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317 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The magnetic North Pole is located ______ miles from the true North Pole, and is always moving. |
1,300 |
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Meridians of longitude run... |
North and south |
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What is a circle formed on the surface of a sphere by the intersection of a plane that passes through the center of the sphere?
Basically, it cuts the earth in half. |
A great circle |
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What one parallel of latitude is a great circle? |
The equator |
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Any two meridians of longitude make a ________ _________. |
Great circle
Note: each meridian is half of a great circle. |
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Parallels of latitude are a series of smaller east-west circles referred to as ________ ________. |
Small circles
Note: parallels of latitude are parallel to the equator. The equator is 0 degrees latitude. |
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The north and south poles are at what degrees north and south latitude? |
90 degrees north latitude 90 degrees south latitude |
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Longitude lines are used to measure ANGULAR (circular) DISTANCE ______ and ______ of the prime meridian. |
East, west |
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What is the reference line used to measure longitude? |
The prime meridian
Note: longitude is numbered from 0 degrees at the prime meridian to 180 degrees east AND 180 degrees west.
180 degrees east longitude and 180 degrees west longitude ARE THE SAME MERIDIAN. |
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The places where meridians and parallels cross are called ____________. |
Coordinates
Note: coordinates describe the positions of navigational points on the earth's surface. |
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Coordinates in ATC are written without degree or minute symbology. They also don't include seconds. |
Ex: 3427N10536W
Some publications list latitude/longitude using the decimal system... 34-27.73N 105-36.93W |
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Parallels and meridians are divided into _________, _________, and _________. |
Degrees Minutes Seconds |
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CIRCULAR MEASUREMENT
A circle = 360 degrees 1 degree = 60 minutes 1 minute = 60 seconds |
Latitude is always before longitude. Parallels of latitude are used for measuring degrees of latitude NORTH and SOUTH of the equator.
Meridians of longitude are used for measuring degrees EAST and WEST of the prime meridian. |
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Because of the geographic location of the United States, to determine any location on any U.S. Chart, latitude reading increase from BOTTOM to TOP and longitude readings increase from RIGHT to LEFT. |
Therefore, in the United States, latitude/longitude is read from bottom to top, right to left. |
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Longitude CANNOT be used as a scale to measure distance except at the _________. |
Equator
Note: one minute of longitude along the equator is equal to 1 NM. Meridians converge toward the poles.
Distance changes between longitudinal lines. |
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A ________ _________ ________ is the shortest distance between two points on a sphere. |
Great circle route
Note: it's the most direct route over the earth's surface. It crosses every meridian at a different direction (constantly changing true direction).
Traveling in a great circle route saves time and fuel. |
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What line makes the same angle with each meridian of longitude and is longer than a great circle route? |
Rhumb line
An aircraft holding a constant heading would be flying a rhumb line (straight line over over a flat map). |
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A rhumb line is easier to navigate because its direction remains constant. It requires more time and fuel because it doesn't account for the curvature of the earth. |
A great circle route adjusts to the curvature of the earth. A rhumb line does not. |
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1 NM is equal to 6,076.1 feet
1.15 statute miles
1 minute of latitude |
A statute mile (SM) is used in conjunction with visibility. It's equal to 5,280 feet and 0.87 NM. |
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The NM must be used for all mileages in IFR planning and operations. |
The NM is also used in conjunction with federal airways and is used for aircraft separation rules. |
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A knot (KT) is 1NM per hour. NMs and KTS are universal in air traffic control. |
1 NM = 1.15 SM 1 SM = 0.87 NM
Conversion formula...
NM x 1.15 = SM SM x .87 = NM |
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The local standard time at Greenwich, England is the time reference used in aviation operations throughout the world. This Coordinated Universal Time (UTC) is also referred to as _______ time. |
Zulu
Zulu time is used by the FAA for all operations. However, some VFR pilots may use local time. |
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What type of clock avoids confusion between AM and PM? |
24-hour clock |
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Beginning at 0 degrees longitude, the earth is divided into how many standard time zones? |
24
Each time zone is 15 degrees of longitude wide starting at the prime meridian. There are some variations due to geographical boundary considerations. |
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LST stands for Local Standard Time. What does DST stand for? |
Daylight Savings Time |
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To convert LST to UTC, one must first convert to 24-hour clock, then determine the appropriate conversion factor. |
Conversion factors (prime meridian time is 5 hours ahead of Eastern Standard Time).
EST +5 hours CST + 6 hours MST +7 hours PST +8 hours Alaska +9 hours Hawaii +10 hours
IF DAYLIGHT SAVINGS TIME IS IN EFFECT, subtract 1 hour from conversion. |
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DST starts at 2am the second Sunday in March and ends at 2am on the first Sunday in November.
To convert from UTC to LST, one must _________ the conversion factor from UTC and add 1 if DST is in effect. |
Subtract
Opposite of converting from LST to UTC. |
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11:00am CST + 6 hours conversion factor = 1700Z in Greenwich, England.
9:00pm CST + 6 hours conversion factor = _______Z on the following day in Greenwich, England. |
0300Z |
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An aircraft departs Oklahoma City at 9pm (CST) and travels for 3 hours to arrive in Seattle, WA. (PST) What was the aircraft's arrival time UTC? |
0600Z |
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If it is 1300Z in Philadelphia (EST), what would the LST be in San Francisco (PST)? |
0500 PST (5:00am) |
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At 1:00pm EDT (Eastern Daylight Savings Time) in New York, the time is _______ UTC. |
1700Z
Conversion factor is +5 for EST. Must -1 for Daylight Savings.
1:00 is 1300 on 24-hour clock +4 equals 1700Z |
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Four types of airspeed used in aviation are... |
Indicated airspeed (IAS) True airspeed (TAS) Ground Speed (GS) Mach number (MACH) |
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IAS is shown on the aircraft's airspeed indicator and used in pilot/ATC communications. However, it's much more accurate close to sea level. As altitude increases, air density decreases and IAS ___________. |
Decreases |
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______ airspeed is used in flight planning and the en route portion of the flight. Not a major concern as opposed to ground speed. |
True airspeed (TAS) |
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The speed of an aircraft relative to the surface of the earth is true airspeed CORRECTED FOR THE EFFECTS OF WIND. |
Ground Speed |
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What is the ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound, expressed in decimal form. |
Mach number (MACH)
Ex: MACH 0.82 or MACH 1.6 |
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Calculating the wind's effect on true airspeed gives the pilot ground speed, which is then used to determine time en route and ETA. |
Because speeds assigned by ATC are given as knots of IAS, controllers need to be aware of possible differences between TAS and IAS.
Note: IAS decreases with increases in altitude and temperature. |
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At high altitudes, an aircraft's IAS is significantly ________ than its TAS.
A. Lower B. Higher |
A. Lower
In less dense air at higher altitudes, fewer air molecules enter the pilot's tube resulting in lower IAS readings. |
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Time = distance divided by ground speed.
Ex: an airplane flew from Oklahoma City to Tulsa, a distance of 150 miles, at an average speed of 60 KTS. How long did the flight take? |
150 divided by 60 = 2.5 hours.
2.5 hours is expressed as 2+30 in ATC. |
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At high altitudes, an aircraft's IAS is significantly ________ than its TAS.
A. Lower B. Higher |
A. Lower
In less dense air at higher altitudes, fewer air molecules enter the pilot's tube resulting in lower IAS readings. |
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Speed = distance divided by time. (S = D/T)
Ex: an aircraft flew a distance of 140 miles in 3 hours and 30 minutes (3.5 hours). What was the aircraft's speed? |
140 divided by 3.5 = 40 KTS |
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Distance = speed multiplied by time. (D = S x T)
Ex: an aircraft flew at a speed of 60 KTS FOR 2 hours and 15 minutes (2.25 hours). How far did the aircraft fly? |
60 x 2.25 = 135 miles |
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Remember that ONLY like units can be used together in a formula. If you use NMs, you must use KTS.
If you use SM, you must use MPH. |
Back (Definition) |
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What is a mass of air moving over the earth's surface in a definite direction? |
Wind
Wind is stated to include the DIRECTION FROM WHICH THE WIND IS BLOWING and velocity in KTS.
Ex: a wind report of 36012kt says wind is blowing from the north (360 degrees) at 12 KTS. |
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Wind DOES NOT affect true airspeed.
Wind DOES affect _______ _______. |
Ground speed.
Ground Speed increases with a tailwind and is reduced by a headwind.
A crosswind affects speed AND direction of flight. |
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An aircraft's movement over ground is comparable to a boat crossing a river.
If there's a current, the boat (or aircraft) will be carried downstream until the boat eventually reaches the opposite shore. |
If there's no current (crosswind), the boat (plane) will cross perpendicularly without getting off course. |
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_______ ________ represents the intended path of the aircraft over the earth's surface. |
True course |
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_______ is the actual path that the aircraft has flown over the earth's surface. |
Track |
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_______ _______ is what any free object will do as the air moves downwind with the speed of the wind. |
Drift angle
Note: this is as true of an aircraft as it is of a balloon.
In one hour, AN AIRCRAFT DRIFTS DOWNWIND AN AMOUNT EQUAL TO WIND SPEED. |
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True heading (TH) is true course (TC) corrected for wind speed.
TC +- WCA = TH |
The pilot attempts to fly TRUE COURSE. The wind pushes the aircraft off course. The TRACK over ground is not a desirable one. The difference is called DRIFT ANGLE. |
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To compensate, the pilots correct heading toward direction from which wind is coming (Right or left of TC). |
The resulting angle is Wind Correction Angle (WCA).
The resulting heading is called True Heading (TH). |
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Who's responsibility is it to compensate for wind speed and direction when formulating estimates and issuing radar vectors? |
The controller's |
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The WCA is 20 degrees and true course (TC) is 090 degrees. What is the true heading of the aircraft? |
070 degrees
Note: east-least, west-best Subtract for east. Add for west. |
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The desired TC of the aircraft is 90 degrees and draft angle is 10 degrees. What is the TRACK of the aircraft? |
100 degrees |
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The track of the aircraft is 180 degrees and the aircraft is heading 165 degrees. What is the WCA in degrees? |
The wind correction angle is 15 degrees. |
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Magnetic Variation |
Variation is the angular difference between true north and magnetic north.
Variation is measured in degrees FROM true north. |
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The magnetic North Pole is located ______ miles from the true North Pole, and is always moving. |
1,300 |
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_________ lines connect points of equal difference between true and magnetic north. |
Isogonic
Note: There is one agonic line, which connects points of zero variation. |
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The agonic line hits both _______ and _________ north. |
Magnetic True |
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For the agonic line, no correction is necessary.
For the isogonic lines, east/west variation, correction is necessary. |
For east variation, subtract degrees of variation.
For west variation, add degrees of variation.
East-least, West-best |
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Magnetic heading (MH) is true heading (TH) corrected for variation.
TH +- VAR = MH |
Magnetic headings are usually used in pilot and controller communications.
TURN RIGHT HEADING ONE TWO FIVE.
the exception is wind when given in forecasts. Wind is given in reference to true north. |
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Magnetic compass error may change as the aircraft heading changes. This is called __________ ___________ and can be affected by the engine, electrical system, aircraft structure, or miscellaneous equipment near the compass. |
Magnetic deviation |
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A deviation card is mounted near the compass and lists corrections. |
Compass heading (CH) is the magnetic heading (MH) corrected for deviation.
MH +- DEV = CH |
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TC +- WCA = TH +- VAR = MH +- DEV = CH |
If wind is coming from left (heading east), subtract WCA.
If heading east, subtract VAR.
EAST IS LEAST (-) WEST IS BEST (+) |
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The angular difference between true north and magnetic north at any given point is called _________. |
Variation |
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A line of equal magnetic variation is called an ________ line. |
Isogonic |
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What term denotes a magnetic compass error that is caused by materials within the aircraft which possess magnetic properties? |
Magnetic deviation |
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True heading is true course corrected for effects of _______. |
Wind |
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The navigation of an airplane solely by means of computations based on airspeed, course, heading, wind direction, and speed, ground speed, and elapsed time. |
Dead Reckoning |
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In flight planning, aviation charts are used to plot and determine the following: |
True course Distance Variation |
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What is the basic form of navigation for a beginner pilot?
The pilot flies landmark to landmark in VFR weather. |
Pilotage |
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What is a method of determining and maintaining a desired course, or determining an aircraft's position by use of radio NAVAIDs on the ground? |
Radio navigation |
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Radio navigation allows navigation over areas with too few landmarks for pilotage.
What are advantages of radio navigation? |
All weather navigation capability.
Allows instrument approaches and landings at night and during bad weather. |
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A method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space-based NAVAIDs. |
Area Navigation (RNAV)
RNAV uses area navigation routes to allow a pilot to fly a direct course to his or her destination without needing to overfly a ground-based NAVAID.
IFR flights using RNAV must be approved in a radar environment and ATC must provide radar monitoring. |
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T and Q routes are fixed published RNAV routes and can be flight planned for aircraft with RNAV capability.
RNAV equipment provides pilots with computer "waypoints" on the direct route the pilot has entered into the system. The pilot flies to these waypoints as if they were ground-based NAVAIDs. |
Waypoints are provided to ATC in the flight plan as coordinates of latitude and longitude, or as degree and distance fixes from established fixes. |
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The Global Positioning System (GPS) allows anyone with a proper receiver to determine his or her position instantaneously, with near pinpoint accuracy. |
GPS is based on a constellation of 24 operational satellites and several spares. It's available 24/7 and is unaffected by weather. |
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Navigation by reference to visible landmarks is called ________. |
Pilotage |
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What method of navigation requires flying a predetermined course, taking into account the effects of wind? |
Dead reckoning |
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An L/MF radio beacon transmitting non-directional signals whereby the pilot of an aircraft can determine his bearing to or from the station. |
Non-directional beacon (NDB) |
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What do all radio beacons transmit in morse code? |
A 3 letter identifier |
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What kind of disturbances are radio beacons subject to? |
Lightning, precipitation, and static |
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A ground based electronic NAVAID transmitting very high frequency navigational signals, 360 degrees in azimuth, oriented to magnetic north. |
VHF omni-directional range (VOR) |
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The courses oriented from a VOR station are called ________. |
Radials |
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The radial an aircraft is on DOES NOT account for the aircraft heading. |
Radials are like roads... When you're on the 180 radial, it doesn't matter what your heading is. You're still on, or crossing, the 180. |
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VORs are subject to line-of-sight restrictions, which means... |
Signals cannot penetrate mountains. |
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Three classes of VORs are... |
T (terminal) - used for navigation in a terminal area around and airport.
L (low altitude) - generally used to navigate on airways.
H (high altitude) - used to navigate on all ATS routes. |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A terminal class NAVAID has a ___ mile radius and operates under ________. |
25 miles
12,000 ft and below. |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A terminal class NAVAID has a ___ mile radius and operates under ________. |
25 miles
12,000 ft and below |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A low class NAVAID has a ___ mile radius and operates below ________. |
40 miles
Below 18,000 ft |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID below 14,500 ft has a radius of ____ ________. |
40 miles |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID below 14,500 ft has a radius of ____ ________. |
40 miles |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID operating at altitudes between _______ ft and ________ ft has a radius of ____ ________. |
14,500 - 17,999
100 miles |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID operating at altitudes between _______ ft and FL ____ has a radius of ____ ________. |
18,000 and FL450
130 miles
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID operating at altitudes between _______ ft and FL ____ has a radius of ____ ________. |
18,000 and FL450
130 miles
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID operating at altitudes above ________ has a radius of ____ ________. |
FL450
100 miles |
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID operating at altitudes between _______ ft and FL ____ has a radius of ____ ________. |
18,000 and FL450
130 miles
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*Applies for all VORs TACANs and VORTACs
A high class NAVAID operating at altitudes above ________ has a radius of ____ ________. |
FL450
100 miles |
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VORs may be equipped with voice transmission on the VOR frequency, as well as the morse code identifier.
VORs without voice are indicated in the airport/facility directory by what letter? |
W (without voice) |
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The effectiveness of the VOR depends upon proper use and adjustment of equipment both in the air and on the ground. |
The accuracy of course alignment of the VOR is excellent, generally plus or minus 1 degree. |
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A VOR antenna pattern is ________________. |
Omni-directional |
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A VOR station projects 360 usable __________ dials. |
Magnetic |
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Tactical air navigation (TACAN) is an ultra-high frequency NAVAID. They have the same classification and range as VORs. TACANs are used by the __________. |
Military |
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Distance measuring equipment (DME) is used to measure, in NM, the _______ ________ distance of an aircraft from the NAVAID. |
Slant range |
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Distance information received from DME equipment is SLANT RANGE distance and not actual horizontal distance. |
Note: difference between slant range distance and horizontal distance is greatest near the NAVAID at high altitude. |
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DME works like secondary radar, but backwards. How? |
The transponder is on the ground and picks up a signal from the aircraft, which translates it into distance in NM and it relays it back to the aircraft. |
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DMEs operate on _____ frequencies. |
UHF |
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A NAVAID providing VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth, and TACAN distance measuring equipment (DME) at one site. |
VORTAC |
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Because all components of a VORTAC operate simultaneously and provide services simultaneously, a VORTAC is considered to be a unified NAVAID. |
The frequency channels of the VOR and the TACAN at each VORTAC facility are paired to simplify airborne operation. |
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ILS (instrument landing system) is an approach oath with both course and altitude guidance. Provides exact alignment and descent on final approach to a specific runway.
The system uses two directional transmitters known as the __________ and _______ _________ _____________. |
Localizer
Glide slope transmitters |
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ILS (instrument landing system) is an approach path with both course and altitude guidance. Provides exact alignment and descent on final approach to a specific runway.
The system uses two directional transmitters known as the __________ and _______ _________ _____________. |
Localizer
Glide slope transmitters |
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The __________ provides horizontal (left-right) guidance along the extended centerline of the runway.
*Tells pilots of they're centered upon approach. |
Localizer |
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________ _________ provides vertical (up/down) guidance along the descent path toward the runway touchdown point.
*tells pilots if they're coming in at the right angle. |
Glide slope |
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Marker __________ give range information along the approach path. |
Beacons
Note: most localizers have DMEs at the sight so marker beacons usually aren't necessary. |
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A low power, low or medium frequency (L/MF) radio beacon installed at the site of the outer or middle marker. |
Compass locator |
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The approach course (front course) of the localizer is used with glide slope and beacons and his transmitted from the departure end of the runway. There is a 3 letter morse code identifier. |
The back course (BC) is not used simultaneously with the front course. |
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The approach course (front course) of the localizer is used with glide slope and beacons and his transmitted from the departure end of the runway. There is a 3 letter morse code identifier. |
The back course (BC) is not used simultaneously with the front course. |
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The localizer signal, vertically, extends to a distance 18 NM from the antenna between an altitude 1,000 ft above the highest terrain, and 4,500 ft above the antenna site. |
Laterally, at 18 NM from the antenna, the service volume spreads 10 degrees from either side of the antenna.
At 10 NM out, the range is wider at 35 degrees from either side of the antenna.
Note: ILS approach is not useable is the localizer is out of service. |
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The glide slope provides the pilot with vertical guidance to the runway and operates in the UHF band.
The _______ ______ is the portion of the glide slope that intersects the localizer. |
Glide path |
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The glide slope transmitter is located approximately _____ ft from the approach end of the runway (down the runway). |
1,000 |
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The purpose of the ________ __________ is to identify particular locations on the approach to an instrument runway. |
Marker beacons |
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Marker beacons power output starts 1,000 ft above the antenna and is 2,400 feet in width and ______ feet in length. |
4,200 |
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What type of lights provide the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing? |
Approach lights |
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Some approach light systems include sequenced flashing lights which appear to the pilot as a ball of light traveling quickly toward the runway (running bunny). |
Remember approach lights! |
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What is unaffected by weather and stands for Global Positioning System? |
GPS |
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The inertial navigation system (INS) is self-contained Nd provides aircraft with navigational info based on inertial effects (movement of the aircraft). |
The system navigates along a prefer mines track by yawning "waypoints" |
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The inertial navigation system (INS) is self-contained and provides aircraft with navigational info based on inertial effects (movement of the aircraft). |
The system navigates along a prefered track by yawning "waypoints" |
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INS accuracy is very high following initial alignment and slightly decreases with time at the rate of 1-2 NM per hour. |
Many INS systems now have sophisticated automatic updates using dual DME and or VOR inputs. |
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Who operates GPS? |
United States DOD (Department of Defense) |
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Measurements collected simultaneously from a constellation of satellites produces three dimensions of position (latitude, longitude, altitude), velocity, and time.
How many satellites (at least) are required for two-dimensional accuracy? |
Three
Note: A 4th satellite will add altitude information. |
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Measurements collected simultaneously from a constellation of satellites produces three dimensions of position (latitude, longitude, altitude), velocity, and time.
How many satellites (at least) are required for two-dimensional accuracy? |
Three
Note: A 4th satellite will add altitude information. |
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Two services provided by GPS are Standard Positioning Service (SPS) and Precise Positioning Service (PPS). |
Only the military, federal govt and civil users have access to PPS, but SPS is 99.99% accurate. |
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Three systems used to improve GPS services are RAIM, WAAS, and LASS. |
RAIM is an aircraft based, self-containment fault detection program.
WAAS is an FAA developed ground based system to improve accuracy.
LAAS is an FAA developed satellite and ground based system using GPS to create an extremely accurate navigational signal. |
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Area navigation (RNAV) is a method of navigation which permits aircraft operation on any desired flight path. |
RNAV systems include VOR, DME, GPS, and WAAS and allow aircraft to travel on non-designated routes to bypass certain NAVAIDs. |
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A series of ___________ make up an RNAV route since VORs and DMEs do not. |
Waypoints |
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An ATS Route is a generic term that includes VOR Federal Airways, jet routes, and RNAV Routes. |
Airways (class E airspace) Jet routes (class A airspace) RNAV routes (class A and E) |
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VOR airways are defined by radials of VORs. |
The VOR airway system consists of airways designated generally from 1,200 ft AGL up to, but not including, 18,000 ft MSL. |
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Just like the U.S. Freeway system, _____ numbered airways are generally oriented north-south.
______ numbered airways are generally oriented east-west airways. |
Odd
Even |
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How would route V10 be spoken? |
"Victor ten" |
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The protected airspace for airways and jet routes extend 4NM either side of the centerline.
At ___NM from the NAVAID, the protected airspace increases in width to a maximum of 10 miles either side of the airway centerline. |
51 |
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A segment of an airway, which is common to two or more routes, carries the numbers of all the airways that coincide for that segment.
Ex: V293-41 |
Remember: the airspace includes 10 NM on either side of the airway centerline after traveling 51NM from the NAVAID. Inside 51NM means only 4NM on each side. |
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The jet route system consists of routes established from 18,000 ft MSL to FL450, inclusive.
Jet routes are defined in terms of radials of VORs.
How would you say route J24? |
"J Twenty-four"
J12 is spoken "J Twelve" |
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Published RNAV routes can be flight planned by aircraft with area navigation capability.
There are two types of published RNAV routes. What are they? |
Q routes T routes (tango routes) |
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Published RNAV routes can be flight planned by aircraft with area navigation capability.
There are two types of published RNAV routes. What are they? |
Q routes T routes (tango routes) |
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What RNAV route would an aircraft flying from 18,000 MSL up to and including FL450 be flying on? |
Q route (on a high altitude chart)
Q20 would be spoken "Q Twenty" |
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What RNAV routes are used for aircraft operating up to, but NOT including, 18,000 MSL? |
T routes (on low altitude charts)
T210 is spoken "Tango Two-Ten" |
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Pilot's environment |
Pilot's environment |
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The pitot-static system provides the source of air pressure for the operation of what three instruments? |
Altimeter Vertical speed indicator (VSI) Airspeed indicator |
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What are the two major parts of the pitot-static system? |
The pitot tube with impact pressure chamber and lines.
The static air vents with static pressure chamber and lines.
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The pitot tube is the source of impact pressure.
_______ __________ is the result of the aircraft's motion through the air. |
Impact pressure |
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The pitot tube is directly connected to the ___________ __________. This adversely affects readouts if the tube becomes blocked. |
Airspeed indicator |
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A ________ ____ _____ is a small hole or group of holes connecting outside air pressure to the pitot static instruments. |
Static air vent
Note: all three pitot-static system instruments are vented to static vent openings. Blockage of the vents affects ALL three instruments. |
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A ________ ____ _____ is a small hole or group of holes connecting outside air pressure to the pitot static instruments. |
Static air vent
Note: all three pitot-static system instruments are vented to static vent openings. Blockage of the vents affects ALL three instruments. |
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The ________ displays height of the aircraft above a given level.
Pressure is sensed by an android wafer (barometer) in the altimeter and converted to an altitude. |
Altimeter
Note: Correct altimeter settings are set by the altimeter setting knob. |
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When flying from a higher pressure to a lower pressure (ex. Cold Front), the altimeter will read a higher altitude than the actual altitude. This is because it senses a high altitude density (thinner air).
The plane will adjust and fly lower if the altimeter isn't reset to a current reading.
How to remember? |
High to low... Look out below! |
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When flying from a higher pressure to a lower pressure (ex. Cold Front), the altimeter will read a higher altitude than the actual altitude. This is because it senses a high altitude density (thinner air).
The plane will adjust and fly lower if the altimeter isn't reset to a current reading.
How to remember? |
High to low... Look out below! |
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Flying from low to high pressure results in the plane __________ higher because the altimeter reads a LOWER altitude and adjusts.
Low to high, look to the sky! |
Higher |
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When flying from a higher pressure to a lower pressure (ex. Cold Front), the altimeter will read a higher altitude than the actual altitude. This is because it senses a high altitude density (thinner air).
The plane will adjust and fly lower if the altimeter isn't reset to a current reading.
How to remember? |
High to low... Look out below! |
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Flying from low to high pressure results in the plane __________ higher because the altimeter reads a LOWER altitude and adjusts.
Low to high, look to the sky! |
Higher |
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The VSI (vertical speed indicator) measures the rate of climb or descent in hundreds of feet per minute.
Pretty easy. |
It utilizes static pressure only |
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When flying from a higher pressure to a lower pressure (ex. Cold Front), the altimeter will read a higher altitude than the actual altitude. This is because it senses a high altitude density (thinner air).
The plane will adjust and fly lower if the altimeter isn't reset to a current reading.
How to remember? |
High to low... Look out below! |
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Flying from low to high pressure results in the plane __________ higher because the altimeter reads a LOWER altitude and adjusts.
Low to high, look to the sky! |
Higher |
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The VSI (vertical speed indicator) measures the rate of climb or descent in hundreds of feet per minute.
Pretty easy. |
It utilizes static pressure only |
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There are four colors on an airspeed indicator. What are they? |
White: flap opening range
Green: normal operating range
Yellow: caution range
Red line: never exceed speed |
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The airspeed indicator is the only instrument that uses pitot tube for information. |
Uses impact pressure and measures in KTS. |
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The airspeed indicator is the only instrument that uses pitot tube for information. |
Uses impact pressure and measures in KTS. |
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IAS is read directly from the airspeed indicator.
True airspeed (TAS) is indicated airspeed corrected for temperature and pressure.
TAS is used when filing _______ ______. |
Flight plans
TAS is the actual speed of and aircraft through a mass of air! |
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IAS is read directly from the airspeed indicator.
True airspeed (TAS) is indicated airspeed corrected for temperature and pressure.
TAS is used when filing _______ ______. |
Flight plans
* TAS is the actual speed of an aircraft through a mass of air! |
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TAS and IAS are approximately equal at sea level.
As altitude increases, IAS decreases. (Because of thinner air). |
An airplane at FL350 with an indicated airspeed of 230-250 KTS has a TAS of approximately 430-450 KTS. |
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The _________ _________ is used to tell the pilot the aircraft's heading in relation to magnetic north. |
Magnetic compass |
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The _________ _________ is used to tell the pilot the aircraft's heading in relation to magnetic north. |
Magnetic compass
Note: it's the ONLY self-contained direction-seeking instrument in the aircraft. |
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Two types of compass error are... |
Variation - angular difference between true north and magnetic north.
Deviation - compass error caused by electromagnetic interference within the aircraft. |
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Turn coordinator, heading indicator, and attitude indicator are all instruments that use a __________ for their operation. |
Gyroscope |
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What are two fundamental properties of gyroscopic action? |
Rigidity in space
Precession |
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What are two fundamental properties of gyroscopic action? |
Rigidity in space
Precession |
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Rigidity in space can be applied by applying ___________ which states, "a body at rest will remain at rest; of if in motion in a straight line, it will continue in a straight line unless acted upon by outside force." |
Newton's 1st Law of Motion |
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Precession is the 2nd property of a gyroscope. When force is applies to the rim of a rotating wheel, the resulting force is felt 90 degrees ahead in the direction of the rotation. |
Ex: like pushing down on a clock at the 3 and the pressure being felt 90 degrees ahead on the 6. |
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Precession is the 2nd property of a gyroscope. When force is applied to the rim of a rotating wheel, the resulting force is felt 90 degrees ahead in the direction of the rotation. |
Ex: like pushing down on a clock at the 3 and the pressure being felt 90 degrees ahead on the 6. |
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What instrument shows the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes? |
Turn coordinator
Standard turn is a full 360 degrees in two minutes. |
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The inclinometer of the turn coordinator indicates the coordination of aileron and rudder.
What's the inclinometer? |
A ball in the instrument which indicates if the airplane is in coordinated flight, or if it's in a "skid" or "slip." |
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The inclinometer of the turn coordinator indicates the coordination of aileron and rudder.
What's the inclinometer? |
A ball in the instrument which indicates if the airplane is in coordinated flight, or if it's in a "skid" or "slip." |
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The _________ ___________, or directional gyro, is a mechanical instrument designed to facilitate the use of the magnetic compass. |
Heading indicator
Note: it's not affected by forces that make a magnetic compass difficult to interpret.
Very easy to use. If the nose of the plane on the display is pointing at 27, you're heading due west at 270 degrees :) |
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The __________ __________, also known as the artificial horizon, has a mini aircraft and horizon bar displayed to show pitch and bank attitudes of the aircraft. |
Attitude indicator
* The attitude indicator is reliable and the MOST REALISTIC FLIGHT INSTRUMENT on the instrument panel. |
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What is the automatic direction finder (ADF) used for? |
It's designed to navigate using NDBs. |
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The omnibearing selector (OBS) sometimes referred to as course selector, consists of a knob and azimuth dial and presents information to indicate bearing TO or FROM the VOR. |
If you're flying toward the VOR, the TO (going to) arrow is illuminated and the yellow arrow is pointing at 0.
If you're flying away from the VOR, the FR (from) arrow is illuminated and the yellow arrow is pointing toward 180. |
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ILS Receiving Equipment allows needles to move free through a standard 5-dot deflection to indicate positioning. |
The localizer needle shows if the aircraft is left or right of center, while the glide slope needle deflection indicates position in regard to the glide path. |
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What instrument is designed to receive both VOR and NDB signals? It consists of a rotating compass card, a double-barred bearing indicator, and a single-barred beating indicator. |
Radio magnetic indicator (RMI) |
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The horizontal situation indicator (HSI) is a combination of what three instruments? |
Heading indicator
VOR/LOC indicator
Glide slope indicator |
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DME equipment is used in conjunction with the VOR system to show the pilot exact distances from the VOR. |
The DME aboard the aircraft transmits an interrogating signal which triggers a ground receiver in the equipment. The pulse comes back with approximate distance based on a converted time measurement. |
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The electronic flight instruments, commonly referred to as the "glass cockpit", replaces the conventional instruments in a fully equipped IFR aircraft with computer-generated, color-digital, electronic displays. |
FMS takes raw flight and navigation data and relays it to the pilot. |
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The electronic flight instruments, commonly referred to as the "glass cockpit", replaces the conventional instruments in a fully equipped IFR aircraft with computer-generated, color-digital, electronic displays. |
FMS takes raw flight and navigation data and relays it to the pilot. |
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Three FMS displays are: |
Primary flight display (PFD) - replaces the attitude indicator
Navigation display (ND) - is configured with full compass display or a segmented arc, which is customizable.
Engine indicating and crew alerting system (EICAS) - computerized program that will tell you if there's a problem and exactly how to fix it.
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The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) is a self-contained, airborne collision avoidance system that is intended to provide backup separation services for ATC. |
TCAS is required for most commercial and general aviation aircraft. |
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The Traffic Alert and Collision Avoidance System (TCAS) is a self-contained, airborne collision avoidance system that is intended to provide backup separation services for ATC. |
TCAS is required for most commercial and general aviation aircraft. |
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Three TCAS functions are: |
Surveillance
Collision avoidance system (CAS) algorithms
Air-to-air coordination using data link provided by Mode S Transponder |
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TCAS surveillance function provides info on an intruder aircraft's range, closure rate, bearing, altitude, and vertical speed. |
TCAS II then jumps in and selects a Resolution Advisory (RA) to either increase vertical spacing from the intruder or maintain existing vertical spacing. |
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TCAS surveillance function provides info on an intruder aircraft's range, closure rate, bearing, altitude, and vertical speed. |
TCAS II then jumps in and selects a Resolution Advisory (RA) to either increase vertical spacing from the intruder or maintain existing vertical spacing. |
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If both aircraft are equipped with TCAS II, a data-link ensures both aircraft receive opposite direction RAs to avoid a collision. |
Controllers shall not issue control instructions that are contrary to the assigned RA! |
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TCAS has two levels of alerting:
Traffic advisories (TAs) are issued 45 seconds prior to the closest point of approach (CPA).
Resolution advisories (RAs) are issued 30 seconds prior to CPA (TCAS II only). |
Any pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II RA shall notify ATC of that deviation as soon as practical and expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved. |
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When does hypoxia occur? |
When the oxygen available to the body tissues is insufficient to meet their needs. |
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What are some symptoms of hypoxia? |
Slow reactions Impaired thinking Unusual fatigue Carefree, humorous attitude The pilot may sound intoxicated
Note: if pilot is not using oxygen, suggest descent below 10,000 feet. |
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What is described as the loss of proper bearings resulting in a state of mental confusion as to position, location, or movement? |
Spatial disorientation (vertigo) |
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When there is an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs, the result is _____________. |
Hyperventilation |
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Sectional aeronautical charts are designed to be used by ______ and ________ speed aircraft flying on VFR. |
Slow Medium
Note: sectionals are published every 6 months. They're used primarily for pilotage. |
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What is the map scale of a sectional aeronautical chart? |
1;500,000 (1 inch = 6.86 NM) |
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Map elevation figures (MEF) are shown in each quadrangle on the chart bounded by lines of latitude and longitude.
This section indicates the _________ ________ __________ (either terrain or obstructions) to be found within that section of the chart. |
Highest know feature |
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In MEF, the large number represents __________ of feet and the small number represents __________ of feet above MSL. |
Thousands Hundreds |
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When it comes to height and terrain on a sectional chart, terrain contour lines are generally spaced at _____ foot intervals. |
500ft |
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If you're going toward the outward facing tick marks on a contour line, you're _________ in elevation. |
Climbing
Note: tick marks point toward lower elevation. |
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How often do elevation colors change? |
Every 1,000 feet |
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Airports with control towers are ______ and towers without a control tower are _________. |
Blue Magenta |
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Tick marks coming off of a runway circle indicate that the airport has available ___________ |
Services. |
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Runways that are 1,500 to _______ ft in length appear in a circle. |
8,069 |
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285 L 72 122.95
What is the length of this airport's longest runway? |
7,200 ft |
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285 L 72 122.95
What is the length of this airport's longest runway? |
7,200 ft |
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285 L 72 122.95
What is the elevation of this airport? |
285ft MSL |
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A symbol shaped like a plain hexagon represents what type of NAVAID? |
VOR |
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A hexagon inside of a box represents what type of dual NAVAID? |
VOR-DME |
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Inside of a communication box, there may be a letter surrounded by a dark circle. What do the letters A, T, and H mean? |
A - ASOS/AWOS H - HIWAS T - TWEB |
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Inside of a communication box, there may be a letter surrounded by a dark circle. What do the letters A, T, and H mean? |
A - ASOS/AWOS H - HIWAS T - TWEB |
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Inside of a communication box, there may be a letter surrounded by a dark circle. What do the letters A, T, and H mean? |
A - ASOS/AWOS H - HIWAS T - TWEB |
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If a frequency is underlined, the pilot can NOT receive live transmissions from the FSS, but can receive recorded broadcasts such as HIWAS and TWEBs.
What are emergency frequencies? |
121.5 243.0 |
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On a VFR Flyaway Chart, spaced arrows with an outline of a jet are _________ routes while arrows without a jet are departure routes. |
Arrival |
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What is the scale of a terminal area chart (TAC)? |
1;250,000 (1 inch = 3.43 NM) |
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What is the scale of a world aeronautical chart? |
1;1,000,000 (1 inch = 13.7 NM) |
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Sectionals and TACs are published once every 6 months while WACs are published once every ______. |
Year |
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Which type of aeronautical chart has the least amount of detail? |
World aeronautical chart (WAC) |
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What is the pilot's primary operation manual with detailed information about airports and NAVAIDs? |
Airport facility directory (A/FD) |
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In the A/FD, a double plus sign indicates that during periods of __________ _________ ______, effective hours will be one hour EARLIER than shown. |
Daylight savings time |
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When would a controller use the airport listings section in the Airport/ Facility Directory? |
To recommend a suitable airport to a pilot in the event of an emergency. |
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What type of features are seen on sectional VFR charts but not seen on IFR charts? |
Terrain features. |
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En route _____ _________ charts are designed to provide aeronautical information for enroute navigation during instrument flight below 18,000 ft MSL. |
Low altitude |
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Enroute low altitude charts are published every... |
56 days |
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IFR routes are shown in ___________ numeral order. |
Ascending |
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On an IFR low altitude chart, airports with approved instrument approach procedures and runways longer than 3,000 ft are what colors? |
Blue and green |
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On a low altitude chart, a hatched blue line depicts an _______ boundary. |
ARTCC |
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The OROCA ensures an aircraft an obstruction clearance but no NAVAID/communications. |
It's similar to MEF (maximum elevation features) on a sectional chart. However, it ensures separation minima. |
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En route high altitude charts provide aeronautical information for en route navigation during instrument flight at or above 18,000ft MSL.
How often are they published?
|
Every 56 days |
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Map scale of a high altitude chart is generally 1" = ____ NM. |
1 in = 20 NM |
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For an airport to appear on a high altitude chart, it must have a what? |
A 5,000 ft hard-surfaced runway |
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Are MOAs listed in high altitude charts? |
No. Because MOAs don't exist in class A airspace. |
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When are Minimum en route altitudes (MEAs) shown on a high altitude chart? |
Only if they're higher than 18,000 MSL. |
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Maximum authorized altitudes (MAAs) are shown in MSL altitudes, but only if lower than _______ feet. |
45,000 |
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All NAVAIDs shown on high altitude charts are H class unless identified as "L" or "T" |
L or T class NAVAIDs located off jet routes are shown in light gray (info boxes) and may have an MRA (minimum reception altitude) at a nearby intersection. |
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MEA on Q routes is dependent on type of RNAV equipment in use, which can be determined by the equipment suffix filed in the flight plan. |
MEA-00000G for GNSS RNAV is shown when MEA is other than 18,000 ft.
MEA-00000D for DME/ DME/IRU RNAV aircraft is shown when other than 18,000 ft. |
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On a high altitude chart, open areas (white) indicate controlled airspace (Class A). |
Shaded areas (brown) indicate uncontrolled airspace (Class G). |
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What does it mean if you see "MEA gap" on an IFR chart? |
Flight check couldn't establish the MEA. |
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IFR area charts furnish terminal data for IFR flight on congested areas. The large scale provides greater detail than the Enroute Low Altitude Charts.
What is the scale of an IFR area chart? |
1" = 5-8 miles |
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IFR area charts DO NOT contain a legend and are published every 56 days. |
IFR area charts DO NOT contain a legend and are published every 56 days. |
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Standard instrument departure (SID) charts and standard instrument arrival (STAR) charts are used to ___________ and ___________ the flow of aircraft into and out of terminal areas. |
Organize Expedite |
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A departure procedure for pilot/controller used to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure. |
Standard instrument departure (SID) |
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Does ATC clearance have to be received prior to flying a SID? |
Yes |
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An arrival procedure published for pilot/controller use to provide a transition from the en route structure into the terminal area. |
Standard terminal arrival (STAR) |
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SIDs and STARs are provided to pilots in graphical and textual form with US Terminal Procedures Publications. |
Each SID/STAR is presented as a separate char and usually serves a single airport, but may serve more than one airport if they are situated in the same geographical location. |
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A pre-planned IFR departure procedure published for pilot use that provides obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the en route structure. |
Instrument departure procedures (DPs) |
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There are two types of DPs
ODP and SID |
An obstacle departure procedure (ODP) is printed textually or graphically and provides obstruction clearance via the LEAST ONEROUS ROUTE.
A SID is always printed graphically and provides a standard IFR departure procedure. |
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To find a particular SID in the terminal procedures publication, locate the _____ first, then the airport. |
City
Note: SIDS are always located after the instrument approach procedures (IAPs). One airport may have several SIDs. |
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Two types of SIDs are:
Pilot Navigation SIDs and Vector SIDs. |
Pilot navigation SIDS may include an initial segment requiring radar vectors to help the flight joint the procedure. They use precise radials from a VOR that have been flight checked by FAA pilots.
Vector SIDS do not include departure routes or transition routes because independent pilot navigation is not involved. |
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What are the three sections of a SID chart? |
Margin information Planview Textual description |
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Vector SIDS are at bigger airports to help controllers vector larger amounts of departing planes. They help pilots know what heading they're flying before even taxiing. |
Vector SIDS appear as charts with lots of VORs everywhere. Pilot Nav SIDS have actual routes depicted. |
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What is the pilot required to have at the time of the departure? |
A textual description of the SID.
The textual description is a narrative that correlates with the plan view. |
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Pilots are encouraged to include the phrase "no SID" in the remarks portion of their flight plan if they... |
Cannot comply with a SID Do not posses SID charts Simply do not wish to fly a SID
Either way, they should advise ATC. |
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When a pilot indicates that they will not accept a SID, the controller should... |
Clear the aircraft via the filed route, if possible. |
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What are the two types of departure procedures? |
Obstacle Departure Procedure
Standard Departure Procedure |
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STAR charts are designed to expedite ATC arrival procedures and to facilitate transition between en route and instrument approach operations. |
STARs and their related transitions are long range planning tools that funnel arrival traffic into one-way corridors.
Use of a STAR requires pilot possession of the approved chart. |
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Unlike SIDS, which are located with the IAPs and the airport diagram, STARs have their own separate section in the front of the book. |
Arrivals from several directions can be accompanied on the same chart.
A STAR Transition is a published segment used to connect one or more Enroute airways, jet routes, or RNAV routes to the basic STAR procedure. |
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Like on SIDS, pilots are encouraged to write "___ ______" on their flight plan if they do not wish to be issued a Standard Terminal Arrival Route. |
No STAR |
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The graphic depiction of a SID or a STAR is found in the _________ section of the chart.
A. Margin B. Planview C. Textual description |
B. Planview |
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Standard instrument approach procedure (IAP) |
A series of predetermined maneuvers by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point where a safe landing can be made. |
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The IAP charts provide the method to descend and land safely in low visibility conditions. The FAA establishes an instrument approach procedure chart after analyses of obstructions, terrain, and NAVAIDs.
How often are they published? |
Every 56 days |
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What are four segments of an instrument approach? |
Initial approach Intermediate approach Final approach Missed approach |
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What are four segments of an instrument approach? |
Initial approach Intermediate approach Final approach Missed approach |
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The segment between the initial approach fix and the intermediate fix point where the aircraft is established on the intermediate course... |
Initial approach |
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Segment between the intermediate fix point and the final approach fix... |
Intermediate approach segment |
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The segment between the final approach fix or point and the runway... |
Final approach |
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The segment between the final approach fix or point and the runway... |
Final approach |
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The segment between the missed approach point or the point of arrival at decision height and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude.
Consists of a climb to a safe altitude and a turn or heading to a point where the aircraft will hold. The point at which the final approach must be abandoned. |
Missed approach |
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Instrument procedures are either "precision" or "non-precision"
Precision approaches provide BOTH LATERAL and VERTICAL guidance with ground based support.
Non-precision approaches provide LATERAL course info ONLY. |
Precision: ILS and PAR
Non-precision: RNAV, LOC, VOR, TACAN, VOR/DME, GPS, NDB, and ASR. |
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ILS provides both course and altitude guidance to a specific runway. What are the primary ILS components? |
Localizer - horizontal (left-right) guidance
Glide slope - vertical (up-down) guidance
Marker beacons
Approach lights
Supplementary components are compass locators and DME. |
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ILS provides both course and altitude guidance to a specific runway. What are the primary ILS components? |
Localizer - horizontal (left-right) guidance
Glide slope - vertical (up-down) guidance
Marker beacons
Approach lights
Supplementary components are compass locators and DME. |
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If the glide slope is inoperative during an approach, what is the rest of the procedure classified as? |
Localizer approach (LOC)
Note: ILS approach is not possible without the localizer. |
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Can a pilot legally land if he can't see the runway at the minimum decision altitude? |
No |
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What type of approach provides lateral guidance for aircraft with specific and appropriate equipment? |
RNAV (GPS) |
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What type of approach uses a radial which is to be intercepted and tracked and leads to the airport? |
VOR approach |
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What is the least accurate of all instrument approaches and has the highest minimums? |
NDB approach |
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What type of approach is conducted with surveillance radar that provides azimuth and range only? ATC will be communicating with the pilot via radio. |
ASR approach |
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Does an aircraft have to be in instrument flight conditions to execute an instrument approach procedure (IAP)? |
No |
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What's the purpose of the marker beacon? |
To identify a particular location along the glide slope. |
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What are IAP charts commonly referred to as? |
Approach plates |
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Like SIDS and STARS, IAPs are listed alphabetically in the U.S. Terminal Procedures Volumes... first under _____, then under ________. |
City Airport |
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The 6 sections of the IAP are: |
Margin info Pilot briefing info Plan view Airport diagram Profile view Minimums section |
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In an IAP chart, where would you find the airport's lat/long coordinates? |
Center of the bottom margin |
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Letters from the end of the alphabet, appearing in the approach name, denote approaches to the same runway using the same approach NAVAID.
|
Ex. RNAV Z Runway 4 or RNAV Y Runway 4 |
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Letters from the end of the alphabet, appearing in the approach name, denote approaches to the same runway using the same approach NAVAID.
|
Ex. RNAV Z Runway 4 or RNAV Y Runway 4 |
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Letters from the beginning of the alphabet, that are used as a suffix to the approach name denote procedures that don't meet the criteria for a straight-in approach. |
Ex. VOR-A or GPS-B
Could be used for a circling runway approach (non-direct) |
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In what section of the IAS chart are all communication frequencies listed in order in which they'll be used during the approach? |
Pilot briefing info |
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The _____ _____ provides a graphical overhead view of the procedure and depicts the routes that guide the pilot from the en route segments to the initial approach fix. |
Plan view |
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On the plan view, obstruction heights are always in ____. |
MSL |
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A procedure turn is used to get a pilot lined up with the localizer... Will generally go out up to 10NM and make a right or left turn followed by the opposite turn to complete the redirection. |
Plan views also include MSAs (minimum safe altitudes), missed approach tracks, published holding patterns, markers, and NAVAIDs. |
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When are minimum safe altitudes (MSAs) used? |
In emergencies.
They can be used within 25NM of the NAVAID upon which the approach is predicated. It ensures 1,000ft of obstruction clearance. |
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What type of chart is used by aircraft equipped with GPS equipment and based on a 30-mile radius of the initial approach fix (IAF)? |
Terminal arrival area (TAA) |
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What type of diagram gives information on elevation, obstructions, touch dis zone elevation, displaced thresholds, and lighting aids? |
Airport diagram |
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The altitude at which a decision must be made during a PRECISION approach to either continue or execute a missed approach... |
Decision altitude (DA)
Note: decision-precision!
MDA = non-precision |
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The lowest altitude to which descent is authorized on final approach where no electronic glide slope is provided (non-precision). |
Minimum descent altitude (MDA) |
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On what type of approach is there a decision altitude to be made? |
Decision-Precision!!
A precision approach |
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On a precision approach, what shows a side view of the IAP? |
Profile view.
Courses, maximum distance of procedure turn, minimum procedure turn altitude, minimum glide slope intercept, and final approach fix (FAF) are found on the plan view. |
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How is a final approach fix (FAF) depicted? |
A lightning bolt when flown as full ILS approach with glide slope.
A Maltese cross when flown as a localizer approach (glide slope inoperative). |
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Aircraft approach categories and approach variations are contained in the __________ section. |
Minimums |
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Three variations of an approach are... |
Straight-in - to the aligned runway.
Localizer - when the glide slope component is inoperative.
Circling - when aircraft must circle another runway because of wind or velocity or runway restrictions. |
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Will you see more listed altitudes on a precision approach chart or a non-precision approach? |
Precision.
Note: you'll see more fixes on a non-precision |
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The height of decision altitude (DA) or minimum descent altitude (MDA) above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone. |
Height above touchdown zone (HAT) |
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The height of decision altitude (DA) or minimum descent altitude (MDA) above the highest runway elevation in the touchdown zone. |
Height above touchdown zone (HAT) |
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The height of the MDA above the published airport elevation. |
Height above airport (HAA) |
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What RNAV approach is based on WAAS lateral and vertical guidance? |
LPV - Localizer performance with vertical guidance |
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This type of approach is conducted on an IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually to the airport clear of clouds (basically VFR on an IFR flight plan) |
Visual approach |
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What are weather minimums for a visual approach to an airport? |
Ceiling must be above 1,000 ft and visibility greater than 3 SM. |
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This type of approach will only be authorized when requested by the pilot and the reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 SM. |
Contact approach |
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This type of approach will only be authorized when requested by the pilot and the reported ground visibility at the destination airport is at least 1 SM. |
Contact approach |
