Ate2611 Animal Anesthesia Midterm And Final Krall

Front 1

What is an unbiased description of the illness of the patient?

Back 1

History

Front 2

In dogs, the pulse rate is most commonly evaluated over which artery?

Back 2

The femoral artery

Front 3

What breed has a general ectomorph appearance that is considered normal for the breed?

Back 3

Greyhound

Front 4

The nictitating membrane is a term for what?

Back 4

The third eyelid

Front 5

Uveitis is an inflammation of what?

Back 5

The iris and ciliary body

Front 6

When considering conditions of the eye, what is a proptosis?

Back 6

A protrusion of the eye from the socket

Front 7

What is the structure of the eye that will reflect light?

Back 7

The tapetum

Front 8

Difficult breathing due to stenotic (constricted) nares is most commonly seen in _______ dogs.

Back 8

Brachycephalic

Front 9

What is the technical term for bleeding form the nose?

Back 9

Epistaxis

Front 10

What is the term for inflammation of the tongue?

Back 10

Glossitis

Front 11

What is the term for inflammation of the structures surrounding the tooth?

Back 11

Periodontitis

Front 12

Relating to the oral and nasal areas, a fistula would describe what?

Back 12

A permanent opening connecting the two cavities

Front 13

A term that would describe a benign growth in the mouth is what?

Back 13

Epulis

Front 14

An important caution in the use of plastic ear speculums to examine the ear is that they can do what?

Back 14

Transport infectious agents such bacteria and mites

Front 15

What term is used to describe a discharge containing white blood cells and protein?

Back 15

Purulent

Front 16

Of the structure of the eye that will be noted when the fundus of the eye is examined is the:

Back 16

optic disc

Front 17

Inflammation of the structures surrounding the tooth

Back 17

periodontitis

Front 18

Malpositioned eyelash

Back 18

distichiasis

Front 19

Discharge containing white blood cells and protein

Back 19

purulent

Front 20

inflammation of the lips

Back 20

cheilitis

Front 21

inflammation of the nose

Back 21

rhinitis

Front 22

The popliteal lymph node is located:

Back 22

behind the knee

Front 23

The bacteria that is likely to cause kennel cough in dogs is:

Back 23

Bordatella bronchiseptica

Front 24

Relating to auscultation of the lungs, a louder than normal respiratory sound is described as a:

Back 24

rale

Front 25

The range of the normal heart rate of the dog when at rest is:

Back 25

80 - 120 BPM

Front 26

Relating to the examination of heart murmurs, the term "grade" refers to:

Back 26

loudness

Front 27

The definition of atelectasis is:

Back 27

a collapsed lung

Front 28

The heart rates of small breed dogs are generally __________ than those of large breed dogs.

Back 28

faster

Front 29

Atopic dermatitis is a condition realted to:

Back 29

allergies to a variety of antigens

Front 30

In the cat, periauricular alopecia is usually:

Back 30

a normal finding

Front 31

In the normal cat, the kidneys are readily palpated and should be approximately:

Back 31

2.5 to 3.5 cm in length

Front 32

The urinary bladder can usually be palpated in the _______ abdomen?

Back 32

caudoventral

Front 33

In a pregnant dog or cat, milk can be expressed from the mammary glands during the last ________________ of gestation.

Back 33

1 to 2 weeks

Front 34

The parameters that are used to assess the brain during a nervous system examination are:

Back 34

cranial nerves and mental status

Front 35

Placement of limbs in relation to gravity requires integration by the nerves in the spinal cord and is called:

Back 35

proprioception

Front 36

If the patellar tendon is tapped and no contraction of the quadriceps muscle occurs, a lesion is most likely present in the:

Back 36

spinal cord

Front 37

an area toward the nose

Back 37

rostral

Front 38

area of hair loss

Back 38

alopecia

Front 39

fluid in the abdominal cavity

Back 39

ascites

Front 40

grating on movement of a joint

Back 40

crepitus

Front 41

infestation with mites

Back 41

acariasis

Front 42

The anesthetic that should be used with caution in greyhounds due to the possibility of a prolonged effect is:

Back 42

Thiopental

Front 43

The decade that gas anesthesia become widely used in veterinary medicine in the US was the:

Back 43

1960's

Front 44

The part of the central nervous system that contains the vital centers for cardiac and respiratory function is the:

Back 44

medulla

Front 45

The anesthesia technique that is recommended for a procedure that is anticipated to take longer than 10 minutes is:

Back 45

Inhalation

Front 46

The type of surgical procedure that is likely to require Intermittent Positive Pressure Ventilation (IPPV) is:

Back 46

intrathoracic or open chest

Front 47

Of the considerations listed below, which is most important to consider in the process of choosing an anesthetic technique for a particular patient.

Back 47

pre-anesthetic physical exam

Front 48

The agent involved in anesthesia that is often avoided in pediatric and geriatric patients because of prolonged duration of action is:

Back 48

Acepromazine

Front 49

The breeds of dogs that may have trouble breathing during a general anesthesia because of anatomical obstruction of airways and collection of salivary secretions are:

Back 49

brachycephalic

Front 50

The normal cardiac rhythm for the dog is termed:

Back 50

sinus arrhythmia

Front 51

Bleeding times longer than normal would be an indication of a bleeding disorder. The normal buccal mucosal bleeding time in the dog is:

Back 51

2 to 4 minutes

Front 52

The type of fluid that would likely be chosen for IV administration for most routine anesthetic procedures is:

Back 52

Lactated Ringers

Front 53

When an anesthetized patient is positioned on a surgical table with the head lower than the tail section of the body, a veterinary technician should be monitoring the patient carefully for

Back 53

hypoxia

Front 54

Acepromaziine introduced

Back 54

1950

Front 55

Isoflurane becomes available

Back 55

1982

Front 56

Gas anesthesia widely used

Back 56

1960

Front 57

Hollow needle developed

Back 57

1853

Front 58

Thiobarbituates introduced

Back 58

1934

Front 59

Alkaline Phosphatase (ALP)

Back 59

Liver

Front 60

Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)

Back 60

Kidney

Front 61

gamma glutamyl transpeptidase (GGT)

Back 61

Liver

Front 62

Alanine Amino Transferase (ALT)

Back 62

Liver

Front 63

Creatinine

Back 63

Kidney

Front 64

The use of an anticholinergic, like atropine or glycopyrrolate, is likely to cause:

Back 64

mydriasis

Front 65

The effect anticolinergic drugs have on vagal tone or the parasympathetic nervous system is to:

Back 65

decrease activity and increase heart rate

Front 66

Atropine will provide analgesia as well as reducing salivary secretions.

Back 66

False

Front 67

The use of atropine or glycopyrrolate will affect anesthesia time by:

Back 67

having no effect on the anesthesia time

Front 68

The expected effect of Acepromazine relating to epinephrine induced cardiac arrhythmias is to:

Back 68

decrease chances of arrhythmia

Front 69

The expected effect of Acepromazine on the chemoreceptor trigger zone is to:

Back 69

supress the vomiting center

Front 70

Which of the following drugs is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist?

Back 70

Domitor

Front 71

The generic name of Valium is:

Back 71

Diazepam

Front 72

The major organ of metabolism of Valium is the:

Back 72

Liver

Front 73

The effect that xylazine will have on the skeletal muscles is:

Back 73

muscle relaxation

Front 74

If bradycardia was found to exist in an equine patiient, the veterinarian is most likely to ask for which of the follwoing medications:

Back 74

Glycopyrrolate

Front 75

Of the medications listed below, which is NOT an used as a reversal drug for alpha 2 agonist agents?

Back 75

metronidazole

Front 76

Of the agents listed below that are utilized in anesthetic techniques, which is an NMDA antagonist?

Back 76

Ketamine

Front 77

The pre-anesthetic medication that is noted to have aniconvulsant activity is:

Back 77

diazepam

Front 78

The most significant side effect of administering an opioid to a patient as a pre-anesthetic is:

Back 78

respiratory depression

Front 79

The agent that is used in anesthetic techniques that is most likely to cause excessive salivation is:

Back 79

Ketamine

Front 80

Considering the use of alpha 2 agonists in large animals and the dosage required for effect, ruminants are __________________ sensitive to the effects, as compared to the horse.

Back 80

much more

Front 81

The pre-anesthetic medication that is most likely to produce a hyperresponsiveness to sound is:

Back 81

morphine

Front 82

Of the following combinations of medications, which is NOT a neuroleptanalgesic:

Back 82

diazepam/ketamine

Front 83

The pre-anesthetic medication that is most noted for the possibility of impaired thermoregulation leading to body heat loss is:

Back 83

morphine

Front 84

When in a concentration of 1% (10 mg/ml) the medication that has a maximum dose of 0.3 ml is:

Back 84

acepromazine

Front 85

When monitoring anesthesia, vital signs are generally assessed and and recorded every:

Back 85

5 minutes

Front 86

The most important parameters to monitor during anesthesia are heart rate and rate and depth of respiration.

Back 86

True

Front 87

When considering the the flag rate (the rate at which we consider that the condition is occurring) for bradycardia in the dog, the heart rate in beats per minute should be less than:

Back 87

70

Front 88

The instrument that monitors arterial pulses through vessels and produces an audible sound is the:

Back 88

doppler

Front 89

The CO2 level in the blood may be elevated in cases of hypoventilation and the instrument that is used to measure the CO2 level in the blood is the a:

Back 89

capnometer

Front 90

A cause of inaccurate pulse-oximetry readings is:

Back 90

All of the above;

poor probe positioning or patient movementhypothermia or hypotensiontachycardia not detected by the pulse oximeter

Front 91

A level of anesthesia that is considered a deep plane of anesthesia and only desirable for very manipulative surgical procedures is:

Back 91

Stage III, plane III

Front 92

The type of monitor that connects between the endotracheal tube and the anesthesia hoses is the:

Back 92

respiratory (JorVet)

Front 93

Anesthetic drug metabolism and elimination will depend on:

Back 93

All of the above;

liver function

body temperature

kidney function

Front 94

The IV fluid rate for shock in the dog is:

Back 94

90 ml/kg/hr

Front 95

The anesthetic record is used to:

Back 95

All of the above;

help recognize gradual changes over a period of time

help plan subsequent anesthetic procedures

record heart rate, respiratory rate, and blood pressure

Front 96

The esophageal stethoscope is used to monitor:

Back 96

sound of the heartbeat

Front 97

The electrocardiogram provides information about:

Back 97

the electrical activity of the heart

Front 98

When monitoring anesthesia, respiratory depression is detected. The expected acid base imbalance is:

Back 98

respiratory acidosis

Front 99

A method of measuring the blood pressure during anesthesia by the indirect method is by using a:

Back 99

Ultrasonic Doppler

Front 100

An INCORRECT priciple used in monitoring anesthesia in veterinary patients is:

Back 100

judgement of anesthetic depth is made by dial settings for flowmeter and vaporizer

Front 101

Apnea following the induction of anesthesia is:

Back 101

commonly seen

Front 102

An apnea monitor may be used to monitor respiration during anesthesia. The the type of changes the sensing portion of the monitor will detect in the expired gas will be changes in:

Back 102

Temperature

Front 103

A potent, natural stimulant of the respiratory center is:

Back 103

carbon dioxide

Front 104

The tidal volume will usually be decreased in an animal under general anesthesia by:

Back 104

25%

Front 105

When monitoring an anasthetic pateint on gas anesthesia that is in stage 3 plane 2, you would expect the mucus membrane color to appear:

Back 105

bright pink

Front 106

Considering the stages of anesthesia, the globe of the eye is rotated medially and the third eyelid prolapsed in:

Back 106

Stage III, Please 1

Front 107

The recommended route(s) of administration for Propofol is/are:

Back 107

IV

Front 108

The anesthetic agent that will support bacterial growth in the solution and requires very careful handling is:

Back 108

Propofol

Front 109

The drug that is active as the central nervous system depressant in Beuthanasia D euthanasia solution is:

Back 109

pentobarbital, a short acting barbiturate

Front 110

The anesthetic that is known as a dissociative anesthetic agent is:

Back 110

Ketamine

Front 111

When Acepromazine is administered as a tranquilizer prior to the administration of Propofol, the per cent of dose reduction for Propofol is:

Back 111

50%

Front 112

Propofol is unlike any other injectable anesthetic and is a:

Back 112

phenolic compound

Front 113

The agent that is not a local anesthetic is:

Back 113

Diphenhydramine

Front 114

Animals recieving local anesthetics epidurally (lidocaine or bupivicaine) should always be placed in a head-down position

Back 114

FALSE

Front 115

The anesthetic agent that is an NMDA ( N-methyl-D-aspartate ) antagonist is:

Back 115

Ketamine

Front 116

The anesthetic agent that contains an egg protein and may cause an allergic reaction when administered to some patients is:

Back 116

Propofol

Front 117

If local anesthetics are mistakenly administered IV, the effect(s) may be seen is/are:

Back 117

Convulsions

Front 118

This local anesthetic agent is often used in dentistry and for nerve blocks as this agent will provide local anesthesia for up to 6 hours.

Back 118

Bupivicaine

Front 119

A clinical advantage of using this anesthetic induction agent is that it is associated with very rapid liver metabolism that often results results in a smooth, rapid recovery

Back 119

Propofol

Front 120

The anesthetic agent which is associated with the swallowing and ocular reflexes remaining intact and increasing muscle tone is:

Back 120

Ketamine

Front 121

Guaifenesin is a(n):

Back 121

muscle relaxant

Front 122

The important anatomical area for performing the technique of epidural anesthesia is the:

Back 122

cauda equina

Front 123

Propofol is noted to provide very significant analgesia.

Back 123

FALSE

Front 124

The tranquilizer that is in Telazol that has anticonvulsant and muscle relaxing effect is:

Back 124

zolazepam

Front 125

Based on the properties of the agent, the inhalation anesthetic that is the best suited and considered ideal for mask induction is:

Back 125

sevoflurane

Front 126

The inhalation anesthetic agent with the lowest MAC (minimum alveolar concentration ) is:

Back 126

methoxyflurane

Front 127

The anesthetic agents with the highest vapor pressure is:

Back 127

halothane

Front 128

When inhalation anesthetic agents are compared, the onehaving the lowest solubility rating will be the one that:

Back 128

will allow for the fastest induction of anesthesia

Front 129

The inhalation anesthetic agent that is noted to be highlyflammable and explosive is:

Back 129

ether

Front 130

Factors that will decrease the MAC (minimal alveolarconcentration)include:

Back 130

(All, severe hypotension, hypothermia, aging)

Front 131

The anesthetic agent that is noted for the slower inductionand recovery is:

Back 131

methoxyflurane

Front 132

A property that is NOT desirable for inhalation anestheticagents is:

Back 132

requires high concentrations in the alveoli to produce anesthesia

Front 133

The percentage of isoflurane that is metabolized by theliver is:

Back 133

0.25% or minimal metabolism

Front 134

The recommended maintenance setting (what %) for isofluranefor a surgical plane of anesthesia is:

Back 134

2 - 3%

Front 135

The anesthetic agent that is most potent is:

Back 135

halothane

Front 136

The anesthetic agent that is the least soluble is:

Back 136

sevoflurane

Front 137

A true statement concerning mask induction of anesthesia is:

Back 137

*all are correct*

best reserved for high risk patients that are adequatelysedated

can greatly increase waste gas in the work environment

an anesthetic with low solubility is advised

Front 138

Higher concentrations of Sevoflurane can result in rapidchanges in anesthetic depth leading to hypo-tension and respiratory depression.

Back 138

True

Front 139

The inhalation anesthetic agent that has been associatedwith the production of metabolites that are toxic to the renal system is:

Back 139

methoxyflurane

Front 140

The inhalation anesthetic agent that is NOT commonly used ina precision vaporizer is:

Back 140

methoxyflurane

Front 141

The anesthetic agent that has been associated with somerespiratory depression is:

Back 141

*all of the above*

isoflurane

methoxyflurane

halothane

sevoflurane

Front 142

An anesthetic gas that is a very weak anesthetic drug thatcannot produce anesthesia by itself is:

Back 142

nitrous oxide

Front 143

The inhalation anesthetic agent that has the most tendencyto sensitize the heart to the production of epinephrine induced arrhythmias is:

Back 143

halothane

Front 144

When inducing anesthesia by mask induction using isoflurane,what is the maximum per centage of isoflurane that is recommended by the Angelnotes?

Back 144

3.0%

Front 145

In patients that are anesthetized with Sevoflurane, there isprofound muscle relaxation seen at lighter planes of anesthesia.

Back 145

False

Front 146

As a general rule, it is recommended that all anesthetizedanimals be intubated in order to maintain the airway.

Back 146

True

Front 147

The chemical substance that is produced by the body that contributes to the intense pain associated with inflammation is:

Back 147

proataglandins

histamine

proteolytic enzymes

*all are correct*

Front 148

One of the most important pain free regions of the body is the:

Back 148

Brain

Front 149

One common physiologic response to pain is:

Back 149

increased heart rate and blood pressure

Front 150

The physiologic system that is responsible for the localization of pain to a particular area of the body is the:

Back 150

central nervous system (CNS)

Front 151

Kappa and mu are:

Back 151

types of opioid receptors in the central nervous system

Front 152

In small animals, loud, persistent vocalizing after an operation is generally considered:

Back 152

a sign of significant pain and/or anxiety that needs treating.

Front 153

The analgesic effect of opioids is due to their:

Back 153

interaction with specific opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord

Front 154

When used as the sole analgesic agent in normal dose ranges, morphine can cause excitement in:

Back 154

HORSES

Front 155

Antipyretic is a technical term that means:

Back 155

relieves fever

Front 156

The use of alpha 2-adrenergic agonists can be associated withsignificant:

Back 156

high blood pressure

Front 157

The tissue that contains a high density ofnociceptors is:

Back 157

skin periosteum

arterial walls

tendon

**all of the above**

Front 158

The area of the brainthat is important in the perception and conscious discriminatory aspects ofpain is the:

Back 158

thalamus

Front 159

The tissue having thefewest density of pain receptors is:

Back 159

liver

Front 160

Behavioral signs of discomfort tend to bespecies specific and vary also between breeds and individuals.

Back 160

True

Front 161

The aspect of nursing care that will best soothe and relieve anxiety andpain in many animal patients is:

Back 161

gently talking to and stroking the animal

Front 162

Narcotic pain relieving drugs may also be called:

Back 162

Opioids

Front 163

The side effect that would NOT be expected following the use of a narcotic as a pain reliever is:

Back 163

tachycardia style

Front 164

A transdermal fentanyl patch will deliver painrelieving levels of fentanyl for:

Back 164

72 hrs

Front 165

Relating to the use of NSAIDS, the currentthought is that drugs with a higher level of _______ inhibition result ingreater gastrointestinal injury.

Back 165

COX-1

Front 166

As an anlgesic drug for horses, flunixinmeglumine (Banamine) would be classified as an/a:

Back 166

NSAID

Front 167

An area of the body that has a highconcentration of pain fibers is:

Back 167

An Artery Wall

Front 168

The color code used for tanks of nitrous oxide anesthetic gas is:

Back 168

blue

Front 169

The safety measure that will prevent the mismatching of anesthetic gasses on the anesthetic machine is:

Back 169

color coding system pin index safety system

Front 170

The compressed gas pressure for a full tank of oxygen is:

Back 170

2000 PSI

Front 171

Of the anesthetic breathing systems listed below, the system that is recommended for a patient weighing less than 15 pounds is the:

Back 171

Ayres T Piece

Front 172

The recommended maximum use life of an f/air waste anesthetic gas canister is:

Back 172

12 hours

Front 173

Useful parameters to evaluate freshness of the soda lime crystals of the CO2 absorber canister include:

Back 173

lack of heat production during

use color indicator during

use hard or brittle granules

**all are useful indicators**

Front 174

A useful guide of the correct size for a rebreathing bag for a patient weighing 18 to 30 pounds is:

Back 174

2 liters

Front 175

A device that will detect pressure within the breathing circuit is the:

Back 175

manometer

Front 176

Regular calibration is recommended for the Isotec vaporizer used for isoflurane.

Back 176

True

Front 177

According to our Angel notes, the non-rebreathing system is recommended for a patient weighing less than ___________ lbs.

Back 177

15

Front 178

The oxygen cylinder that is of the size that attaches to the anesthetic machine is the ______ type.

Back 178

E

Front 179

When oxygen gas is delivered to the breathing circuit using the oxygen flush valve, the gas will pass through the vaporizer prior to reaching the breathing circuit.

Back 179

False

Front 180

When oxygen gas passes thorough the pressure regulator or pressure reducing valve, the pressure of the gas will be _____ PSI.

Back 180

50

Front 181

Precision vaporizers are generally considered to be in-the-circuit vaporizers.

Back 181

False

Front 182

The soda lime in the CO2 absorber of the anesthesia machines should be changed at approximately every ____ hours of use.

Back 182

8

Front 183

The anesthetic piece of equipment (as shown) that is a modified circle with the inspiratory hose inside the expiratory hose is the:

Back 183

Universal F Circuit

Front 184

When monitoring anesthesia, if you notice the soda lime granules are expired in the middle of an active case,you should:

Back 184

increase the O2 flows to 3-5 L/min and wait until the case is completed

Front 185

The scavenger system for waste anesthetic gas removal is generally attached in the area of the:

Back 185

pop-off valve

Front 186

Precision type vaporizers should only be filled when the vaporizer is in the off position.

Back 186

True

Front 187

For anesthesia of dogs weighing 25 to 35 pounds, the most commonly used breathing system is the:

Back 187

semi-closed

Front 188

The oxygen flow rate formula for the Bain non-rebreathing anesthetic system is:

Back 188

100-300 ml/kg/min

Front 189

Concerning cuffed endotracheal tubes, the most accurate statement is:

Back 189

Both over-inflation and under-inflation of the cuff can lead to significant problems so it should be inflated just enough to form an effective seal with the trachea.

Front 190

A special concern for anesthetic patients weighing less than 2 kg is that:

Back 190

these patients may not be fasted due to low glycogen reserves

Front 191

A commonly used breathing circuit that is recommended for a 9 pound feline is the:

Back 191

semi-closed rebreathing system

Front 192

A reversible sedative that may be used as part of the anesthetic technique is:

Back 192

Dexdomitor

Front 193

The injectable anesthetic that is a dissociative agent is:

Back 193

Ketamine

Front 194

A type of non-rebreathing system for small animal patients is the:

Back 194

Bain

Front 195

An instrument that provides an indication of the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen is the:

Back 195

Pulse Oximeter

Front 196

Relating to the trachea, the endotracheal tube be positioned:

Back 196

1/3 down the length of the trachea

Front 197

The term that relates to high levels of C02 in the blood is:

Back 197

hypercapnea

Front 198

The life threatening problem that may occur if the body temperature is allowed to go lower than 86 degrees during anesthesia is:

Back 198

cardiac arrhythmia

Front 199

An uncuffed endotracheal tube would be most appropriate for use in a mature:

Back 199

ferret

Front 200

When performing endotracheal intubation, the following species that is NOT prone to laryngospasm is the:

Back 200

horse

Front 201

The use of Cetacaine as a local anesthetic to avoid laryngospasm is best avoided because of the reported development of:

Back 201

Heinz Body Anemia

Front 202

An increase in the dead space of a breathing system is likely to lead to:

Back 202

hypercapnea

Front 203

The type of fluid that is most commonly used during anesthesia and surgery is a(n)__________ solution.

Back 203

isotonic crystaloid

Front 204

For healthy animals during routine procedures, intravenous fluids are normally administered at a rate of:

Back 204

5-10 ml/kg/hr

Front 205

If the vaporizer of the anesthesia machine needs to be refilled during a long anesthetic procedure, the correct method of performing the refill is:

Back 205

O2 flow maintained and vaporizer off

Front 206

The condition that is likely to be seen if a patient was over-hydrated during general anesthesia is:

Back 206

pulmonary edema

Front 207

The breakdown of a surgical incision that causes the tissue layers to separate from each other is referred to as:

Back 207

dehiscence

Front 208

A laparotomy is defined as an incision into the:

Back 208

abdominal wall

Front 209

The "gutters" would be examined when exploring the:

Back 209

abdomen

Front 210

The linea alba is incised when entering the:

Back 210

abdomen

Front 211

The hook type instrument that is useful in locating the uterus during a surgical procedure is the:

Back 211

Snook

Front 212

A type of hemostat with longitudinal grooves and cross-grooves at the tip that is commonly used in performing an ovariohysterectomy in the dog is a:

Back 212

Carmalt

Front 213

An approach to an abdominal incision to the caudal area of the abdomen of a male dog would be a:

Back 213

parapreputial

Front 214

A retractor that would be most useful for proper exposure of an abdominal incision in a large dog would be a:

Back 214

Balfour

Front 215

When assisting in a Cesarean Section of a dog, puppies are delivered in the amnionic sac which is part of the:

Back 215

placenta

Front 216

To avoid tissue damage during a surgical procedure, exposed abdominal organs must:

Back 216

be kept moist

Front 217

The technical name for a canine neuter is a(n):

Back 217

orchidectomy

Front 218

During development in the fetus, the testicle of the dog will be located near the:

Back 218

kidney

Front 219

The surgical removal of the scrotum of the dog at the time of castration or later is referred to as a(n):

Back 219

ablation

Front 220

A TRUE statement concerning the feline castration is:

Back 220

after removal of the testicle through a scrotal incision, the scrotum is left unsutured

Front 221

The onychectomy procedure in the feline involves the removal of the:

Back 221

third phalanx

Front 222

For the feline declaw procedure, the Nye tourniquet is placed just:

Back 222

distal to the elbow joint

Front 223

The ungual crest is removed when performing a(n):

Back 223

onychectomy

Front 224

The "drawer sign" is useful in detecting:

Back 224

instability of the stifle joint

Front 225

A TPLO surgery is a type of:

Back 225

cruciate ligement repair

Front 226

When placing an IV catheter in a patient with a gastric torsion, a vein that is NOT appropriate is the:

Back 226

lateral saphenous

Front 227

The contrast between an "open" castration and a "closed" castration for the dog is if an incision is made in the:

Back 227

Tunic

Front 228

For the canine mother, calorie needs may increase from __________ during nursing, particularly if the litter is large.

Back 228

200 to 400%

Front 229

Considering the benefit of antibodies in colostrum, if the puppy has not nursed by ____ hours much of the benefit of immunity will be lost.

Back 229

12

Front 230

Which of the following is considered the hallmark of management of the ill puppy:

Back 230

rewarming of the patient

fluid/glucose replacement

antibiotic therapy

**all are considered hallmarks of therapy**

Front 231

The nursing mother of a litter of puppies should be monitored for signs of unsteadiness or ataxia as eclampsia may be seen and is related to:

Back 231

low serum calcium

Front 232

The optimum ambient temperature for the first week of life for a puppy is:

Back 232

90 degrees F

Front 233

For the first week of life, what is the percentage of the birth weight that a puppy should gain each day?

Back 233

10-20%

Front 234

An 8 week old puppy needs radiographs. Which of the following is most accurate:

Back 234

the kilovoltage should be greatly reduced

Front 235

A litter of Boston Terrier puppies is brought in at 2 weeks of age for their initial veterinary evaluation with the umbilical cords still attached.

Back 235

this is abnormal as the cords should have fallen off in 2 to 3 days

Front 236

Puppy and kitten eyes normally open _______ after birth.

Back 236

5 to 14 days

Front 237

At the time of whelping, a greenish or blackish discharge from the vulva indicates:

Back 237

placental separation

Front 238

what is the primary route of elimination of inhaltion anesthetics

Back 238

what is the primary route of elimination of inhaltion anesthetics

Front 239

what do scavenger systems do

Back 239

remove the waste anesthetic gasses from the work area

Front 240

what is an F-air canister

Back 240

a type of scavenger system that contains a charcoal filter that will absorb anesthetic molecules

Front 241

what are some common inhalation anesthetic agents

Back 241

-diethy ether-methoxyflurane (Metofane)

-nitrous oxide (N2O)-halothane (fluothane)

-isoflurane (AErrane, IsoFlo)

-sevoflurane (SevoFlo)

Front 242

what are some advantages and disadvantages of inhalation anesthetics

Back 242

-advan: good control over the depth of anesthesia, well tolerated by all species-

disadvan: requires constant monitoring, requires complex and expensive equipment, does not control pain

Front 243

what does a low MAC value indicate

Back 243

a potent anesthetic

Front 244

what does a decrease in MAC mean

Back 244

an animal is more sensitive to an anesthetic (less will be required to produce anesthesia)

Front 245

what does it mean if an anesthetic agent is more soluble

Back 245

the slower (longer) it will be for anesthetic induction and the slower the recovery

Front 246

is isoflurane and sevoflurane more soulbe or insoluble

Back 246

insoluble agents (faster induction)

Front 247

During an induction phase of anesthesia, will a higher or lower concentration of anesthetic gas be needed

Back 247

a higher concentration anesthetic

Front 248

Agents that have a high vapor pressure must be used in a what type of vaporizer

Back 248

a precision vaporizer

Front 249

How oftern should an anesthetic vaporizer be calibrated

Back 249

-every 6 months to one year-should be done by a qualified anesthetic equipment technician

Front 250

What are some desired properties of an inhalation anesthetic drug

Back 250

-safe with o delayed toxicity

-non-flammable

-non explosive-chemically stable

-not reactive with soda lime-potent (low MAC value)

-low blood solubility for rapid inductions and recoveries

-not expensive-not irritating to mucus membranes

Front 251

What are some things to know about nitrous oxide

Back 251

-a weak anesthetic drug that can not produce anesthesia by itself-it is stored in the color "blue" tanks-often referred to as "laughing gas"

Front 252

why is Ether not commonly used any more

Back 252

-it is highly flammable and is irritating to the mucus membranes

Front 253

What is the CNS responsibile for localization of pain

Back 253

-stimulation of the receptors in the peripheral nerves

Front 254

how do NSAIDS help with pain

Back 254

they block the production of prostaglandin from arachodonic acid

Front 255

what are some examples of opioid receptors in the nervous system

Back 255

-mu

-kappa

-sigma

-delta

-epsilon

Front 256

what are some side effects of the narcotic morphine)

Back 256

-vomiting

-bowel evacuation

-bradycardia(if atropine or glycopyrrolate is used it will lessen these side effects

Schedule II

Front 257

what is good about the narcotic drug fentanyl

Back 257

-an opioid that is 100 times more potent than morphine

-allows for transdermal administration for prolonged effect

-pain control lasts for 72 hours-it is a

schedule 2 controlled substance

Front 258

What is good about the narcotic drug hydromorphone

Back 258

-it is 5 times as potent as morphine

-lasts for 4 to 6 hours-god for moderate to intense pain

-may be combined with a tranquilizer such as acepromazine

Schedule II

Front 259

What is good about the narcotic drug butorphanol

Back 259

-generic name is Torbugesic

-is 3 to 5 times more potent than morphine

-has a half life of 3 to 4 hours

-good for mild to moderate pain but will need frequent redosing

Schedule IV

Front 260

What is good about the narcotic drug buprenorphine

Back 260

-generic name: Buprenex-is a mixed agonist/antagonist like butorphano

l-has longer duration than butorphanol (8 hours)

-good for mild to moderate pain

Schedule III

Front 261

what is good about the narcotic drug tramadol

Back 261

-exerts opioid effects in the spinal cord-can be used longer term for chronic pain (arthritis)

Front 262

what are some narcotic reversing agents

Back 262

-nalorphine (morphine reversal); this is a schedule 3 controlled drug

-naloxone (hydromorphone reversal); not a controlled drug

Front 263

What is a good salicylate analgesic? what does it do?

Back 263

-aspirin-used to manage arthritis type pain-can cause irritation to the GI tract (vomiting)

Front 264

what is good about the NSAID meloxicam -generic name:

Back 264

Metacam-a inhibitor of COX 2 with some COX 1 activity

Front 265

what is good about using narcotics with a low dose of tranquilizers

Back 265

-it helps provide a beneficial pain control

Front 266

what type of drugs should not be used with NSAIDS cortisone type drugs-will cause gastric ulcers

Back 266

-cortisone also increases wound healing time after surgery

Front 267

do the tranquilizers acepromazine and diazepam have or not have analgesic properties

Back 267

they have poor to no analgesic properties

Front 268

what tranquilizer is an alpha 2 adrenergic agonist

Back 268

-xylazine-a very good sedative and analgesic affects-it causes vasoconstriction which increases arterial blood pressure and this results in a lower heart rate and reflex vascular hypotension

Front 269

what is the reversal drug of xylazine

Back 269

yohimbine

Front 270

what type of nerve block is preformed for dentals

Back 270

infraorbital

Front 271

what is good about the tranquilizer drug detomadine (Dormosedan)

Back 271

-an alpha 2 adrenergic stimulator (agonist) (like xylazine)

-a good sedative and analgesic-reversal drug: atipamizole

Front 272

what are some signs that an animal is in pain

Back 272

-abnormal respiration

-increased heart rate

-aggression

-lack of grooming behavior

Front 273

why would we close the pop off valve

Back 273

-so we can breathe for our patients

-used in open chest procedures and CPR

Front 274

what is the standard formula of figuring rebreathing bags 60 ml/ kg

Back 274

-8 to 15 kg (18 to 32 Ibs) = 2 liter bag

-16 to 50 kg (33 to 110 Ibs) = 3 liter bag

-bags should be checked frequently to check for leaks(damaged bags are a frquent source of leaks)

Front 275

what are some injectable induction anesthetics used

Back 275

-Pentothal

-Propfol

-Ketaset/Valium

Front 276

what are some appropriate IV fluids for surgery

Back 276

-lactated ringers

-saline (sodium chloride)

Front 277

what is the recommended fluid flow rate during anesthesia procedures

Back 277

5 to 10 ml/kg/hr

Front 278

what is a laparotmomy a surgical incision into the abdominal cavity

Back 278

-ventral midline

-paramedian

-paracostal

-parapreputial

Front 279

what are some reasons for performing a laparotmomy

Back 279

-ovariohysterectomy

-organ biopsy

-ceasarean section

-retained abdominal testicle

-gastric torsion

-foreign body

-splenic tumor