Atc Basics Block 2 Study Questions A

Front 1

451. Which special use airspace is always located offshore?
A. Warning Area
B. Alert Area
C. Controlled Firing Area
D. National Security Area

Back 1

A. Warning Area

Front 2

466. ATC does not have the authority or the responsibility to issue clearances in class airspace.
A. C B. D C. E D. G

Back 2

D. Class G

Front 3

480. Which type of special use airspace may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or unusual types of
aerial activities, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft?
A. Alert areas
B. Prohibited areas
C. Restricted areas
D. Warning areas

Back 3

A. Alert Areas

Front 4

481. What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?
A. 2,500 feet MSL
B. Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL
C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation
D. 3,500 AGL

Back 4

C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation

Front 5

571. Which airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports?
A. Class A B. Class B C. Class C D. Class D

Back 5

B. Class B

Front 6

669. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement
B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude
C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare
D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number

Back 6

A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement

Front 7

237 A service operated by appropriate authority to promote the safe,orderly, expeditious flow of air traffic.

Back 7

Air Traffic Control

Front 8

238 A device that is used or intended to be used for flight in the air.

Back 8

Aircraft

Front 9

239 An area of land or water that is used or intended to be used for the landing and takeoff of aircraft.

Back 9

Airport

Front 10

240 Specified information relating to the intended flight of an aircraft, that is filed orally, in writing, or by computer with air traffic control.

Back 10

Flight Plan

Front 11

241 An authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collision between known aircraft, and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace.

Back 11

Air Traffic Clearance

Front 12

242 Separation of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control.

Back 12

Positive Control

Front 13

243 A level of constant atmospheric pressure related to a reference datum of 29.92 inches of mercury.

Back 13

Flight Level.

Front 14

244 A geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported.

Back 14

Reporting Point

Front 15

245 Separation in accordance with the applicable minima in FAA Order JO 7110.65.

Back 15

Approved Seperation

Front 16

246. A pilot in command may deviate from FAR 91 if;
A. the aircraft is within Class G airspace
B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action
C. the aircraft is in visual conditions
D. an ATC clearance is requested

Back 16

B. there is an emergency requiring immediate action

Front 17

247. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way
B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way
C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right
D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way

Back 17

A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way

Front 18

248. Pilots of two aircraft may operate as a formation flight when;
A. authorization is obtained from ATC
B. flight visibility is at least 3 miles
C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard
D. flight is conducted at or above 1,500 feet MSL

Back 18

C. prior arrangements are made and no paying passengers are aboard

Front 19

249. ATC specialists who are age 40 and above shall be scheduled by facility managers for medical
examinations every ______ if in the terminal or center environment.
A. 3 years
B. year
C. 2 years
D. 6 months

Back 19

B. Year

Front 20

250. The maximum speed authorized by FAR for aircraft below 10,000 feet MSL is knots.
A. 250
B. 200
C. 180
D. 150

Back 20

A. 250

Front 21

251. Airspeed in a VFR corridor through Class B airspace shall not be more than knots.
A. 150 B. 180 C. 200 D. 250

Back 21

C. 200

Front 22

252. A pilot operating below 18,000 feet MSL shall set the altimeter to;
A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft
B. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 200 NM of the aircraft
C. 29.29 in hg
D. 29.92 in hg

Back 22

A. current altimeter setting of a station along the route and within 100 NM of the aircraft

Front 23

253. When operating an aircraft at an airport in Class G Airspace that has an operating control tower, unless
otherwise authorized, the pilot must have ____.
A. a transponder with Mode C
B. a transponder only
C. radar contact and two-way communications
D. two-way radio communications with the tower

Back 23

D. two-way radio communications with the tower

Front 24

254. The minimum age required to obtain an ATC control tower operator certificate is: _.
A. 18
B. 21
C. 30
D. No age requirement

Back 24

A. 18

Front 25

449. A pilot in command operating in VFR conditions shall not cancel an IFR flight plan while operating in Class ______
Airspace.
A. D
B. C
C. B
D. A

Back 25

D. A

Front 26

450. What pre-flight action does FAR 91 require pilots to take before beginning a flight?
A. File a flight plan
B. Receive ATC authorization for the flight
C. Advise ATC of intentions
D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight

Back 26

D. Familiarize themselves with all available information concerning the flight

Front 27

463. An ATC specialist who is 41 years of age and works in the Terminal option is required to have a medical
examination every ____ .
A. year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

Back 27

A. Year

Front 28

464. Which of the following statements is true concerning FAR Part 91 aircraft speed restrictions?
A. Above 10,000 MSL, no aircraft may exceed 250 knots.
B. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots in any Class C airspace.
C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace.
D. Under no circumstances may an aircraft exceed 250 knots in Class B airspace.

Back 28

C. No aircraft may exceed 200 knots when operating below Class B airspace

Front 29

465. A(n) ______ is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.
A. ATC Clearance
B. Flight Plan
C. Supplement
D. Notice

Back 29

B. Flight Plan

Front 30

478. To be eligible for an ATC tower operator's certificate, you must hold a ______medical certificate.
A. First Class
B. Second Class
C. Third Class
D. No medical is required.

Back 30

B. Second Class

Front 31

479. An aircraft has the right-of-way over all other aircraft when it is in _______.
A. VFR conditions
B. distress
C. IFR conditions
D. controlled airspace

Back 31

B. Distress

Front 32

572. ATC specialists in Terminal or Center, age 39 and below, shall be scheduled for medical examinations by facility managers ________.
A. twice a year
B. every year
C. every three years
D. every two years

Back 32

D. Every two years

Front 33

622. To be eligible for an , an individual must be at least 18 years of age, of good moral character,
able to read, write, and understand the English language, speak English without an accent or impediment,
and hold a valid second class medical certificate.
A. ATC airspace operator license
B. ATC airspace specialist certificate
C. ATC tower operator certificate
D. ATC tower specialist license

Back 33

C. ATC tower operator certificate

Front 34

623. Which of the following Right-of-Way rules is not correct?
A. Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way
B. Overtaking, aircraft being overtaken has right-of-way
C. Head-on, both aircraft give way to the right
D. Landing, aircraft on final approach has right-of-way

Back 34

A Converging aircraft, aircraft on the left has right-of-way

Front 35

670. A ________is specified information, relating to the intended flight of an aircraft.
A. ATC Clearance
B. Flight Plan
C. Supplement
D. Notice

Back 35

B. Flight Plan

Front 36

65. A pilot operating above 12,500 feet MSL, up to and including 14,000 feet MSL, must use supplemental
oxygen _______.
A. constantly
B. after 1 hour of flight
C. after 15 minutes of flight
D. after 30 minutes of flight

Back 36

D. after 30 minutes of flight

Front 37

66. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in class ____ and ____
airspace.
A. B;C
B. C;D
C. B;E
D. A;E

Back 37

B. C:D

Front 38

67. If takeoff minimums are not prescribed for a particular airport, the minimum visibility required for an air taxi
aircraft having two engines or less is ____ statute mile(s).
A. 1/2
B. 1
C. 11/2
D. 2

Back 38

B. 1

Front 39

68. Aircraft operating on an airway at the published MOCA are only guaranteed ________ within _________
of the VOR serving the airway.
A. terrain clearance; 22SM
B. terrain clearance; 22NM
C. NAVAID signal; 22SM
D. NAVAID signal; 22NM

Back 39

D. NAVAID signal; 22NM

Front 40

69. Which of the following statements regarding “VFR on top” (OTP) is true?
A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP
B. Pilots maintaining OTP are required to obtain ATC approval prior to changing altitude
C. Pilots maintaining OTP may, after advising ATC, deviate from their cleared route
D. Traffic advisories will not be provided by ATC

Back 40

A. Pilots must request clearance to maintain OTP

Front 41

70. An aircraft on an IFR flight plan is in VFR conditions when a two-way radio failure occurs. The pilot shall______.
A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable
B. return IFR to point of departure
C. squawk code 7500
D. proceed to nearest airport and execute an IFR approach

Back 41

A. proceed VFR and land as soon as practicable

Front 42

71. Which of the following would not be an assigned flight level?
A. FL360
B. FL320
C. FL240
D. FL160

Back 42

D. FL160

Front 43

72. An inappropriate cruising altitude for an aircraft flying VFR on a magnetic course of 360 degrees is:
A. 2,000 MSL
B. 2,500 MSL
C. 3,500 MSL
D. 4,500 MSL

Back 43

D. 4,500 MSL

Front 44

73. Which one of the following items is not required on a VFR flight plan?
A. Pilot’s name and address
B. Fuel on board
C. Name of each occupant
D. Type of aircraft

Back 44

C. Name of each occupant

Front 45

74. A pilot shall file a DVFR flight plan if the flight will ______ .
A. be in instrument flight conditions
B. enter positive control airspace
C. enter coastal ADIZ
D. enter Class D airspace

Back 45

C. enter coastal ADIZ

Front 46

75. VFR aircraft in class E airspace at or above ____ , must maintain visibility ______. because there is
no speed limit at that altitude.
A. 1200 feet AGL; 3SM
B. 1200 feet AGL; 5SM
C. 10,000 MSL; 3SM
D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM

Back 46

D. 10,000 MSL; 5SM

Front 47

76. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding SVFR clearances to fixed wing aircraft?
A. The pilot must request SVFR clearance
B. A SVFR flight plan must be filed
C. Flight visibility must be at least 1SM
D. SVFR shall only be approved below 10,000 MSL

Back 47

A SVFR flight plan must be filed

Front 48

446. When an IFR flight loses two-way communications with ATC, controllers should consider the pilot’s actions
with regard to their:
A. route, speed and altitude
B. route, time to leave their clearance limit and speed
C.altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit
D. altitude, time to leave their clearance limit and speed.

Back 48

C. altitude, route and time to leave their clearance limit

Front 49

447. FAR Part covers General Operating and Flight Rules.
A. 67
B. 121
C. 91
D. 135

Back 49

C. 91

Front 50

448. Which of the following statements concerning special VFR (SVFR) is true?
A. ATC clearance is required.
B. SVFR operations may be conducted at any altitude below FL180.
C. Pilot need not request SVFR clearance.
D. 3SM visibility is required.

Back 50

A. ATC clearance is required.

Front 51

461. A pilot flying VFR must maintain at least 5 miles visibility in all or part of class __ and ___
airspace.
A. E;A
B. E;G
C. G;D
D. C;D

Back 51

B. E;G

Front 52

462. No person may operate an aircraft under VFR in Class C airspace with a flight visibility of less than
A. 1NM
B. 1SM
C. 3NM
D. 3SM

Back 52

D. 3SM

Front 53

475. What is the requirement for supplemental oxygen above 15,000 MSL?
A. Only the pilot is provided supplemental oxygen
B. None
C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen
D. Pilot and co-pilot are provided supplemental oxygen

Back 53

C. Each occupant of aircraft is provided with supplemental oxygen

Front 54

476. A pilot flying under IFR conditions experiences a radio failure. If a route has not been assigned and/or ATC
has not advised a route to be expected, what action should the pilot take?
A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan.
B. Land at nearest available airport.
C. Climb to VFR-on-top and continue flight.
D. Proceed to alternate airport.

Back 54

A. Proceed by the route filed in the flight plan

Front 55

477. An appropriate magnetic course for an aircraft flying VFR at 6,500 feet MSL and more than 3,000 feet AGL
would be degrees ____.
A. 190
B. 100
C. 360
D. 010

Back 55

A. 190

Front 56

573. A pilot flying VFR must stay at least 2,000 feet laterally from the clouds in classes __ and __ airspace.
A. B;C
B. C;D
C. C;E
D. D;E

Back 56

B. C;D

Front 57

574. A pilot must use supplemental oxygen for the entire flight when flying at altitudes _.
A. between 12,500 MSL up to and including 14,000 MSL
B. above 14,000 MSL
C. above 15,000 MSL
D. the pilot is not required to use supplemental oxygen

Back 57

B. above 14,000 MSL

Front 58

624. Filing a VFR flight plan is ________.
A. optional, but strongly encouraged
B. mandatory when penetrating a Military Operations Area
C. only necessary when weather conditions are below VFR minimums
D. only necessary for search and rescue missions

Back 58

A. optional, but strongly encouraged

Front 59

625. At an airport where takeoff minimums are not prescribed (revenue flights only), an aircraft with two engines
or less may depart when there is at least ______statute mile(s) visibility.
A. 3
B. 2
C. 1
D. 0

Back 59

C. 1

Front 60

51. The lower limit of Class B airspace is .
A. 1,200 feet AGL
B. 1,200 feet MSL
C. 1,500 feet AGL
D. the surface

Back 60

D. the surface

Front 61

52. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Military Operations Area (MOA)?
A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number
B. Established outside Class A airspace
C. Activities include low altitude, high-speed flight
D. MOAs are depicted on Sectional Aeronautical and En Route Low altitude charts

Back 61

A. Identified by the letter “M” plus a number

Front 62

53. The upper vertical limit of Class A airspace is ______.
A. up to but not including FL450
B. FL450
C. up to but not including FL600
D. FL600

Back 62

D. FL600

Front 63

54. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement
B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude
C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare
D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number

Back 63

A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement

Front 64

55. A Warning Area is established beyond NM from the coast of the United States.
A. 1
B. 3
C. 5
D. 12

Back 64

B. 3

Front 65

56. The upper limit of Class G airspace is .
A. 1200 AGL
B. 1200 MSL
C. the base of the overlying airspace
D. the base of Class E airspace

Back 65

C. the base of the overlying airspace

Front 66

57. What airspace contains federal airways?
A. Class A
B. Class C
C. Class E
D. Class G

Back 66

C. Class E

Front 67

58. What airspace is generally established from the surface to 4,000 feet above the airport elevation and has an
operational control tower?
A. Class B
B. Class C
C. Class D
D. Class E

Back 67

B. Class C

Front 68

59. Airspace of defined dimensions, confined activities, and limitations imposed on nonusers is identified as _______ airspace.
A. controlled
B. Class E
C. Special Use
D. Class G

Back 68

C. Special Use

Front 69

60 Which airspace Generally extends upward to 10,000 feet MSL

Back 69

Class B

Front 70

61 VFR aircraft need to receive a clearance from ATC to be in which airspace

Back 70

Class B

Front 71

62 Which airspace requires all aircraft to be IFR

Back 71

Class A

Front 72

63 No transponder is required to be in this airspace.

Back 72

Class D

Front 73

64 VFR aircraft are separated only from IFR aircraft in this airspace.

Back 73

Class C

Front 74

451. Which special use airspace is always located offshore?
A. Warning Area
B. Alert Area
C. Controlled Firing Area
D. National Security Area

Back 74

A. Warning Area

Front 75

466. ATC does not have the authority or the responsibility to issue clearances in class airspace.
A. C
B. D
C. E
D. G

Back 75

D. Class G

Front 76

480. Which type of special use airspace may contain a high volume of pilot training activities or unusual types of
aerial activities, neither of which is hazardous to aircraft?
A. Alert areas
B. Prohibited areas
C. Restricted areas
D. Warning areas

Back 76

A. Alert Areas

Front 77

481. What is generally the vertical limit of Class D airspace?
A. 2,500 feet MSL
B. Up to, but not including, 18,000 MSL
C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation
D. 3,500 AGL

Back 77

C. 2,500 feet above airport elevation

Front 78

571. Which airspace extends from the surface to 10,000 feet MSL surrounding the nation’s busiest airports?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D

Back 78

B. Class B

Front 79

669. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a Prohibited Area?
A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement
B. Begins at the surface of the earth and extends upward to a defined altitude
C. Established for security or other reasons associated with the national welfare
D. Identified by the letter “P” plus a number

Back 79

A. Established around residential areas for noise abatement

Front 80

255. Bernoulli’s Principle states: “The internal pressure of a fluid ______at points where the speed of the fluid_____.”
A. increases; increases
B. decreases; increases
C. increases; decreases
D. decreases; decreases

Back 80

B. decreases; increases

Front 81

256. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the ______ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the ______
A. pitch; tilt
B. speed; pitch
C. tilt; pitch
D. angle; speed

Back 81

C. tilt; pitch

Front 82

257. Which of the following does NOT affect aircraft performance?
A. Temperature
B. Moisture
C. Pressure
D. Relative wind

Back 82

D. Relative Wind

Front 83

258. A secondary form of lift is a(n) __________ generated by air striking the underside of the airfoil and being deflected _________.
A. upward force; downward
B. downward force, upward
C. pressure differential; over the wing
D. upward force; over the wing

Back 83

A. upward force; downward

Front 84

259. An imaginary straight line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of a cross section of an airfoil is called the _.
A. chord line
B. camber
C. relative wind
D. angle of attack

Back 84

A. Chord Line

Front 85

260. When ____and _____ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses airspeed.
A. thrust; drag
B. lift; thrust
C. lift; weight
D. weight; drag

Back 85

A. Thrust; drag

Front 86

261. What force in flight counteracts lift?
A. Pressure
B. Thrust
C. Weight
D. Relative wind

Back 86

C. Weight

Front 87

262. What is used to determine the angle of attack?
A. Chord line and the ground
B. Relative wind and chord line
C. Flight path and relative wind
D. Flight path and upper camber

Back 87

B. Relative wind and chord line

Front 88

263. If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the ______and _____ axes.
A. longitudinal; vertical
B. lateral; vertical
C. longitudinal; lateral
D. lateral; horizontal

Back 88

B. lateral; vertical

Front 89

264. Relative wind flows in a ____ direction and ____the direction of flight.
A. parallel with; opposite to
B. parallel with; perpendicular to
C. opposite to; perpendicular to
D. opposite to; divergent from

Back 89

A. parallel with; opposite to

Front 90

265. The blades of a helicopter are shaped like ____ and act as ______.
A. airfoils; ailerons
B. ailerons; elevators
C. airfoils; wings
D. ailerons; wings

Back 90

C. airfoils; wings

Front 91

266. Which of the following is a principal airfoil?
A. Rudder
B. Propeller
C. Fuselage
D. Trim tabs

Back 91

B. Propeller

Front 92

267. When air density decreases what occurs?
A. Rate of climb is faster and landing speed will be faster
B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased
C. Takeoff run is longer and the engine produces more power
D. Rate of climb is slower and takeoff run is shorter

Back 92

B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased

Front 93

268. An aircrafts movement around the longitudinal axis is controlled by the____ and is called __________.
A. rudder; yaw
B. ailerons; roll
C. elevator; pitch
D. ailerons; yaw and is called

Back 93

B. ailerons; roll

Front 94

269. At approximately what angle of attack will air no longer flow smoothly over the wing’s upper surface?
A. 5-10
B. 10-15
C. 13-18
D. 15-20

Back 94

D. 15-20

Front 95

270. What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing?
A. Pitot tube icing
B. Wing icing
C. Carburetor icing
D. Windshield icing

Back 95

C. Carburetor icing

Front 96

271. What is the basic purpose of the autorotation maneuver in a helicopter?
A. Provide a controlled landing when the engine is no longer supplying power
B. Conserve fuel during cruise flight
C. Maintain a constant altitude
D. Allow hovering flight in a strong wind

Back 96

A. Provide a controlled landing when the engine is no longer supplying power

Front 97

443. The pitch (angle of attack) of a helicopter rotor blade is controlled by the _____.
A. cyclic
B. throttle
C. collective
D. antitorque pedal

Back 97

C. Collective

Front 98

444. Actual atmospheric pressure at a given time and place does not depend on which of the following?
A. Temperature
B. Wind
C. Density of the air
D. Altitude

Back 98

B. Wind

Front 99

445. A term for the air flow which is parallel with, and opposite to, the direction of flight is called a/an
A. angle of attack
B. relative wind
C. flight path
D. headwind

Back 99

B. Relative Wind

Front 100

458. The forces that are acting on a helicopter in flight are lift, thrust, ___ and ___.
A. torque, drag
B. weight, gravity
C. angle of attack, drag
D. weight, drag

Back 100

D. Weight, Drag

Front 101

459. With a(n) ___ in airspeed, drag ___.
A. increase; increases rapidly
B. increase; decreases rapidly
C. decrease; increases rapidly
D. decrease; remains the same

Back 101

A. increase; increases rapidly

Front 102

460. When air is forced to travel at a faster speed across the top of a wing versus the bottom, this will result in _______the wing.
A. lower pressure above
B. lower pressure below
C. higher pressure above
D. atmospheric pressure above

Back 102

A. lower pressure above

Front 103

472. The most hazardous aspect of structural icing is .
A. decreases weight
B. increased drag
C. reduced thrust
D. airfoil distortion

Back 103

D. airfoil distortion

Front 104

473. Which are the primary control surfaces on an airplane?
A. Ailerons, elevator, and flaps
B. Elevator, flaps, and trim tabs
C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator
D. Flaps, ailerons, and propeller

Back 104

C. Rudder, ailerons, and elevator

Front 105

474. Which of the following is NOT a principal airfoil?
A. Wing
B. Propeller
C. Horizontal tail surface
D. Fuselage

Back 105

D. Fuselage

Front 106

576. When_____ and_____ are in equilibrium, the aircraft neither gains nor loses altitude.
A. lift; weight
B. lift; thrust
C. thrust; drag
D. weight; drag

Back 106

A. Lift; weight

Front 107

577. What type of icing is an aircraft likely to encounter when flying in temperatures above freezing?
A. Pitot tube icing
B. Wing icing
C. Carburetor icing
D. Windshield icing

Back 107

C. Carburetor icing

Front 108

626. If a pilot adjusts the pitch and yaw, the aircraft is moving along the __ and __ axes.
A. longitudinal; vertical
B. lateral; vertical
C. longitudinal; lateral
D. lateral; horizontal

Back 108

B. lateral; vertical

Front 109

627. According to Bernoulli’s principle, lift is a result of differential ______.
A. airspeed
B. pressure
C. temperature
D. reaction

Back 109

B. pressure

Front 110

628. The blades of a helicopter are shaped like _____and act as _____ .
A. airfoils; ailerons
B. ailerons; elevators
C. airfoils; wings
D. ailerons; wings

Back 110

C. airfoils; wings

Front 111

671. When air density decreases what occurs?
A. Rate of climb is faster and landing speed will be faster
B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased
C. Takeoff run is longer and the engine produces more power
D. Rate of climb is slower and takeoff run is shorter

Back 111

B. Landing speed is faster and engine power output will be decreased

Front 112

672. Which of the following is not a principal airfoil?
A. Wing
B. Fuselage
C. Propeller
D. Horizontal tail surfaces

Back 112

B. Fuselage

Front 113

673. Regarding helicopters, the cyclic controls the ___ of the rotor blades and the collective controls the ___.
A. pitch; tilt
B. speed; pitch
C. tilt; pitch
D. angle; speed

Back 113

C. tilt; pitch

Front 114

77. The definition of “wake turbulence” includes a number of phenomenon affecting flight safety. Which of the
four choices are not included in the definition?
A. Mach buffet
B. Rotorwash
C. Propeller wash
D. Jet blast

Back 114

A. Mach buffet

Front 115

78. Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to ____ .
A. taxi
B. generate lift
C. slow on approach
D. touchdown on the runway

Back 115

B. Generate lift

Front 116

79. ________is jet engine exhaust.
A. Prop-wash
B. Wake turbulence
C. Jet blast
D. Counter control

Back 116

C. jet blast

Front 117

80. A _________ wing allows for a stronger vortex to be generated, because without flaps the wing has a smaller
area and wing loading is greater per square foot.
A. delta
B. clean configured
C. high
D. low

Back 117

B. clean configured

Front 118

81. With zero wind, vortices near the ground will travel laterally at a speed of __________ knots.
A. 10to20
B. 5to10
C. 2to3
D. 0

Back 118

C. 2 to 3

Front 119

82. Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the____________
of the vortex.
A. vertical limits
B. outer edges
C. sink rate
D. induced roll

Back 119

B. outer edges

Front 120

83. Downwash is created by _______ .
A. Propeller driven aircraft
B. Jet aircraft
C. Helicopters
D. Turboprop airplane

Back 120

C. Helicopters

Front 121

441. A helicopter generates wingtip vortices when .
A. lift is first generated
B. in stationary hover
C. in vertical ascent
D. in forward flight

Back 121

D. in forward flight

Front 122

442. Which three aircraft characteristics represent the greatest generated wake turbulence?
A. Heavy, dirty, slow
B. Small, clean, fast
C. Large, dirty, slow
D. Heavy, clean, slow

Back 122

D. heavy, clean, slow

Front 123

456. Counter control to a wake turbulence induced roll is most effective when _.
A. there is no more than a 5 knot crosswind
B. a large aircraft follows a heavy aircraft
C. a rapid descent is made
D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex

Back 123

D. the ailerons extend beyond the edge of the vortex

Front 124

457. The effect of the rotating air masses generated behind the wing tips of aircraft or behind the rotor tips of
helicopters in forward motion is _________.
A. updrafts and downdrafts
B. wake turbulence
C. low-level wind shear
D. attitude variations

Back 124

B. wake turbulence

Front 125

470. ___ is jet engine exhaust.
A. Prop-wash
B. Wake turbulence
C. Jet blast
D. Counter control

Back 125

C. Jet Blast

Front 126

471. Which of the following statements regarding wingtip vortices is true?
A. They drift inward and sink.
B. They drift outward and sink.
C. They drift inward and rise.
D. They drift outward and rise.

Back 126

B. They drift outward and sink

Front 127

579. A hovering helicopter will generate a high speed outward vortex to a distance of approximately _______
times the diameter of the rotor.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Back 127

C. 3

Front 128

629. The _____of the aircraft is the greatest factor that affects the intensity of wake turbulence.
A. speed
B. shape of the wing
C. vortex strength
D. weight

Back 128

D. weight

Front 129

630. Vortices are generated at the moment an aircraft begins to ______.
A. taxi
B. leave the ground
C. slow on approach
D. touchdown on the runway

Back 129

B. leave the ground

Front 130

631. Another name for thrust stream turbulence is _.
A. turbine wash
B. burner blast
C. jet fuel burn
D. jet blast

Back 130

D. Jet blast

Front 131

674. Counter control is most effective and roll is minimal when the wingspan and the ailerons extend beyond the ____ of the vortex.
A. vertical limits
B. outer edges
C. sink rate
D. induced roll

Back 131

B. outer edges

Front 132

272. An aircraft with a certificated takeoff weight of more than 41,000 lbs. up to but not including 300,000 lbs. is
classified as _.
A. heavy
B. large
C. small
D. medium

Back 132

B. large

Front 133

273. A small business jet aircraft will fall into which aircraft category?
A. Small
B. Category I
C. Category II
D. Category III

Back 133

D. Category III

Front 134

274. A C17 is what type of aircraft?
A. Cessna
B. Cargo
C. Caravan
D. Commercial

Back 134

B. Cargo

Front 135

275. Three (3) of the 6 basic tail configurations are .
A. conventional, forward slant and “T”
B. swept, delta and straight
C. horizontal stabilizer above fuselage, empennage and modified “V”
D. twin boom, conventional and delta

Back 135

A. conventional, forward slant and “T”

Front 136

276. Most CAT I aircraft will generally operate within which speed range?
A. Zero–90 Knots
B. 100-160 Knots
C. 160-250 Knots
D. 300-550 Knots

Back 136

B. 100-160 Knots

Front 137

277. Recognition features of the B737 are .
A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing
B. Two jet engines under each wing, low wing
C. One jet engine under each wing, T-tail
D. One jet engine under each wing, one jet in tail

Back 137

A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing

Front 138

278. Which of the following is not one of the three basic wing placements found on aircraft?
A. Tandem-wing
B. High-wing
C. Low-wing
D. Mid-wing

Back 138

A. Tandem-wing

Front 139

281. What is the prominent identification feature of the C172?
A. High-wing
B. Conventional gear
C. Mid-tail
D. Turboprop

Back 139

A. High-wing

Front 140

283. An aircraft weighing 300,000 pounds will fall into the weight class.
A. Small
B. Medium
C. Large
D. Heavy

Back 140

D. Heavy

Front 141

284. Name four out of the nine aircraft identification features.

Back 141

Size, Engine location and number, engine type, wing placement, wing configuration, tail configuration, windows, fuselage shape, landing gear.

Front 142

439. Generally, what are the two basic types of landing gear?
A. Bicycle and tricycle
B. Tricycle and conventional
C. Bicycle and conventional
D. Tricycle and nose dragger

Back 142

B. Tricycle and conventional

Front 143

440. An aircraft with a certified takeoff weight of ___ pounds or less will fall into the small weight class.
A. 12,500
B. 41,000
C. 50,000
D. 155,000

Back 143

B. 41,000

Front 144

454. Which statement is NOT true regarding the general characteristics of Category II aircraft?
A. Large weight class
B. They operate at FL240 and below
C. Speed is 160-250 knots
D. Climb rate is 1,000 to 2,000 feet per minute

Back 144

A. Large weight class

Front 145

455. A C17 is included in aircraft Category ___ .
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV

Back 145

C. III

Front 146

467. Recognition features of the B737 are .
A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing
B. Two jet engines under each wing, low wing
C. One jet engine under each wing, T-tail
D. One jet engine under each wing, one jet in tail

Back 146

A. One jet engine under each wing, low wing

Front 147

468. What is a prominent identification feature of the BE35?
A. Tricycle gear
B. Low-wing
C. Propeller-driven
D. “V”-tail

Back 147

D. “V”-tail.

Front 148

469. A civilian aircraft designator ____.
A. is always 4 alpha-numerics
B. indicates the mission
C. generally indicates the manufacturer
D. may be 1 to 4 characters

Back 148

C. generally indicates the manufacturer

Front 149

580. An aircraft with a certificated takeoff weight of more than 41,000 lbs. up to but not including 300,000 lbs. is
classified as _.
A. heavy
B. large
C. small
D. medium

Back 149

B. large

Front 150

581. All helicopters are classified as _.
A. category III
B. category IV
C. category I
D. category II

Back 150

C. Category I

Front 151

632. For a military aircraft, the first letter(s) of the designator identifies the aircraft’s ______ .
A. manufacturer
B. model
C. service branch
D. mission

Back 151

D. mission

Front 152

675. What are the three basic types of landing gear?
A. straight; swept; delta
B. tandem; fixed; conventional
C. tricycle; conventional; tandem
D. forward; mid; conventional

Back 152

C. tricycle; conventional; tandem

Front 153

Which aircraft is depicted here?

A. Citation 550

B. Citation X (10)

C. Beechjet

D. Golden Eagle

Back 153

A. Citation 550

Front 154

Which aircraft is depicted here?

A. L1011

B. MD11

C. DC10

D. B727

Back 154

B. MD11

Front 155

Which aircraft is depicted here?

A. A320

B. B737

C. A306

D. B757

Back 155

C. A306

Front 156

Which aircraft is depicted here?

A. B737

B. B757

C. A300

D. B777

Back 156

D. B777

Front 157

Which aircraft is depicted here?

A. BE58

B. PAY1

C. PA34

D. P28A

Back 157

C. PA34

Front 158

Which aircraft is depicted here?

A. C172

B. C208

C. C210

D. C130

Back 158

C. C210

Front 159

The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _______.

A. temperature

B. pressure

C. reaction

Back 159

B. pressure

Front 160

The statement "the internal pressure of a fluid decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases" is part of _____.

A. Bernoulli's Principle

B. Newton's law of motion

C. Hindenberg's theory

Back 160

A. Bernoulli's Principle

Front 161

What are the three principle airfoils?

Back 161

Propeller, horizontal tail surfaces, and wings.

Front 162

What is the curvature of the airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge?

Back 162

Camber

Front 163

The three key atmospheric properties that affect air density are:

Back 163

Temperature, Altitude, and water vapor (humidity)

Front 164

Which two movements are controlled by the control yoke?

Back 164

The pitch and roll.

Front 165

What are the three devices on a helicopter that control the rotor blade?

Back 165

Collective, Cyclic, and throttle

Front 166

What are the three primary causes of stalls?

Back 166

1. Insufficient airspeed

2. Excessively violent flight maneuvers

3. Severe wind shear

Front 167

Lift is created as air flows smoothly over an airfoil. A stall occurs when the ________ ______ of _______ is exceeded.

Back 167

Critical angle of attack.

Front 168

The strength of wing tip vortices created from wake turbulence will diminish with __________ & _____

Back 168

Time and distance

Front 169

If you have an aircraft on approach to an airport and a similar aircraft cruising during en route flight, which would create a greater wake turbulence effect?

Back 169

The one on approach.

Front 170

What is the name for the turbulent phenomenon created by aircraft passing through the atmosphere?

Back 170

Wake Turbulance

Front 171

The circular patterns created by wake turbulence are often known as what?

Back 171

Wing tip vortices or wake vortex

Front 172

When do fixed-wing aircraft stop generating vortices?

Back 172

When lift is no longer generated or when the landing gear touch down.

Front 173

Vortices level off at approximately ___________ feet below the flight path.

A. 100 to 300

B. 500 to 1000

C. 1000 to 2000

Back 173

B. 500 to 1000

Front 174

What is the sink rate for vortices from aircraft?

Back 174

300 to 500 feet per minute

Front 175

For landing aircraft, crosswinds of 1 to 5 knots tend to ____ the lateral movement of one vortex while _____ the movement of the other

Back 175

Stall; movement

Front 176

Hazardous conditions occur when the induced toll exceeds the level of __________.

Back 176

Roll Control

Front 177

What must a helicopter be doing in order to generate wingtip vortices?

Back 177

It must be in forward flight.

Front 178

A hovering helicopter created a downwash from its main rotors that can travel up to how far?

Back 178

3 times the diameter of the rotor.

Front 179

Why is the controller not responsible for anticipating the existence or effects of wake turbulence?

Back 179

Because it is unpredictable.

Front 180

Wake turbulence has the greatest impact on ATC in the areas of __________.

Back 180

Increased separation and traffic management delays.

Front 181

What category do helicopters fall under?

Back 181

Cat I

Front 182

What category do turbojet engine aircraft fall under?

Back 182

Cat. III

Front 183

A twin-engine, turboprop aircraft weighing 12,500 pounds or less will fall under which category?

Back 183

Cat. II

Front 184

Designators may have as many as ____ characters, but no less than _____.

A. 8; 4

B. 6;3

C. 4;2

D. 3;1

Back 184

C. 4; 2

Front 185

The first character in an aircraft designation must be a/an _____.

A. number

B. letter

C. letter or number

D. 'N'

Back 185

B. letter

Front 186

What two types of engines have propellers?

Back 186

Reciprocating and Turbo prop

Front 187

Turbojet engines are limited to what weight class of aircraft?

Back 187

Not limited to any. Can be in any weight class.

Front 188

What are the three basic wing shapes or configurations?

Back 188

Straight wing, Delta wing, and swept wing.

Front 189

How many basic tail configurations and name them

Back 189

1. v-tail

2. t-tail

3. mid-tail

4. conventional

5. forward slant

Front 190

What are the five basic window shapes?

Back 190

Oval, round, teardrop, square, and bubble canopy

Front 191

What are the two basic types of landing gear?

Back 191

Conventional and Tricycle

Front 192

Which class of airspace does not require an ATC clearance?

A. A

B. B

C. C

Back 192

C. C

Front 193

The authority and responsibility for flying in Class G airspace belongs to the ________.

A. pilot

B. military

C. air traffic controller

Back 193

A. pilot

Front 194

The Special Use airspace that overlies an aerial gunnery range over land is called a ________ Area

Back 194

Restricted

Front 195

What type of Special Use Airspace is found over international waters?

Back 195

Warning area

Front 196

Prohibited Area vertical airspace begins at _______.

A. 3,000 Feet

B. the surface

C. 1,500 feet

Back 196

B. the surface

Front 197

In what type of airspace would a high volume of pilot training take place?

A. Restricted Area

B. Controlled Firing Area

C. Alert Area

Back 197

Alert Area

Front 198

Under whose authority are FARs issued?

Back 198

FAA Administrator

Front 199

Aircraft operating in the air or on airport movement areas are referred to as _____.

A. air carriers

B. air traffic

C. air traffic control

Back 199

B. air traffic

Front 200

Authorization by air traffic control for the purpose of preventing collisions between known aircraft, and for an aircraft to proceed under specified traffic conditions within controlled airspace is called ATC _______.

Back 200

Clearance.

Front 201

Control of all air traffic within designated airspace by air traffic control is called ________ control

Back 201

positive

Front 202

Which aircraft operating within the US are subject to FAR part 91?

A. Military only

B. Civilian

C. All aircraft

Back 202

C. all aircraft

Front 203

When may pilots of two different aircraft operate as a formation flight?

Back 203

When prior arrangements are made, and no paying passengers are aboard.

Front 204

What is the max speed of VFR aircraft below Class B airspace?

Back 204

200 kts IAS

Front 205

What is the max speed for an aircraft in Class C or D airspace flying at less than 2,500 feet AGL and within 4 NM of the primary airport?

Back 205

200 kts IAS

Front 206

What should the altimeter be set at in an aircraft maintaining FL310?

Back 206

29.92

Front 207

When may a pilot deviate from ATC clearance?

A. At the pilot's discretion

B. In an emergency

C. Under no condition

Back 207

B. in an emergency

Front 208

When should a pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance notify ATC of that deviation?

Back 208

As soon as possible

Front 209

Who is directly responsible and the final authority for an operation of an aircraft?

Back 209

the pilot in command

Front 210

What is the right-of-way rule for aircraft in distress?

Back 210

Right of way over all traffic

Front 211

What is the max speed (unless authorized) for an aircraft below 10,000 fee MSL?

Back 211

250 kts IAS

Front 212

Describe the right-of way rule for aircraft approaching "head on", converging aircraft, and overtaking aircraft.

Back 212

Head-on - each pilot gives way to the right

Converging - aircraft on right has right of way

Overtaking - Overtaken aircraft has right of way and the overtaking aircraft passes to the right.

Front 213

When may a pilot cancel IFR?

Back 213

Operating in VFR conditions or outside of class A airspace

Front 214

What is the minimum safe altitude for an aircraft over a congested area?

Back 214

1000 ft above and 2000 ft horizontally.

Front 215

When may an aircraft operating at an airport with a noise abatement designated runway elect a different runway?

Back 215

In the interest of safety

Front 216

Pilots flying large or turbine-powered aircraft in Class C or D airspace should enter the traffic pattern at what altitude?

Back 216

no less than 1,500 ft AGL

Front 217

What altimeter setting should an aircraft use if operating under FL 180?

Back 217

The current altimeter setting reported by a station along the route within 100 NM of the aircraft

Front 218

Unless otherwise indicated, which way are all turns made in a traffic pattern?

Back 218

Left

Front 219

FARs govern aircraft operating in the airspace within how many miles of the US coast?

Back 219

12 NM of the coast

Front 220

FARs govern aircraft operating on the waters within how many miles of the US coast?

Back 220

3 NM of the coast

Front 221

What is true about filing an VFR flight plan?

A. It I mandatory for all VFR flights.

B. It is strongly recommended

C. It is required for entering Class G airspace.

Back 221

B. It is strongly recommended.

Front 222

When landing at an airport with an operational ATCT, an IFR flight plan ______.

A. must be cancelled by the pilot

B. Is automatically canceled

C. Remains open until departure

Back 222

B. it is automatically canceled.

Front 223

VFR weather minima for Class B airspace

Back 223

3 SM

Clear of clouds

Front 224

VFR weather minima for Class C and D airspace

Back 224

3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 horizontally

Front 225

VFR weather minima for Class E at or above 10,000 MSL

Back 225

5 SM - visibility

1,000 ft above

1,000 ft below

1SM horizontally

Front 226

VFR weather minima for Class E below 10,000 MSL

Back 226

3 SM

1,000 ft above

500 ft below

2,000 ft horizontally

Front 227

VFR weather minima for Class G airspace below 1,200 AGL Day and night

Back 227

Day - 1SM visibility

Clear of Clouds

Night - 3 SM visibility

1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally

Front 228

VFR weather minima for class G airspace at or above 1,200 AGL and below 10,000 MSL day and night

Back 228

Day - 1 SM visibility

1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally

Night - 3 SM visibility

1,000 above, 500 below, 2,000 horizontally

Front 229

VFR weather minima for Class G airspace at or above 1,200 AGL AND at or above 10,000 MSL

Back 229

Same day and night.

5 SM visibility

1000 above, 1000 below, and 1 SM horizontally

Front 230

True or false, VFR-on-top is an IFR clearance.

Back 230

true

Front 231

For SVFR operations, if the surface visibility is not reported, flight visibility must be at least:

A. 2SM

B. 1NM

C. 1SM

Back 231

C. 1 SM

Front 232

What is the correct altitude for a VFR aircraft on a magnetic course for the following headings?

1. 090

2. 120

3. 180

4. 285

5. 360

Back 232

1. Odd plus 500 ft

2. Odd plus 500 ft

3. Even plus 500 ft

4. Even plus 500 ft

5. Odd plus 500 ft

Front 233

What is the minimum visibility for an IFR departure when the takeoff minimum at a civil airport is not prescribed for a twin-engine aircraft?

A. 1/2 mile

B. 1 mile

C. 1 1/2 mile

Back 233

B. 1mile

Front 234

633. Category III aircraft generally climb at what rate?

A. 500'-1000' per minute

B. 1000'-2000' per minute

C. 2000'-4000' per minute

D. Greater than 4000' per minute

Back 234

C. 2000'-4000' per minute

Front 235

The extension of the flaps causes an increase in ________.

A. Stall Speed

B. Airspeed

C. Drag

Back 235

C. Drag