Atc Tower Cab Block 2

Front 1

If pilots persist in their request to depart from a closed runway_________.

A. inform them that a clearance can only be issued with approval from airport management

B. quote the appropriate parts of the NOTAM and inform them that a clearance cannot be issued

c. issue a take off clearance

Back 1

B. quote the appropriate parts of the NOTAM and inform them that a clearance cannot be issued

Front 2

Which of the following is correct phraseology?

A. Runway 35 charlie closed

B. (quote NOTAM info) unable to issue departure clearance. Departure will be at your own risk

C. Departure will be at your own risk. Runway 19 Left unsafe.

Back 2

B. (quote NOTAM info) unable to issue departure clearance. Departure will be at your own risk

Front 3

The controller can use their own good judgement in closing a runway.

A. True

B. False

Back 3

B. False

Legally only the airport management can close a runway.

Front 4

If you observe or are informed of any condition that affects the safe use of a landing area:

A. Copy verbatim any information received and record the name of the person submitting it

B Close the runway immediately as unsafe

C. take no action until the information can be confirmed

Back 4

A. Copy verbatim any information received and record the name of the person submitting it

Front 5

The types of breaking action are:

A. Great, Good, Poor, Nil

B. Good, Fair, Poor, Bad

C. Good, Fair, Poor, Nil

Back 5

C. Good, Fair, Poor, Nil

Front 6

Issue the runway surface condition/RCR if provided to all:

A. Naval aircraft

B. Military aircraft

C. Air Force/ Air Guard aircraft

Back 6

C. Air Force/ Air Guard aircraft

Front 7

When are braking action advisories in effect?

A. When reports received from airport management or pilots include the terms: fair, poor, nil

B. When reports received include the terms: good,fair, poor, nil

C. Any time conditions are reported at "zero"

Back 7

A. When reports received from airport management or pilots include the terms: fair, poor, nil

Front 8

When breaking action advisories are in effect take the following actions:

A. Advise airport management only after reports of "poor" are received

B. If no report has been received for the runway of intended use advise " Breaking action good for runway 28 right"

C. Issue the latest breaking action report for the runway in use to each arriving and departing aircraft

Back 8

C. Issue the latest breaking action report for the runway in use to each arriving and departing aircraft

Front 9

A safety device consisting of two major components: engaging or catching devices and energy absorption devices for the purpose of arresting both tailhook and/or nontailhook aircraft is:

A. Landing Safety System

B. Arresting System

C. Military Landing System

Back 9

B. Arresting System

Front 10

The standard emergency phraseology for a pilot requesting an arresting system be raised is:

A. BARRIER - BARRIER - BARRIER or CABLE - CABLE - CABLE

B. EMERGENCY - EMERGENCY - EMERGENCY or BARRIER - BARRIER - BARRIER

C. MADAY - MADAY - MADAY or CABLE - CABLE- CABLE

Back 10

A. BARRIER - BARRIER - BARRIER or CABLE - CABLE - CABLE

Front 11

A runway selection plan designed to enhance noise abatement efforts with regard to airport communities for arriving and departing aircraft

A. Applies to all aircraft

B. Applies to Large or Heavy weight class aircraft only

C. Applies to all turbo jet aircraft 12,500 lbs or more

Back 11

C. Applies to all turbo jet aircraft 12,500 lbs or more

Front 12

A Formal Runway Use Program does not require a letter of understanding and is voluntary of aircraft operators and pilots.

A. True

B. False

Back 12

B. False

Front 13

Who approves the runway use programs for implementation?

A. Regional Air Traffic Division

B. Airport Manager

C. Airport Manager and Community Official

Back 13

A. Regional Air Traffic Division

Front 14

When a runway use program is in effect there should be:

A. Reported visibility of not less than 1 SM, breaking action of Good, and no significant wind shear or thunderstorms

B. Visibility of at least 5 SM Braking of Fair or better, and no reports of hydroplaning

C. Breaking action of Good, calm wind, visibility of 5 SM

Back 14

A. Reported visibility of not less than 1 SM, breaking action of Good, and no significant wind shear or thunderstorms

Front 15

When a runway use program is in effect for clear and dry runways:

A. Crosswind component must not be greater than 15 KTS

B. Crosswind component must not be greater than 20 KTS

C. No tailwind component may be present

Back 15

B. Crosswind component must not be greater than 20 KTS

Front 16

When a runway use program is in effect for runways NOT clear or NOT dry:

A. Tailwind component must not exceed 5 KTS

B. Crosswind component must not exceed 20 KTS

C. Crosswind component must not exceed 15 KTS

Back 16

C. Crosswind component must not exceed 15 KTS

Front 17

Except where a runway use program is in effect use:

A. The "Calm Wind" runway when less than 10 KTS

B. The longest runway when more than 5 KTS

C. The runway most nearly aligned with the wind when more than 5 KTS

Back 17

C. The runway most nearly aligned with the wind when more than 5 KTS

Front 18

Always state both wind direction and velocity:

A. When Runway Use Program is in effect

B. When breaking action advisories are in effect

C. When a tail wind component exists

Back 18

C. When a tail wind component exists

Front 19

Always state both wind direction and velocity:

A. When Runway Use Program is in effect

B. When breaking action advisories are in effect

C. When a tail wind component exists

Back 19

C. When a tail wind component exists

Front 20

Which statement is false:

Turn the REILs off after:

A. An aircraft is established on the approach

B. An aircraft has landed

C. It is determined the lights are of no further use to the pilot

Back 20

A. An aircraft is established on the approach

Front 21

A system of lights arranged to provide visual decent guidance during the approach to a runway

Back 21

The Visual Approach Slope Indicators (VASIs)

Front 22

The lower glide path of a VASI is how many degrees?

Back 22

3 degrees

The upper path is normally .25 higher

Front 23

A 2 bar VASI shows what light configuration when on glide path?

Back 23

Red over White

Front 24

A three bar VASI shows what light configuration below glide path?

Back 24

Three red

Front 25

Provides the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing

Back 25

Approach Light System

Front 26

Operate ALSs between sunrise and sunset when:

A. ceiling of 5,000 or less and visibility 3 SM or less

B. Ceiling of 1,000 or less and visibility 5 SM or less

C. Ceiling of 1,000 or less and visibility 3 SM or less

Back 26

B. Ceiling of 1,000 or less and visibility 5 SM or less

Front 27

What is the recommended ALS setting for day/night

Back 27

Day 2/3

Night 4/5

Front 28

A component of the ALS that can not be operated when the

ALS is off and should be operated when visibility is less than 3 SM and instrument approaches are being made to the respective runway

A. SFL - Sequenced Flashing Lights

B. MALS - Medium Intensity Approach Light System

C. Runway Edge Lights

Back 28

A. SFL - Sequenced Flashing Lights

Front 29

Operate runway edge lights between sunrise and sunset when visibility is less than

A. 1 SM

B. 2 SM

C. 3 SM

Back 29

C. 3 SM

Front 30

Operate one-setting taxiway lights durning the day when

A. Visibility is less than 1 SM

B. Visibility is less than 3 SM

The pilot calls for departure clearance

Back 30

A. Visibility is less than 1 SM

Front 31

Provides pilots increased situational awareness by illuminating runway entrance lights (REL) when the runway is unsafe for entry or crossing and takeoff hold lights (THL) when the runway is unsafe for departure

Back 31

RWSL Runway Status Lights

Front 32

Take-Off Hold Lights (THL) extend how many feet?

Back 32

1500 feet in front of the holding A/C

Front 33

Runways, taxiways, and other areas of an airport utilized for taxiing, and takeoff/landing exclusive of loading ramps and parking areas. At those airports with an operating control towers specific approval must be obtained for entry.

Back 33

Movement Areas

Front 34

Taxiways and apron (ramp) areas not under the control of ATC

Back 34

Nonmovement Areas

Front 35

A runway with a heading of 006 degrees

Back 35

Runway 1

Front 36

A runway with a heading of 005 degrees

Back 36

Runway 1

Runway 36

Front 37

A runway with a heading of 4 degrees

Back 37

Runway 36

Front 38

What documents define movement/nonmovement areas?

A. LOA

B. SOP

C. LOP

Back 38

A. LOA

Front 39

Runway 16/34 is _____ feet long

A. 10,000

B. 9,750

C. 9,500

Back 39

B. 9,750

Front 40

All Academy runways are _____ feet wide

A. 100 ft

B. 200 ft

C. 250 ft

Back 40

B. 200 ft

Front 41

Runways 28LR/10LR are ______ feet long

A. 10,000

B. 9,750

C. 9,500

Back 41

A. 10,000

Front 42

On an instrument runway yellow replaces white on the last _____ feet or 1/2 the runway length which ever is less

Back 42

2,000 feet

Front 43

At Academy Airport there is an approach lighting system to which runway(s)

Back 43

28R only

Front 44

Academy airport has what instrument approaches

Back 44

VOR/DME 10L

ILS 28R

Front 45

28R/10L has which intensity runway lights?

Back 45

HIRL

Front 46

All taxiway lights at Academy Airport are _____ inensity

Back 46

Single

Front 47

Taxiway A and G are how wide

Back 47

200 feet

Front 48

Taxiways other than A and G are how wide?

Back 48

100 feet

Front 49

Which standby locations are for runway 16/34?

Back 49

3 and 5

Front 50

Academy airspace is a ___ NM radius of Academy Airport with extensions ___ NM long and _____ NM wide E/W from the surface up to and including ____AGL (_____ MSL)

Back 50

5NM radius

2NM long

4 NM wide

2,500 AGL

3,200 MSL

Front 51

Academy airspace extends from Tulsa VORTAC radial ____

Back 51

100/280

Front 52

Location of MacDonald's Bridge

Back 52

6 NM SE

Front 53

Location of Riverside Water Tower

Back 53

6 NM S

Front 54

Location of Sand Springs

Back 54

5 NM SW

Front 55

Location of Owasso Antenna

Back 55

5 NM SW

Front 56

Location of Chandler

Back 56

6 NM W-SW

Front 57

AAC Approach North Frequency

A. 120.2/261.0

B. 119.5/252.6

C. 125.5/231.0

Back 57

A. 120.2/261.0

Front 58

AAC Approach South frequency

A. 120.2/261.0

B. 119.5/252.6

C. 125.5/231.0

Back 58

B. 119.5/252.6

Front 59

AAC Approach airspace extends _____ NM radius from the airport and up to and including ____ MSL

Back 59

30 NM

12,000 MSL

Front 60

Frequency of Tulsa VORTAC located ____ NM from AAC

Back 60

114.4/CH91

5 NM

Front 61

When on the RNY1 and AAC1 departures a pilot can expect to receive their requested altitude ___.

Back 61

10 mins after departure

Front 62

Components of the FDIO

Back 62

Printer

Cathode Ray Tube

Keyboard

Front 63

Which components of a FDIO are used to compose and edit outgoing messages?

A. CRT and Printer

B. Keyboard and Modem

C. CRT and Keyboard

Back 63

C. CRT and Keyboard

Front 64

What is the format to remove a strip message on AAL233

A. SR (space) AAL233

B. RS (space) AAL233

C. RS (space) AAL133 (space) 2330

Back 64

B. RS (space) AAL233

Front 65

The center section of he FDIO where newly arrived messages are first displayed

Back 65

Incoming information display area

Front 66

AM

Back 66

To Amend

Front 67

DM

Back 67

To depart an aircraft

Front 68

FP

Back 68

To enter an active or proposed flight plan

Front 69

Final Approach fix for ILS 28R and frequency

Back 69

Woody 338 KHz

Front 70

FR

Back 70

To request a flight plan readout

Front 71

GI

Back 71

To enter general information

Front 72

RS

Back 72

To remove strip from the host computer

Front 73

SR

Back 73

To request a specific flight plan strip

Front 74

PR

Back 74

To update an active flight plan

Front 75

FIDO Field 1

Back 75

Message type

Front 76

FIDO Field 2

Back 76

Aircraft ID

Front 77

FIDO Field 3

Back 77

Aircraft Type

Front 78

FIDO Field 4

Back 78

Beacon Code

Front 79

FIDO Field 5

Back 79

Speed

Front 80

MEA of all Victor airways at AAC

Back 80

3,000 feet

Front 81

FIDO Field 6

Back 81

FIX

Front 82

FIDO Field 7

Back 82

Time

Front 83

Fido Field 8

Back 83

Assigned Alt

Front 84

FIDO Field 9

Back 84

Requested Alt

Front 85

FIDO Field 10

Back 85

Route of Flight

Front 86

Fido Field 11

Back 86

Remarks Always preceded by a clear weather or overcast symbol

Front 87

Like elements of a route are separated by ___ non similar elements are separated by___.

Back 87

Like elements 2 periods

different elements one period

Front 88

ATIS is the continuous broadcast of recorded ___ information.

A. Noncontrol

B. Control

C. Bird Activiy

Back 88

A. Noncontrol

Front 89

One purpose of the ATIS is to

A. Relieve frequency congestion

B. Provide pilots with post arrival info

C. Help relieve the controller separation workload

Back 89

A. Relieve frequency congestion

Front 90

An ATIS is formatted in the following sequence:

A. Phonetic Letter Code, Airport Name, Time of Weather

B. Airport Name, Time of Weather , Phonetic Letter Code

C. Airport Name, Phonetic Letter Code, Time of Weather

Back 90

C. Airport Name, Phonetic Letter Code, Time of Weather

Front 91

Specified altitude or height in the precision approach at which a missed approach must be initiated if the required visual reference to continue is not established

Back 91

Decision Altitude (DA)

Front 92

Considered direct reading instruments and are to be the primary sources of wind information

Back 92

ASOS/AWOS

Front 93

NOTAMs and PIREPs are included in the ATIS report when they are determined to be_____.

Back 93

Pertinent to operations in the terminal area

Front 94

Optimum duration of an ATIS is

Back 94

30 seconds

Front 95

Before broadcasting the message, the Atis should be checked for

A. Volume, readability, enunciation, currency

B. Accuracy, completeness, speech rate, enunciation

C. Frequency, completeness, currency, volume

Back 95

B. Accuracy, completeness, speech rate, enunciation

Front 96

Ceiling/sky condition, visibility, and obstructions may be omitted if the ceiling is above ___ feet and the visibility is more than ____ miles.

A. 3,000/3

B. 4,000/4

C. 5,000/5

Back 96

C. 5,000/5

Front 97

The lowest altitude to which a decent is authorized where no electronic glide slope is provided

Back 97

Minimum Decent Altitude (MDA)

Front 98

Preplanned IFR departure, provides obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. designed to expedite traffic flow and reduce pilot/controller workload

Back 98

Standard instrument Departure

Front 99

Southbound aircraft file the ____ SID

Back 99

Academy 1

Front 100

Northbound aircraft file the _____ SID

Back 100

Rainey 1

Front 101

On the AAC1 departure what altitude would an aircraft clim to before turning

Back 101

1,500 feet

Front 102

On the RNY1 departure an aircraft will fly runway heading until reaching 1,500 feet and then turn to a heading of ___?

Back 102

360 degrees

Front 103

Which components of a FDIO are used to compose and edit outgoing messages?

A. CRT and Printer

B. Keyboard and Modem

C. CRT and Keyboard

Back 103

C. CRT and Keyboard

Front 104

What is the format to receive a flight plan readout on N23317?

A. FP (space) N23317

B. FR (space) N23317

C. RS (space) N23317

Back 104

B. FR (space) N23317

Front 105

What is the format to amend the proposed departure time of N2314S to 1345

A. N2314S (space) 1345

B. AM (space) N2134S (Space) 1345

C. AM (space) N2314S (space) 07 (space) P1345

Back 105

C. AM (space) N2314S (space) 07 (space) P1345