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279 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

What is an unbiased description of the illness of the patient?


In dogs, the pulse rate is most commonly evaluated over which artery?

The femoral artery

What breed has a general ectomorph appearance that is considered normal for the breed?


The nictitating membrane is a term for what?

The third eyelid

Uveitis is an inflammation of what?

The iris and ciliary body

When considering conditions of the eye, what is a proptosis?

A protrusion of the eye from the socket

What is the structure of the eye that will reflect light?

The tapetum

Difficult breathing due to stenotic (constricted) nares is most commonly seen in _______ dogs.


What is the technical term for bleeding form the nose?


What is the term for inflammation of the tongue?


What is the term for inflammation of the structures surrounding the tooth?


Relating to the oral and nasal areas, a fistula would describe what?

A permanent opening connecting the two cavities

A term that would describe a benign growth in the mouth is what?


An important caution in the use of plastic ear speculums to examine the ear is that they can do what?

Transport infectious agents such bacteria and mites

What term is used to describe a discharge containing white blood cells and protein?


Of the structure of the eye that will be noted when the fundus of the eye is examined is the:

optic disc

Inflammation of the structures surrounding the tooth


Malpositioned eyelash


Discharge containing white blood cells and protein


inflammation of the lips


inflammation of the nose


The popliteal lymph node is located:

behind the knee

The bacteria that is likely to cause kennel cough in dogs is:

Bordatella bronchiseptica

Relating to auscultation of the lungs, a louder than normal respiratory sound is described as a:


The range of the normal heart rate of the dog when at rest is:

80 - 120 BPM

Relating to the examination of heart murmurs, the term "grade" refers to:


The definition of atelectasis is:

a collapsed lung

The heart rates of small breed dogs are generally __________ than those of large breed dogs.


Atopic dermatitis is a condition realted to:

allergies to a variety of antigens

In the cat, periauricular alopecia is usually:

a normal finding

In the normal cat, the kidneys are readily palpated and should be approximately:

2.5 to 3.5 cm in length

The urinary bladder can usually be palpated in the _______ abdomen?


In a pregnant dog or cat, milk can be expressed from the mammary glands during the last ________________ of gestation.

1 to 2 weeks

The parameters that are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination are:

cranial nerves and mental status

Placement of limbs in relation to gravity requires integration by the nerves in the spinal cord and is called:


If the patellar tendon is tapped and no contraction of the quadriceps muscle occurs, a lesion is most likely present in the:

spinal cord

an area toward the nose


area of hair loss


fluid in the abdominal cavity


grating on movement of a joint


infestation with mites


The anesthetic that should be used with caution in greyhounds due to the possibility of a prolonged effect is:


The decade that gas anesthesia become widely used in veterinary medicine in the US was the:


The part of the central nervous system that contains the vital centers for cardiac and respiratory function is the:


The anesthesia technique that is recommended for a procedure that is anticipated to take longer than 10 minutes is:


The type of surgical procedure that is likely to require Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation (IPPV) is:

intrathoracic or open chest

Of the considerations listed below, which is most important to consider in the process of choosing an anesthetic technique for a particular patient.

pre-anesthetic physical exam

The agent involved in anesthesia that is often avoided in pediatric and geriatric patients because of prolonged duration of action is:


The breeds of dogs that may have trouble breathing during a general anesthesia because of anatomical obstruction of airways and collection of salivary secretions are:


The normal cardiac rhythm for the dog is termed:

sinus arrhythmia

Bleeding times longer than normal would be an indication of a bleeding disorder. The normal buccal mucosal bleeding time in the dog is:

2 to 4 minutes

The type of fluid that would likely be chosen for IV administration for most routine anesthetic procedures is:

Lactated Ringers

When an anesthetized patient is positioned on a surgical table with the head lower than the tail section of the body, a veterinary technician should be monitoring the patient carefully for


Acepromaziine introduced


Isoflurane becomes available


Gas anesthesia widely used


Hollow needle developed


Thiobarbituates introduced


Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)


Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)


gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)


Alanine Amino Transferase (ALT)




The use of an anticholinergic, like atropine or glycopyrrolate, is likely to cause:


The effect anticolinergic drugs have on vagal tone or the parasympathetic nervous system is to:

decrease activity and increase heart rate

Atropine will provide analgesia as well as reducing salivary secretions.


The use of atropine or glycopyrrolate will affect anesthesia time by:

having no effect on the anesthesia time

The expected effect of Acepromazine relating to epinephrine induced cardiac arrhythmias is to:

decrease chances of arrhythmia

The expected effect of Acepromazine on the chemoreceptor trigger zone is to:

supress the vomiting center

Which of the following drugs is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist?


The generic name of Valium is:


The major organ of metabolism of Valium is the:


The effect that xylazine will have on the skeletal muscles is:

muscle relaxation

If bradycardia was found to exist in an equine patiient, the veterinarian is most likely to ask for which of the follwoing medications:


Of the medications listed below, which is NOT an used as a reversal drug for alpha 2 agonist agents?


Of the agents listed below that are utilized in anesthetic techniques, which is an NMDA antagonist?


The pre-anesthetic medication that is noted to have aniconvulsant activity is:


The most significant side effect of administering an opioid to a patient as a pre-anesthetic is:

respiratory depression

The agent that is used in anesthetic techniques that is most likely to cause excessive salivation is:


Considering the use of alpha 2 agonists in large animals and the dosage required for effect, ruminants are __________________ sensitive to the effects, as compared to the horse.

much more

The pre-anesthetic medication that is most likely to produce a hyperresponsiveness to sound is:


Of the following combinations of medications, which is NOT a neuroleptanalgesic:


The pre-anesthetic medication that is most noted for the possibility of impaired thermoregulation leading to body heat loss is:


When in a concentration of 1% (10 mg/ml) the medication that has a maximum dose of 0.3 ml is:


When monitoring anesthesia, vital signs are generally assessed and and recorded every:

5 minutes

The most important parameters to monitor during anesthesia are heart rate and rate and depth of respiration.


When considering the the flag rate (the rate at which we consider that the condition is occurring) for bradycardia in the dog, the heart rate in beats per minute should be less than:


The instrument that monitors arterial pulses through vessels and produces an audible sound is the:


The CO2 level in the blood may be elevated in cases of hypoventilation and the instrument that is used to measure the CO2 level in the blood is the a:


A cause of inaccurate pulse-oximetry readings is:

All of the above;

poor probe positioning or patient movementhypothermia or hypotensiontachycardia not detected by the pulse oximeter

A level of anesthesia that is considered a deep plane of anesthesia and only desirable for very manipulative surgical procedures is:

Stage III, plane III

The type of monitor that connects between the endotracheal tube and the anesthesia hoses is the:

respiratory (JorVet)

Anesthetic drug metabolism and elimination will depend on:

All of the above;

liver function

body temperature

kidney function

The IV fluid rate for shock in the dog is:

90 ml/kg/hr

The anesthetic record is used to:

All of the above;

help recognize gradual changes over a period of time

help plan subsequent anesthetic procedures

record heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure

The esophageal stethoscope is used to monitor:

sound of the heartbeat

The electrocardiogram provides information about:

the electrical activity of the heart

When monitoring anesthesia, respiratory depression is detected. The expected acid base imbalance is:

respiratory acidosis

A method of measuring the blood pressure during anesthesia by the indirect method is by using a:

Ultrasonic Doppler

An INCORRECT priciple used in monitoring anesthesia in veterinary patients is:

judgement of anesthetic depth is made by dial settings for flowmeter and vaporizer

Apnea following the induction of anesthesia is:

commonly seen

An apnea monitor may be used to monitor respiration during anesthesia. The the type of changes the sensing portion of the monitor will detect in the expired gas will be changes in:


A potent, natural stimulant of the respiratory center is:

carbon dioxide

The tidal volume will usually be decreased in an animal under general anesthesia by:


When monitoring an anasthetic pateint on gas anesthesia that is in stage 3 plane 2, you would expect the mucus membrane color to appear:

bright pink

Considering the stages of anesthesia, the globe of the eye is rotated medially and the third eyelid prolapsed in:

Stage III, Please 1

The recommended route(s) of administration for Propofol is/are:


The anesthetic agent that will support bacterial growth in the solution and requires very careful handling is:


The drug that is active as the central nervous system depressant in Beuthanasia D euthanasia solution is:

pentobarbital, a short acting barbiturate

The anesthetic that is known as a dissociative anesthetic agent is:


When Acepromazine is administered as a tranquilizer prior to the administration of Propofol, the per cent of dose reduction for Propofol is:


Propofol is unlike any other injectable anesthetic and is a:

phenolic compound

The agent that is not a local anesthetic is:


Animals recieving local anesthetics epidurally (lidocaine or bupivicaine) should always be placed in a head-down position


The anesthetic agent that is an NMDA ( N-methyl-D-aspartate ) antagonist is:


The anesthetic agent that contains an egg protein and may cause an allergic reaction when administered to some patients is:


If local anesthetics are mistakenly administered IV, the effect(s) may be seen is/are:


This local anesthetic agent is often used in dentistry and for nerve blocks as this agent will provide local anesthesia for up to 6 hours.


A clinical advantage of using this anesthetic induction agent is that it is associated with very rapid liver metabolism that often results results in a smooth, rapid recovery


The anesthetic agent which is associated with the swallowing and ocular reflexes remaining intact and increasing muscle tone is:


Guaifenesin is a(n):

muscle relaxant

The important anatomical area for performing the technique of epidural anesthesia is the:

cauda equina

Propofol is noted to provide very significant analgesia.


The tranquilizer that is in Telazol that has anticonvulsant and muscle relaxing effect is:


Based on the properties of the agent, the inhalation anesthetic that is the best suited and considered ideal for mask induction is:


The inhalation anesthetic agent with the lowest MAC (minimum alveolar concentration ) is:


The anesthetic agents with the highest vapor pressure is:


When inhalation anesthetic agents are compared, the onehaving the lowest solubility rating will be the one that:

will allow for the fastest induction of anesthesia

The inhalation anesthetic agent that is noted to be highlyflammable and explosive is:


Factors that will decrease the MAC (minimal alveolarconcentration)include:

(All, severe hypotension, hypothermia, aging)

The anesthetic agent that is noted for the slower inductionand recovery is:


A property that is NOT desirable for inhalation anestheticagents is:

requires high concentrations in the alveoli to produce anesthesia

The percentage of isoflurane that is metabolized by theliver is:

0.25% or minimal metabolism

The recommended maintenance setting (what %) for isofluranefor a surgical plane of anesthesia is:

2 - 3%

The anesthetic agent that is most potent is:


The anesthetic agent that is the least soluble is:


A true statement concerning mask induction of anesthesia is:

*all are correct*

best reserved for high risk patients that are adequatelysedated

can greatly increase waste gas in the work environment

an anesthetic with low solubility is advised

Higher concentrations of Sevoflurane can result in rapidchanges in anesthetic depth leading to hypo-tension and respiratory depression.


The inhalation anesthetic agent that has been associatedwith the production of metabolites that are toxic to the renal system is:


The inhalation anesthetic agent that is NOT commonly used ina precision vaporizer is:


The anesthetic agent that has been associated with somerespiratory depression is:

*all of the above*





An anesthetic gas that is a very weak anesthetic drug thatcannot produce anesthesia by itself is:

nitrous oxide

The inhalation anesthetic agent that has the most tendencyto sensitize the heart to the production of epinephrine induced arrhythmias is:


When inducing anesthesia by mask induction using isoflurane,what is the maximum per centage of isoflurane that is recommended by the Angelnotes?


In patients that are anesthetized with Sevoflurane, there isprofound muscle relaxation seen at lighter planes of anesthesia.


As a general rule, it is recommended that all anesthetizedanimals be intubated in order to maintain the airway.


The chemical substance that is produced by the body that contributes to the intense pain associated with inflammation is:



proteolytic enzymes

*all are correct*

One of the most important pain free regions of the body is the:


One common physiologic response to pain is:

increased heart rate and blood pressure

The physiologic system that is responsible for the localization of pain to a particular area of the body is the:

central nervous system (CNS)

Kappa and mu are:

types of opioid receptors in the central nervous system

In small animals, loud, persistent vocalizing after an operation is generally considered:

a sign of significant pain and/or anxiety that needs treating.

The analgesic effect of opioids is due to their:

interaction with specific opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord

When used as the sole analgesic agent in normal dose ranges, morphine can cause excitement in:


Antipyretic is a technical term that means:

relieves fever

The use of alpha 2-adrenergic agonists can be associated withsignificant:

high blood pressure

The tissue that contains a high density ofnociceptors is:

skin periosteum

arterial walls


**all of the above**

The area of the brainthat is important in the perception and conscious discriminatory aspects ofpain is the:


The tissue having thefewest density of pain receptors is:


Behavioral signs of discomfort tend to bespecies specific and vary also between breeds and individuals.


The aspect of nursing care that will best soothe and relieve anxiety andpain in many animal patients is:

gently talking to and stroking the animal

Narcotic pain relieving drugs may also be called:


The side effect that would NOT be expected following the use of a narcotic as a pain reliever is:

tachycardia style

A transdermal fentanyl patch will deliver painrelieving levels of fentanyl for:

72 hrs

Relating to the use of NSAIDS, the currentthought is that drugs with a higher level of _______ inhibition result ingreater gastrointestinal injury.


As an anlgesic drug for horses, flunixinmeglumine (Banamine) would be classified as an/a:


An area of the body that has a highconcentration of pain fibers is:

An Artery Wall

The color code used for tanks of nitrous oxide anesthetic gas is:


The safety measure that will prevent the mismatching of anesthetic gasses on the anesthetic machine is:

color coding system pin index safety system

The compressed gas pressure for a full tank of oxygen is:

2000 PSI

Of the anesthetic breathing systems listed below, the system that is recommended for a patient weighing less than 15 pounds is the:

Ayres T Piece

The recommended maximum use life of an f/air waste anesthetic gas canister is:

12 hours

Useful parameters to evaluate freshness of the soda lime crystals of the CO2 absorber canister include:

lack of heat production during

use color indicator during

use hard or brittle granules

**all are useful indicators**

A useful guide of the correct size for a rebreathing bag for a patient weighing 18 to 30 pounds is:

2 liters

A device that will detect pressure within the breathing circuit is the:


Regular calibration is recommended for the Isotec vaporizer used for isoflurane.


According to our Angel notes, the non-rebreathing system is recommended for a patient weighing less than ___________ lbs.


The oxygen cylinder that is of the size that attaches to the anesthetic machine is the ______ type.


When oxygen gas is delivered to the breathing circuit using the oxygen flush valve, the gas will pass through the vaporizer prior to reaching the breathing circuit.


When oxygen gas passes thorough the pressure regulator or pressure reducing valve, the pressure of the gas will be _____ PSI.


Precision vaporizers are generally considered to be in-the-circuit vaporizers.


The soda lime in the CO2 absorber of the anesthesia machines should be changed at approximately every ____ hours of use.


The anesthetic piece of equipment (as shown) that is a modified circle with the inspiratory hose inside the expiratory hose is the:

Universal F Circuit

When monitoring anesthesia, if you notice the soda lime granules are expired in the middle of an active case,you should:

increase the O2 flows to 3-5 L/min and wait until the case is completed

The scavenger system for waste anesthetic gas removal is generally attached in the area of the:

pop-off valve

Precision type vaporizers should only be filled when the vaporizer is in the off position.


For anesthesia of dogs weighing 25 to 35 pounds, the most commonly used breathing system is the:


The oxygen flow rate formula for the Bain non-rebreathing anesthetic system is:

100-300 ml/kg/min

Concerning cuffed endotracheal tubes, the most accurate statement is:

Both over-inflation and under-inflation of the cuff can lead to significant problems so it should be inflated just enough to form an effective seal with the trachea.

A special concern for anesthetic patients weighing less than 2 kg is that:

these patients may not be fasted due to low glycogen reserves

A commonly used breathing circuit that is recommended for a 9 pound feline is the:

semi-closed rebreathing system

A reversible sedative that may be used as part of the anesthetic technique is:


The injectable anesthetic that is a dissociative agent is:


A type of non-rebreathing system for small animal patients is the:


An instrument that provides an indication of the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is the:

Pulse Oximeter

Relating to the trachea, the endotracheal tube be positioned:

1/3 down the length of the trachea

The term that relates to high levels of C02 in the blood is:


The life threatening problem that may occur if the body temperature is allowed to go lower than 86 degrees during anesthesia is:

cardiac arrhythmia

An uncuffed endotracheal tube would be most appropriate for use in a mature:


When performing endotracheal intubation, the following species that is NOT prone to laryngospasm is the:


The use of Cetacaine as a local anesthetic to avoid laryngospasm is best avoided because of the reported development of:

Heinz Body Anemia

An increase in the dead space of a breathing system is likely to lead to:


The type of fluid that is most commonly used during anesthesia and surgery is a(n)__________ solution.

isotonic crystaloid

For healthy animals during routine procedures, intravenous fluids are normally administered at a rate of:

5-10 ml/kg/hr

If the vaporizer of the anesthesia machine needs to be refilled during a long anesthetic procedure, the correct method of performing the refill is:

O2 flow maintained and vaporizer off

The condition that is likely to be seen if a patient was over-hydrated during general anesthesia is:

pulmonary edema

The breakdown of a surgical incision that causes the tissue layers to separate from each other is referred to as:


A laparotomy is defined as an incision into the:

abdominal wall

The "gutters" would be examined when exploring the:


The linea alba is incised when entering the:


The hook type instrument that is useful in locating the uterus during a surgical procedure is the:


A type of hemostat with longitudinal grooves and cross-grooves at the tip that is commonly used in performing an ovariohysterectomy in the dog is a:


An approach to an abdominal incision to the caudal area of the abdomen of a male dog would be a:


A retractor that would be most useful for proper exposure of an abdominal incision in a large dog would be a:


When assisting in a Cesarean Section of a dog, puppies are delivered in the amnionic sac which is part of the:


To avoid tissue damage during a surgical procedure, exposed abdominal organs must:

be kept moist

The technical name for a canine neuter is a(n):


During development in the fetus, the testicle of the dog will be located near the:


The surgical removal of the scrotum of the dog at the time of castration or later is referred to as a(n):


A TRUE statement concerning the feline castration is:

after removal of the testicle through a scrotal incision, the scrotum is left unsutured

The onychectomy procedure in the feline involves the removal of the:

third phalanx

For the feline declaw procedure, the Nye tourniquet is placed just:

distal to the elbow joint

The ungual crest is removed when performing a(n):


The "drawer sign" is useful in detecting:

instability of the stifle joint

A TPLO surgery is a type of:

cruciate ligement repair

When placing an IV catheter in a patient with a gastric torsion, a vein that is NOT appropriate is the:

lateral saphenous

The contrast between an "open" castration and a "closed" castration for the dog is if an incision is made in the:


For the canine mother, calorie needs may increase from __________ during nursing, particularly if the litter is large.

200 to 400%

Considering the benefit of antibodies in colostrum, if the puppy has not nursed by ____ hours much of the benefit of immunity will be lost.


Which of the following is considered the hallmark of management of the ill puppy:

rewarming of the patient

fluid/glucose replacement

antibiotic therapy

**all are considered hallmarks of therapy**

The nursing mother of a litter of puppies should be monitored for signs of unsteadiness or ataxia as eclampsia may be seen and is related to:

low serum calcium

The optimum ambient temperature for the first week of life for a puppy is:

90 degrees F

For the first week of life, what is the percentage of the birth weight that a puppy should gain each day?


An 8 week old puppy needs radiographs. Which of the following is most accurate:

the kilovoltage should be greatly reduced

A litter of Boston Terrier puppies is brought in at 2 weeks of age for their initial veterinary evaluation with the umbilical cords still attached.

this is abnormal as the cords should have fallen off in 2 to 3 days

Puppy and kitten eyes normally open _______ after birth.

5 to 14 days

At the time of whelping, a greenish or blackish discharge from the vulva indicates:

placental separation

what is the primary route of elimination of inhaltion anesthetics

what is the primary route of elimination of inhaltion anesthetics

what do scavenger systems do

remove the waste anesthetic gasses from the work area

what is an F-air canister

a type of scavenger system that contains a charcoal filter that will absorb anesthetic molecules

what are some common inhalation anesthetic agents

-diethy ether-methoxyflurane (Metofane)

-nitrous oxide (N2O)-halothane (fluothane)

-isoflurane (AErrane, IsoFlo)

-sevoflurane (SevoFlo)

what are some advantages and disadvantages of inhalation anesthetics

-advan: good control over the depth of anesthesia, well tolerated by all species-

disadvan: requires constant monitoring, requires complex and expensive equipment, does not control pain

what does a low MAC value indicate

a potent anesthetic

what does a decrease in MAC mean

an animal is more sensitive to an anesthetic (less will be required to produce anesthesia)

what does it mean if an anesthetic agent is more soluble

the slower (longer) it will be for anesthetic induction and the slower the recovery

is isoflurane and sevoflurane more soulbe or insoluble

insoluble agents (faster induction)

During an induction phase of anesthesia, will a higher or lower concentration of anesthetic gas be needed

a higher concentration anesthetic

Agents that have a high vapor pressure must be used in a what type of vaporizer

a precision vaporizer

How oftern should an anesthetic vaporizer be calibrated

-every 6 months to one year-should be done by a qualified anesthetic equipment technician

What are some desired properties of an inhalation anesthetic drug

-safe with o delayed toxicity


-non explosive-chemically stable

-not reactive with soda lime-potent (low MAC value)

-low blood solubility for rapid inductions and recoveries

-not expensive-not irritating to mucus membranes

What are some things to know about nitrous oxide

-a weak anesthetic drug that can not produce anesthesia by itself-it is stored in the color "blue" tanks-often referred to as "laughing gas"

why is Ether not commonly used any more

-it is highly flammable and is irritating to the mucus membranes

What is the CNS responsibile for localization of pain

-stimulation of the receptors in the peripheral nerves

how do NSAIDS help with pain

they block the production of prostaglandin from arachodonic acid

what are some examples of opioid receptors in the nervous system






what are some side effects of the narcotic morphine)


-bowel evacuation

-bradycardia(if atropine or glycopyrrolate is used it will lessen these side effects

Schedule II

what is good about the narcotic drug fentanyl

-an opioid that is 100 times more potent than morphine

-allows for transdermal administration for prolonged effect

-pain control lasts for 72 hours-it is a

schedule 2 controlled substance

What is good about the narcotic drug hydromorphone

-it is 5 times as potent as morphine

-lasts for 4 to 6 hours-god for moderate to intense pain

-may be combined with a tranquilizer such as acepromazine

Schedule II

What is good about the narcotic drug butorphanol

-generic name is Torbugesic

-is 3 to 5 times more potent than morphine

-has a half life of 3 to 4 hours

-good for mild to moderate pain but will need frequent redosing

Schedule IV

What is good about the narcotic drug buprenorphine

-generic name: Buprenex-is a mixed agonist/antagonist like butorphano

l-has longer duration than butorphanol (8 hours)

-good for mild to moderate pain

Schedule III

what is good about the narcotic drug tramadol

-exerts opioid effects in the spinal cord-can be used longer term for chronic pain (arthritis)

what are some narcotic reversing agents

-nalorphine (morphine reversal); this is a schedule 3 controlled drug

-naloxone (hydromorphone reversal); not a controlled drug

What is a good salicylate analgesic? what does it do?

-aspirin-used to manage arthritis type pain-can cause irritation to the GI tract (vomiting)

what is good about the NSAID meloxicam -generic name:

Metacam-a inhibitor of COX 2 with some COX 1 activity

what is good about using narcotics with a low dose of tranquilizers

-it helps provide a beneficial pain control

what type of drugs should not be used with NSAIDS cortisone type drugs-will cause gastric ulcers

-cortisone also increases wound healing time after surgery

do the tranquilizers acepromazine and diazepam have or not have analgesic properties

they have poor to no analgesic properties

what tranquilizer is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

-xylazine-a very good sedative and analgesic affects-it causes vasoconstriction which increases arterial blood pressure and this results in a lower heart rate and reflex vascular hypotension

what is the reversal drug of xylazine


what type of nerve block is preformed for dentals


what is good about the tranquilizer drug detomadine (Dormosedan)

-an alpha 2 adrenergic stimulator (agonist) (like xylazine)

-a good sedative and analgesic-reversal drug: atipamizole

what are some signs that an animal is in pain

-abnormal respiration

-increased heart rate


-lack of grooming behavior

why would we close the pop off valve

-so we can breathe for our patients

-used in open chest procedures and CPR

what is the standard formula of figuring rebreathing bags 60 ml/ kg

-8 to 15 kg (18 to 32 Ibs) = 2 liter bag

-16 to 50 kg (33 to 110 Ibs) = 3 liter bag

-bags should be checked frequently to check for leaks(damaged bags are a frquent source of leaks)

what are some injectable induction anesthetics used




what are some appropriate IV fluids for surgery

-lactated ringers

-saline (sodium chloride)

what is the recommended fluid flow rate during anesthesia procedures

5 to 10 ml/kg/hr

what is a laparotmomy a surgical incision into the abdominal cavity

-ventral midline




what are some reasons for performing a laparotmomy


-organ biopsy

-ceasarean section

-retained abdominal testicle

-gastric torsion

-foreign body

-splenic tumor