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160 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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How is a medicated bath performed differently from a cleansing bath? |
leave the shampoo on for at least 15 minutes |
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Important characteristics of patient bedding include all of the following EXCEPT.
-disposable &easy to clean -consists of nontoxic material -comfortable for patient -contains flea repellant |
contains flea repellant |
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In dogs the toe nail is a weight bearing surface. |
True |
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How can a technician improve a canine patient's muscle tone and strength while reducing their peripheral edema? -take them for a leash walk -give them a massage -give a warm water bath -keep clean & comfortable |
-take them for a leash walk |
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Grooming instruments should be cleaned and disinfected after every use |
TRUE |
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Choose the best definition for chemical cautery? -corroding or burning of live tissue by use of a chemical agent -to stop the bleeding of live tissue by use of a chemical agent -when the quick of a toe nail stops bleeding after using a chemical -applying a chemical to a blood vessel to stop it from bleeding - |
corroding or burning of live tissue by use of a chemical agent |
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Geriatric patients often present with degeneration changes that can increase/decrease their aggression. |
increase |
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In dogs, moderate exercise consists of -playing in an enclosed yard -walking quickly on a treadmill -moving around in the cage or run -leash walks |
leash walks |
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Force feeding works well in most anorexic patients. |
FALSE |
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How do anal sacs differ from anal glands? -There is no difference -Anal sacs are lined with anal glands -Anal glands are lined with anal sacs -They are adjacent structures. |
Anal sacs are lined with anal glands |
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Which of the following ear cleaning solutions are safe to use in an ear with a ruptured ear drum? -chlorohexidine -dioctyl sodium succinate (Cerusol) -saline -hydrogen peroxide |
-saline |
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Neonates CANNOT |
thermoregulate and eliminate on their own |
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Generally, it is best to keep patients quiet (cage rest) instead of exercising them each day |
FALSE |
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What is a common complication from force feeding patients a slurry with a syringe -aspirating food into their lungs -getting food on your scrubs -the patient vomiting the food -worsening the anorexia |
aspirating food into their lungs |
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Choose the best definition for tympanic membrane. -The membrane that grows over decubital sores. -The membrane separating the external from the internal ear canal -The membrane lining the anal sacs. -The membrane surrounding the nail quick.
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-The membrane separating the external from the internal ear canal |
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Where can you obtain a pulse rate? -femoral vein -femoral artery -dorsal pedal vein -sublingual vein |
femoral artery |
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Why is it necessary to obtain a HR and a PR? -It is not necessary they measure the same parameter. -It is important to measure both as they give unique information. -OSHA requires both measures in patients. -It is not necessary to measure both as one circulatory measure is sufficient. |
It is important to measure both as they give unique information. |
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You have counted 8 inspirations and 8 expirations in a 15 minute duration. What is the respiratory rate of this animal? |
32 bpm |
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Pulse deficits are determined by |
comparing HR and PR |
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Choose the best example of open-ended questions -How much water do you think your dog is drinking each day? -Is your dog drinking more water than he normally does? -Does your dog eat dry dog food formulated for adult dogs? -Did your cat vomit last month too? |
How much water do you think your dog is drinking each day? |
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In the interest of obtaining accurate information from the client, the technician may need to use ALL of the following techniques EXCEPT -asking a question more than once -repeating responses back to clients to check for understanding -using non-medical language clients understand -record the information accurately
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record information accuratly |
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Choose the best definition of mentation. -The mental activity and acuity of the patient. -The facial expression of the patient. -When you have a mental advantage over the patient -The characteristization of the patient's ability to chew |
The mental activity and acuity of the patient |
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Mentation and gait assessment is considered part of the nervous system assessment |
TRUE |
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What equipment is used to assess the vertical ear canal of patients |
an otoscope |
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The body temperature can be evaluated at all of the following locations EXCEPT -rectally -orally -aurally -axillary region |
orally |
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You have counted a PR of 16 in a 15 second duration. What is the HR? |
The HR cannot be determined |
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The Preventative Medicine section of the history includes the patients vaccines, microchip number and parasite prevention's. |
FALSE, no microchip |
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To increase the chance for obtaining truthful information from the client you should |
create a rapport with the client and remain non-judgmental |
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When placing the ear pieces of a stethoscope in your ears, the ear pieces should point towards your nose. |
TRUE |
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Choose all of the measures below that do NOT assess tissue perfusion -PR and strength -mm color -CRT -T -mentation |
mentation |
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Respiratory sounds typically heard when a patient has fluid in their lungs. -crackles -wheezes -squeaks -pops |
crackles |
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Choose the best definition for tissue perfusion. -oxygenated blood flowing to tissues through capillary beds -unoxygenated blood flowing away from tissues through capillary beds -capillary refill time -a strong pulse character
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oxygenated blood flowing to tissues through capillary beds |
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A patient's signalment includes all of the following EXCEPT -species -breed -sex -reproductive status |
species |
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Choose all items included in the General Management section of the patient's history. -where and when the animal was obtained -the environment where the animal spends its time -daily activities of the animal -the animal's diet and any changes -the animal's regular behavior patterns |
-where and when the animal was obtained -the environment where the animal spends its time -daily activities of the animal -the animal's diet and any changes -the animal's regular behavior patterns |
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How can you safely examine the sublingual region in most patients' mouths? |
Press upward between the two rami of the mandible to assess the sublingual region. |
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The bell piece of the stethoscope is designed for what type of sound? |
low frequency, as heard during some cardiac sounds |
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The skin inside the ear can be used to assess CRT. |
FALSE |
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What prevents mucus membrane moisture from being a reliable indication of patient hydration status? |
Panting drys mucus membranes masking good hydration status. |
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Kidneys are fixed in the cat and move freely in the dog. |
FALSE |
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Choose the best definition of petechial. -loss of pigment to an area of skin -an area of skin that becomes darkly pigmented due to chronic irritation -purple skin lesion caused by a hemostatic defect -a break through all the layers of skin |
purple skin lesion caused by a hemostatic defect |
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When auscultating the heart a technician should assess all of the following. Choose all that apply. -sounds -rhythm -rate -color -character |
-sounds -rhythm -rate- |
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Choose the main focuses of the musculoskeletal part of the PE. Choose all that apply. -assessing for lameness -assessing for symmetry of limbs -assessing for neoplasa -assessing for color of integument |
assessing for lameness
assessing for symmetry of limbs |
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The mandibular lymph nodes can be confused with |
salivary glands |
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Yellow fat disease or pansteatitis is caused by |
vitamin E deficiency |
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Simple sugars and complex sugars are broken down to provide energy, which are stored in the form of |
ATP |
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The most common nutritional disorder seen in small animal medicine |
obesity |
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Metabolism of excess amino acids |
increases liver and kidney workload |
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The breakdown of circulating and structural protein into glucose is called |
Gluconeogenesis |
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What is the most salient characteristic of premium grocery pet food brands? |
palatability |
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How long is the shelf life for canned diets kept in normal temperatures? |
12-18 months |
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Match the following descriptions of terms used on food labels to describe ingredients with the percentages of the ingredient found in the food. -identifying one ingredient including a modifier (e.g. chicken dinner) |
10% for moist and 25% for dry foods |
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Match the following descriptions of terms used on food labels to describe ingredients with the percentages of the ingredient found in the food -identifying only one ingredient (e.g. chicken) |
at least 70% |
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Match the following descriptions of terms used on food labels to describe ingredients with the percentages of the ingredient found in the food -identifying one ingredient using the word flavor (e.g. chicken flavor) |
ingredient must be detectable by animal |
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Match the following descriptions of terms used on food labels to describe ingredients with the percentages of the ingredient found in the food -identifying one ingredient using the word with (e.g. with chicken) |
3% |
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The guaranteed analyses listed on pet food labels lists percentages of the following nutrients. Choose all items that apply. -moisture -crude protein -fat -fiber -sugars -carbohydrates -minerals -vitamins - |
moisture crude protein fat fiber |
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Which of the following organizations establishes standards for pet food labels in the United States |
Association of American Feed Control Officials AAFCO |
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Signs of protein deficiency include |
immunodeficiency |
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A central component of hemoglobin and myoglobin molecule, which carry oxygen in the blood and muscle, is the macromineral |
Iron |
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Homemade pet diets can be balance by adding human vitamin supplements. |
FALSE |
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Dry food can be mixed with water and left for many hours without causing bacterial proliferation |
FALSE |
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A calcium deficiency can result in |
secondary hyperparathyroidism |
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A physiologic process wherein electrolyte shifts occur from extracellular to intracellular compartments as amino acids are reintroduced in called |
refeeding syndrome |
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There are three known fatty acids: linoleic, alpha-linoleic and |
Arachidonic |
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What determines the order of ingredients listed on pet food labels? |
weight |
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Percentages listed in the guaranteed analyses on food labels state _________________________________________ of nutrients |
the maximum and minimum levels |
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Commercial pet treats are formulated with balance nutrients similar to pet foods |
FALSE |
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Using the body condition scoring system from Bassett and McCurnin (2010), what does 4/5 represent? |
overweight |
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What is the unit of measure used for energy in foods (nutrients)? |
kilocalories |
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In respect to their eating habits dogs are considered to be _____, while cats are considered______? |
Dogs-omnivores Cats-carnivores |
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Queens typically _______________________ their food intake during the initial stages of lactation. |
decrease |
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Typically, 3 week old puppies can be offered a gruel of dry puppy food mixed with water. In which of the following situations would you wait to offer the gruel. Choose all that apply. -weak puppies -toy breed puppies -brachycephalic puppies -orphaned puppies |
-weak puppies -toy breed puppies |
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Feeding techniques used when animals are young affect their chances for obesity later in life |
TRUE |
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Large breed dogs need more calorie rich food during their growth phases than do toy breed dogs. |
FALSE |
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Significant protein reduction is recommended for geriatric cats |
TRUE |
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Adult cats and dogs are typically lactose intolerant and drinking large amounts of milk will cause them to have diarrhea. |
TRUE |
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Peak lactation occurs when the puppies are |
4 weeks old |
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Large meals should be avoided before exercise, particularly in large breed dogs, to minimize the chance of causing |
gastric dilatation |
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What are typical feeding recommendations for lactating bitches? |
change the diet to a canine growth and lactation formula |
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Osteochondritis, hip dysplasia, panosteitis and wobbler's syndrome are all caused by the same nutritional problem. Choose the problem most likely to cause these disorders. |
overfeeding while growing |
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An orphaned puppy weighing 2 lbs needs to be fed. Initially, he should be fed how much replacement formula? |
10 ml q 4-6 hours |
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To reduce patient sneezing when administering vaccines IN -feed the animal as you administer the vaccine -keep the patient's head only slightly tilted upward -insert the applicator deeply into the nasal cavity -administer the vaccine along the plane of the nose |
administer the vaccine along the plane of the nose |
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To use the safest method of disposal of a needle and syringe after administering an injection what should you do? |
place the uncapped needle and syringe into a sharps box |
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Choose the best definition of isotonic fluids listed below -a fluid having the same salt concentration as blood -a fluid that must be administered IV -a fluid that must be administered SQ -a fluid having a greater salt concentration than blood -a fluid having a lesser salt concentration than blood |
a fluid having the same salt concentration as blood |
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IM injections are NOT given in what muscle group? |
neck |
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The reason for aspirating after placing the needle in the patient and before injecting a medication is to check for proper needle placement |
TRUE |
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Gentomicin is inactivated by |
purulent exudate |
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Diazepam absorbs rapidly when administered by the IN route |
TRUE |
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Applied with moist towel or submersion; treatment for localized acute eruptions of the skin |
soaks |
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precipitate proteins onto acutely damaged skin forming a seal; treatment for localized acute moist dermatitis |
astringents |
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aids in the removal of dirt, debris and scale; treats specific skin conditions through application, absorption and throughout rinsing |
baths |
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mixed with water, applied on the skin then left to air dry; treatment for dermatophytosis and mange |
dips and rinses |
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softens, lubricates and protects skin while removing scales and crusts; treatment for small, localized, dry skin lesions |
creams and ointments |
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used as drying agents. vehicles for parasiticides and to reduce friction and irritation; treatment for moist skin lesions, external parasites and to prevent skin lesions when applying bandage |
powders |
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Why is the oral route of medicating popular? Choose all that apply -inexpensive -easy to administer -patients enjoy it -reduced chance of causing an infection |
-inexpensive -reduced chance of infection |
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Liquid oral medication is administered to dogs by placing the syringe |
in the pouch formed by their cheek |
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Injecting a medication in or near a nerve fiber could cause |
paralysis |
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Choose the main reasons why a medication is administered IV |
The animal needs the medication delivered rapidly.
The medication is irritating. |
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T or F--When administering aural or ophthalmic medications restraint of the paws may be necessary to keep the patient from injuring themselves and the person administering the medication |
True |
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Choose the following otic medications that cause ototoxicity when the tympanic membrane is ruptured. |
gentamicin neomycin |
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What PPE should be worn while administering a transdermal medication |
gloves |
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How is the patient's head restrained when administering liquid and a tablet/capsule orally? |
when administering liquid the patient's head is held just above level; when administering a tablet/capsule the patient's head is tilted up (nose to ceiling) |
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Diazepam is absorbed faster when administered rectally than when it is administered intranasally |
FALSE |
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When giving an IM injection in the rear leg, what must you avoid with the needle |
the sciatic |
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Injecting a medication in or near a nerve fiber could cause |
paralysis |
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When injecting multiple medications SQ in the same patient |
inject the medications at least a few centimeters apart |
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Choose the best definition of transdermal medications. |
A medication applied topically that is intended to cause systemic effects. |
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Topical medications are absorbed readily through skin: your skin, the client's skin and the patient's skin |
TRUE |
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Why should you rest your hand on a patient's head when administering ophthalmic medications? |
to keep your administration hand in synchronization with the patient's eye |
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Complications when administering medications orally include.. |
aspiration |
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Tablets/capsules administered orally without lubricant are likely to stay in the esophagus for up to 10 minutes |
TRUE |
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ID injections typically use what size needle? |
25-27 ga |
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Generally, the dorsal neck and back are avoided as SQ injection sites becaus |
abscesses and masses are difficult to treat in this region |
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The reason for aspirating after placing the needle in the patient and before injecting a medication is to check for proper needle placement |
TRUE |
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When administering aural or ophthalmic medications restraint of the paws may be necessary to keep the patient from injuring themselves and the person administering the medication. |
TRUE |
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Liquid oral medication is administered to dogs by placing the syringe |
in the pouch formed by their cheek |
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How is the patient's head restrained when administering liquid and a tablet/capsule orally? |
when administering liquid the patient's head is held just above level; when administering a tablet/capsule the patient's head is tilted up (nose to ceiling) |
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Choose affective methods to avoid esophageal burns when administering oral tablets/capsules |
place butter or other palatable substance on the patient's nose after administering the tablet/capsule follow the tablet/capsule with 6 cc of water administered orally |
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Contraindications for oral medications include... |
vomiting and severe respiratory distress |
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Federal law, through OSHA, requires employers to create a safe workplace by |
implementing a safety plan. |
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Employees fired for violating safety rules at work are unable to obtain unemployment compensation. |
TRUE |
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The Right to Know OSHA law requires employees to |
wear PPE required on the MSDS |
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To prevent rabies exposure technicians should |
obtain the preexposure vaccine and wear PPE |
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Choose the bacterial disease transmitted by ticks |
Lyme's disease |
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Choose the fatal viral disease transmitted through saliva. |
rabies |
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Wearing personal hearing protection is required when working in an indoor dog kennel. |
TRUE |
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The required PPE for a person using an ultrasonic scaler on an animal's teeth include all of the following EXCEPt goggles. gown. gloves. surgical mask |
gown |
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Steam is hot but it does NOT cause burn injuries |
FALSE |
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How should sharps at the veterinary hospital be safely disposed |
They need to be placed in a sharps container and picked up by a medical waste compan |
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Employees have the right to point out safety issues at their workplace without fear of being fired or reprimanded. |
TRUE |
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OSHA can fine employees for violates if workplace safety |
FALSE |
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Employees are responsible for ALL of the items below EXCEPT Read the OSHA poster. Report hazardous conditions to your supervisor. Create a personal safety plan. Report job-related injuries or illnesses to the proper person |
Create a personal safety plan. |
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What effects can Toxoplasmosis have on humans? |
Toxoplasmosis causes hydrocephalus in human fetuses |
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Ringworm is transmitted by |
fungal spores: through direct contact and contact with clothing or objects |
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Toxoplasmosis is transmitted through |
sporulated oocysts, which take 2-4 days to develop after they are passed in the feces of a cat. |
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Choose the best way to protect your skin when working with common veterinary chemicals -wash your hands immediately after handling the chemical --wear PPE to prevent the chemical from having direct contact with your skin -skin does not need protection from chemicals -flush your skin with water after handling the chemical |
wear PPE to prevent the chemical from having direct contact with your skin |
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A technician can bring contagious diseases home to their own animals on their clothing and shoes |
TRUE |
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What happens when a compressed gas tank falls and the regulator breaks off?
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The tank becomes a powerful rocket |
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Being exposed long-term to low levels of radiation |
is linked to medical disorders |
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Having chronic exposure to waste anesthetic gas can cause spontaneous abortions and liver and kidney damage. These complications can be avoided by -using a scavenger system. -repairing any leaking hoses or connections. -use the safer anesthetics: isoflurane or sevoflurane. --all of the listed answers are correct. reduce the use of masking or box induction. |
all listed |
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How should sharps at the veterinary hospital be safely disposed |
They need to be placed in a sharps container and picked up by a medical waste company |
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Chemicals used to bath and dip animals are safe and do NOT require PPE to be worn. |
FALSE |
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Chemotherapy drugs can be absorbed directly through the skin and inhaled; they can be absorbed through direct contact with secretions from animals: urine, feces and other body excretions |
TRUE |
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Chemicals should be stored |
at or below eye level. |
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When lifting an object or animal, lift by using your |
legs not your back |
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Which of the following ear cleaning solutions are safe to use in an ear with a ruptured ear drum? |
saline |
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Choose all items included in the General Management section of the patient's history --where and when the animal was obtained --the environment where the animal spends its time --daily activities of the animal --the animal's diet and any changes --the animal's regular behavior patterns |
--where and when the animal was obtained --the environment where the animal spends its time --daily activities of the animal --the animal's diet and any changes |
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When performing an abdominal palpation in a cat, which technique is preferred? |
a one handed technique |
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Choose all items below that explain the importance of a patient's signalment --increases knowledge about the patient's behavior --reduces diagnosis choices --guides history --allows reproductive counseling |
--reduces diagnosis choices --guides history |
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Lymph nodes in patients under 6 months of age are normally smaller than those palpated in adults |
FALSE |
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When auscultating the heart a technician should assess all of the following. Choose all that apply --sounds --rhythm --rate --color --character |
--sounds --rhythm --rate |
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Choose all lymph nodes that can be palpated in the normal patient. --axillary --mandibular --inguinal --prescapular --popliteal |
mandibular prescapular popliteal |
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Testicles should descend into the scrotum, in most cats and dogs, by what age? |
8 weeks |
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Choose the best definition of pruritic. |
itchy |
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An orphaned puppy of 2 weeks needs to be fed. What type of food should you use? |
bitch's milk replacement |
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Generally a patinet absorbs a more accurate dosage of medication when the medication is liquid than when it is a tablet or capsule |
FALSE |
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Occular discharge________and_______should be described. |
symmetry; character; |
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Choose the best description for rectally medicating a patient- |
Wear glooves, lubricate the tablet/capsule syringe, place medication 5cm into rectum |
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To prevent Rabies exposure technicians should- |
Obtain the pre-exposure vaccine and wear PPE. |
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Choose the best description for rectally medicating a patient- |
Wear gloves and lubricate |
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Place the directions in the correct order for completing an IV injection of medication- |
1) restrain patient |
