

Inflammatory

Front 394

Protein substances released from intact or lysed bacteria that cause antigenic reactions

Back 394

Exotoxins

Front 395

Weaker, less antigenic, released from intact or lysed gram negative bacteria

Back 395

Endotoxins

Front 396

_________ is a extracellular enzyme produced by staphylococcus aureus, clots fibrin and protects bacterium

Back 396

Coagulase

Front 397

__________ is an extracellular enzyme produced by many different bacteria, breaks down tissues to aid in spread of infections

Back 397

Hyaluronidase

Front 398

__________ is an extracellular enzyme produced by Clostridia, breaks down tissue collagen to spread infection

Back 398

Collagenase

Front 399

_________ __________ is the common cause of mastitis in cattle and other superficial infections in cattle, sheep, goats, birds, rabbits, turkeys and humans

Back 399

Staph. Aureus

Front 400

Common organisms seen in the horse that occur singly, in pairs or in short chains.

Back 400

Streptococci

Front 401

_________ ___________ is the most pathogenic bacteria for both animals and humans.

Back 401

Bacillus anthracis

Front 402

Anaerobic gram positive rods include _____ which has many pathogenic species

Back 402

Clostridium

Front 403

Coliforms are gram negative rods which live in the intestinal tracts of animals and humans name the 3 most common species

Back 403

E. Coli

Salmonella

Pseudomonas

Front 404

_______ stain as short, fat, gram negative rods and cannot be told apart by gram stain only biochemical testing

Back 404

Coliforms

Front 405

A common inhabitant in dogs and cats mouths and is the most commonly isolated bacteria from infected dog and cat bites

Back 405

Pasteurella

Front 406

______ are gram negative rods and have a predilection for the reticuloendothelial system and the reproductive tract.

Back 406

Brucella

Front 407

______ species of bacteria frequently isolated from the urinary tract

Back 407

Proteus

Front 408

__________ is a species of bacteria found in wounds and ears producing a yellow-green discharge with a distinctive odor.

Back 408

Psudomonas

Front 409

Rocky mountain spotted fever is caused by this disease transmitted by ticks

Back 409

Rickettsia

Front 410

Medical term for Cat Scratch fever

Back 410

Bartonella

Front 411

Tiny bacteria with no cell walls hard to stain and see microscopically

Back 411

Mycoplasma

Front 412

Smallest and simplest microbes that cannot reproduce or maintain their functions outside of living cells

Back 412

Viruses

Front 413

______ is a route of transmission of an infection by respiratory route or ingestion of contaminated food or liquids.

Back 413

Indirect

Front 414

_______ test is a secondary test that differentiates Staph (+) from Strep (-)

Back 414

Catalase

Front 415

______ test indicates a positive reaction on by causing a purple color to appear on a cotton swab.

Back 415

Oxidase

Front 416

Name three types of hemolysis on agar

Back 416

Alpha hemolysis

Beta hemolysis

Gamma hemolysis

Front 417

_______ hemolysis cause partial clearing and greening of the agar around the colonies

Back 417

Alpha

Front 418

_______ hemolysis causes no hemolysis, no clearing or alteration in the color of blood agar surrounding the colonies

Back 418

Gamma

Front 419

______ hemolysis causes a complete clearing around the colonies meaning the red blood cells in the blood agar have been completely dissolved.

Back 419

Beta

Front 420

______ is the lowest concentration of a specific antibiotic that will inhibit the growth of a specific bacteria.

Back 420

Minimum inhibitory concentration

Front 421

A selective media that was developed to attract growth for gram negative rods, these include ______ and _____ agars.

Back 421

MacConkey or EBM agar

Front 422

______ agar only allows Gram positive organisms to grow.

Back 422

Columbia agar

Front 423

This agar is used for microbiological growth for antibiotic susceptibility testing.

Back 423

Mueller-Hinton agar

Front 424

_____ the irreversible condensation of chromatin in the nucleus of a cell undergoing necrosis or apoptosis.

Back 424

Pyknosis

Front 425

M:E ratio is considered normal at ___

Back 425

1.0

Front 426

M:E ratio is considered decreased when the wbcs are less than

Back 426

0.5

Front 427

M:E ratio is considered when the wbc is increased when greater than

Back 427

2.0

Front 428

_____ take 5-7 days to mature. Live an average of 12 hours. Sequester in the tissues and attracted to sites of inflammation.

Back 428

Granulocytes

Front 429

____ take 4-5 days to mature and are in duration for 100-120 days.

Back 429

RBC's

Front 430

________ live up to 6-10 days and give rise to platelets

Back 430

Megakaryocytes

Front 431

This type of aspiration includes sites from the dorsal iliac crest, trochanteric fossa, proximal humerus and the rib.

Back 431

Bone biopsy aspiration

Front 432

Name the WBC maturation series

Back 432

Myeloblast

Promyelocyte

Myelocyte

Metamyelocyte

Band cell

Segmented neutrophil

Front 433

___________ is what we use to measure the white cell (myeloid) precursors as compared to the red cell (erythroid) precursors

Back 433

M : E Ratio

Front 434

_______ - means no bone marrow development

Back 434

Aplastic

Front 435

_______ means ineffective (common cats) - an alteration in size, shape and organization in adult cells, this indicates ineffective bone marrow development

Back 435

Dysplastic

Front 436

_______ means Abnormal development of cells, any new, abnormal growth, one where cell multiplication is uncontrolled.

Back 436

Neoplastic

Front 437

_________ means > 75% cellularity, abnormal increase of a tissue or organ caused by formation of normal new cells. Indicates greater then 75% cellularity in the bone marrow

Back 437

hyperplastic

Front 438

_________ means < 25% cellularityaplastic- Having no tendency to develop into new tissue, no bone marrow development, incomplete or underdevlopment of a organ or tissue. Indicates less then 25% in the bone marrow

Back 438

hypoplastic

Front 439

What are the two sites of choice for collection in both the dog and cat?

Back 439

iliac crest and trochanteric fossa

Front 440

Generally we think of _______ _________ as being characterized with 70% or greater neutrophils.

Back 440

acute inflammation

Front 441

Causes of __________ include ruptured pyometra, peritonitis and penetrating bite wound into the abdomen or thoracic cavities.

Back 441

exudates

Front 442

Causes of _________ include congestive heart failure, protein losing nephropathy and hepatic insufficiency.

Back 442

transudates

Front 443

The preferred site for obtaining a CSF tap in a dog is the

Back 443

Cerebellomedullary cistern

Front 444

How long should animals be observed following a spinal tap for signs of infection?

Back 444

5-7 days

Front 445

he most common tumors in the cat are associated with which system?

Back 445

hemolymphatic system

Front 446

Malignant tumors involving epithelial cells are called __________

Back 446

Carcinomas

Front 447

malignant tumors that involve connective tumors are known as

Back 447

SARCOMAS

Front 448

What are the three primary pancreatic enzymes?

Back 448

Trypsin, Amylase, and Lipase

Front 449

What are the most commonly assayed plasma proteins?

Back 449

Total protein, albumin, globulins, and fibrinogen.

Front 450

What is hyperadrenocorticism treated with?

Back 450

Lysodren

Front 451

TSH comes from where?

Back 451

Pituitary gland

Front 452

The normal blood sugar of a dog is

Back 452

80-120 mg/dl

Front 453

__________ are catalase- positive cocci that occur in grapelike clusters.

Back 453

Staphylococcus spp

Front 454

__________ are catalase-negative cocci that occur singly, in pairs, or in short chains.

Back 454

Streptococcus spp.

Front 455

How long should you let your culture media incubate before a final “no growth” report is issued? ( for most bacterial species)

Back 455

72 hours

Front 456

Which systemic mycoses is most frequently associated with pigeon droppings?

Back 456

Cryptococcus neoformans

Front 457

The study of diseased cells is called

Back 457

cytolopathology

Front 458

______________________ is an example of a modified transudate which shares some of the characteristics of both transudates and exudates.

Back 458

F I P (Feline Infectious Peritonitis)

Front 459

What two internal organs can be aspirated for evaluation

Back 459

Liver and Kidneys

Front 460

_____________ increase in the size of the organ caused by an increase size in cells

Back 460

Hypertrophy

Front 461

___________ increase of the number of cells in a body part

Back 461

hyperplasia

Front 462

Chronic inflammatory are characterized by greater than _____ macrophages

Back 462

50%

Front 463

Purulent or suppurative inflammatory response are characterized by greater than _____ neutrophils

Back 463

85%

Front 464

_______ and ______ are examples of chemotherapeutic drugs that are used in veterinary medicine to treat cancer.

Back 464

Cyclophosphamide

Chorambucil

Front 465

Myelosuppressive drugs should not be used if the WBC count drops below _______ cells/mm3.

Back 465

4,000

Front 466

Toxicities to chemotherapy are seen most commonly in rapidly dividing tissues, such as ______, ________, and _________ .

Back 466

bone marrow

hair follicles

and intestines

Front 467

Malignant tumors involving epithelial cells are called ________________

Back 467

CARCINOMAS

Front 468

Whereas malignant tumors that involve connective tumors are known as

Back 468

SARCOMAS

Front 469

Examples of connective tissue include __________, ___________, and ___________.

Back 469

BONE

CARTILAGE

BLOOD

Front 470

T or F: During Anestrus a cytology will show predominately noncornified squamous epithelial cells, and some neutrophils. No erythrocytes will be seen.

Back 470

TRUE

Front 471

T or F: During Proestrus a cytology will show cornified squamous epithelial cells. Not many neutrophils will be seen, as they are replaced with erythrocytes.

Back 471

TRUE

Front 472

T or F: During Estrus a cytology will reveal cornified epithelial cells and erythrocytes. No neutrophils will be present.

Back 472

TRUE

Front 473

Give two examples of dermatophytes.

Back 473

Microsporum and Trichophyton

Front 474

Which agar is the most commonly used medium for fungal cultures?

Back 474

Sabourand dextrose agar

Front 475

DTM cultures should be observed for growth and color for how long before reporting a “negative” result.

Back 475

aprox. 15 days.