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222 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

The internal pressure of a fluid (liquid or gas) decreases at points where the speed of the fluid increases.

Bernoulli's Principle

When pressure decreases, speed _________

Increases

The pressure differential around an airfoil is the...

Primary Source of Lift

A pressure differential occurs when there is a pressure difference between opposing ______ ___ __ _______.

sides of a surface

A pressure differential occurs when there is a pressure difference between opposing ______ ___ __ _______.

sides of a surface

What causes the higher pressure area below the airfoil to try to equalize pressure by pushing (lifting) the airfoil toward the lower pressure area above?

Pressure differential



Note: think of putting your thumb over a garden hose...

What is Newton's 3rd law of motion?

For every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction.

The _________ source of lift is the an upward force generated by air striking the underside of an airfoil and being deflected downward.

Secondary

The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _________.

Pressure

The primary source of lift on an airfoil is created by a differential in _________.

Pressure

The direction of the airflow produced by an object moving through air is...

Relative Wind

The relative wind for an aircraft in flight flows in a direction ________ with and ________ to the direction of flight.

Parallel


Opposite

The relative wind for an aircraft in flight flows in a direction ________ with and ________ to the direction of flight.

Parallel


Opposite



Note: think of putting your hand out the window while driving on a calm day... You feel the relative wind even though it's not windy.

The relative wind for an aircraft in flight flows in a direction ________ with and ________ to the direction of flight.

Parallel


Opposite



Note: think of putting your hand out the window while driving on a calm day... You feel the relative wind even though it's not windy.

What determines the direction of the relative wind?

The actual flight path.



Not wind angle... The direction.

What are 6 types of airfoils on aircraft?

Wing


Propeller


Helicopter rotor (rotary wing)


Horizontal stabilizer


Vertical tail surfaces


Fuselage

The 3 principle airfoils that produce lift on an aircraft are:

Wing



Horizontal tail surfaces



Propeller (lift produced in a forward direction)

The 3 parts of an airfoil are:

Leading edge


Trailing edge


Chord line



Chord line is an imaginary straight line drawn from the leading edge to the trailing edge of a cross section of an airfoil.

What is the acute angle formed between the chord line of an airfoil and the direction of the air striking the airfoil (relative wind)?

The angle of attack

The angle of attack is based on the ________ _______, not the ground.

Relative wind

This is the curvature of the airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge.

Camber

Lower camber refers to the curvature of the lower surface.



Upper camber refers to the curvature of the upper surface.



The camber of a wing is designed according to the...

Type of aircraft


Planned speed of aircraft


Weight of the aircraft


Planned use of the aircraft

What is the shape or form of a wing as viewed from above?



(It may be long and tapered, shirt and rectangular, or various other shapes).

Wing Planform

The faster the aircraft, the thinner the airfoil to reduce drag. The thinner the airfoil, the more surface area needed to produce lift.



The amount of lift generated by the wing depends upon several factors:

Speed of the wing through air


Angle of attack


Planform of the wing


Wing area


Density of the air


Camber

What type of Wing Planform is mostly seen on commercial jets? It's most efficient at higher speeds.

Sweptback wings.

The four forces affecting flight are...

Lift


Weight


Thrust


Drag

What is the upward force created by an airfoil when it is moved through air?

Lift

What is the upward force created by an airfoil when it is moved through air?

Lift

This is the downward force which tends to draw all bodies vertically toward the center of the earth.

Weight

What is the upward force created by an airfoil when it is moved through air?

Lift

This is the downward force which tends to draw all bodies vertically toward the center of the earth.

Weight

This is a man-made force that pulls or pushes the aircraft through the air.

Thrust

What is the upward force created by an airfoil when it is moved through air?

Lift

This is the downward force which tends to draw all bodies vertically toward the center of the earth.

Weight

This is a man-made force that pulls or pushes the aircraft through the air.

Thrust

The rewarding acting force which resists the forward movement of the airplane through the air...

Drag

The aircraft neither gains nor loses altitude when _____ and ________ are in equilibrium.

Lift


Weight

The aircraft will climb if _____ is greater than weight.

Lift

If weight is greater than lift, the aircraft will...

Descend

In a straight and level flight, _______ and ______ are equal in magnitude if a constant airspeed is being maintained.

Thrust


Drag

In a straight and level flight, _______ and ______ are equal in magnitude if a constant airspeed is being maintained.

Thrust


Drag

The thrust is controlled by the throttle. As more throttle is applied, more _______ is produced.

Thrust

With and increase in airspeed, _____ increases rapidly.

Drag



Note: If you give a plane everything it's got, drag will eventually catch up to the speed and equilibrium will be attained again. Every aircraft has a max speed.

What is the curvature of the airfoil from the leading edge to the trailing edge?

Camber

Three ATMOSPHERIC PROPERTIES are...

Temperature


Altitude


Water Vapor (humidity)

Average lapse rate... Temperature decreases by about 3.5 degrees F for every 1,000 feet of elevation increased.



By how much does the temperature decrease in Celsius?

2 degrees Celsius

Average sea level temperature is 59 F or 15 C.



What is the average temperature 7 miles up in the atmosphere?

-67 F

Layer of atmosphere closest to the earth with about a 5-10 mile width...

Troposphere

A decrease of temperature with height is called a _______ _________.

Lapse rate

Cold air is denser than ______ air.

Warm

The average pressure at sea level is 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi) which corresponds with 29.92 inches of _________.

Mercury

________ decreases with height.



Lower pressure results in less _________ air

Pressure


Dense

In order of MOST effective, what are the top three properties of the atmosphere that affect flight performance...

Altitude


Temperature


Humidity

Moisture in the air is the invisible gas called ________ _______.



The higher the temperature, the greater amount of ________ ________ the air can hold.

Water vapor


Water vapor



Note: increase in water vapor (higher humidity) results in a decrease in air density.

The altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value of air density...

Density altitude

The altitude in the standard atmosphere corresponding to a particular value of air density...

Density altitude

_________ ___________ calculations are used by pilots to determine aircraft performance characteristics given the existing atmospheric conditions.

Density calculation

Higher density altitude indicates lower density air.

Note: as altitude, temperature, and moisture (humidity) go up...


PERFORMANCE GOES DOWN!

Increased density altitude can greatly reduce aircraft performance including: (5 things)

Longer takeoff roll


Longer landing roll


Slower climb rate


Reduced engine power output


Landing speed increased



Note: high density altitude on aircraft performance will greatly increase controller workload, e.g. more spacing required, slower climbs, more timbers clear runway, etc.

Effects of altitude on performance...

There are more air molecules at the bottom of atmosphere. Air is more dense. More molecules to spread around airfoil. Better for takeoff and overall performance.



Taking off at Sea Level better than taking off at 5,000ft.

Effects of temperature on performance...

Cold air is more sense than hot air. Takeoff and performance will be easier/better on a cold winter day as opposed to a hot summer day.

Effects of temperature on performance...

Cold air is more dense than hot air (hot air expands so it's less dense). Takeoff and performance will be easier/better on a cold winter day as opposed to a hot summer day.

Effects of temperature on performance...

Cold air is more dense than hot air (hot air expands so it's less dense). Takeoff and performance will be easier/better on a cold winter day as opposed to a hot summer day.

Effect of humidity on performance...

Takeoff and performance will be better in dry air as opposed to moist humid air. This is because water vapor is lighter than air (as water content of the air increases, the air becomes less dense).

The plane may not get off the ground on a hot, humid day at 5,000ft (Denver).

The best flying conditions would be somewhere like Phoenix in winter where it's lower altitude, dry, and cool.

Note: high density altitude replicates density AT HIGH ALTITUDES which have LOW DENSITY.

Low density altitude replicates density AT LOW ALTITUDES which have HIGH DENSITY.

Note: high density altitude replicates density AT HIGH ALTITUDES which have LOW DENSITY.

Low density altitude replicates density AT LOW ALTITUDES which have HIGH DENSITY.

A device for propelling an aircraft that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation.

Peopeller

Note: high density altitude replicates density AT HIGH ALTITUDES which have LOW DENSITY.

Low density altitude replicates density AT LOW ALTITUDES which have HIGH DENSITY.

A device for propelling an aircraft that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation.

Peopeller

Three types of propeller are:

Adjustable pitch (very uncommon - use a wrench to adjust it preflight)



Fixed pitch (standard propellers - can't adjust it)



Controllable pitch (can adjust it in flight - it's variable)

Note: high density altitude replicates density AT HIGH ALTITUDES which have LOW DENSITY.

Low density altitude replicates density AT LOW ALTITUDES which have HIGH DENSITY.

A device for propelling an aircraft that, when rotated, produces by its action on the air, thrust approximately perpendicular to its plane of rotation.

Peopeller

Three types of propeller are:

Adjustable pitch (very uncommon - use a wrench to adjust it preflight)



Fixed pitch (standard propellers - can't adjust it)



Controllable pitch (can adjust it in flight - it's variable)

An aircraft has three axes of rotation...

Longitudinal axis (roll)


Lateral axis (pitch)


Vertical axis (yaw)

Imaginary straight line through the fuselage (body of aircraft)

Longitudinal axis

Imaginary straight line through the fuselage (body of aircraft)

Longitudinal axis

Line through the wing from wing tip to wing tip. Controls angle of attack and pitch altitude.

Lateral axis



Movement around the lateral axis is called the pitch movement (nose up, nose down).

Imaginary straight line through the fuselage (body of aircraft). Controls angle of bank and aircraft heading.

Longitudinal axis



Movement around longitudinal axis is called the roll movement.

A line through the center of gravity from top to bottom. Controls left-to-right alignment of longitudinal axis with respect to relative wind. Controls streamlined motion of aircraft.

Vertical axis



Movement around vertical axis is called the yaw movement.

The 3 primary control surfaces that affect rotation of an aircraft are...

Ailerons - controls roll



Elevator - moves as a unit and controls pitch



Rudder - controls yaw

________ are hinged surfaces mounted on the outboard trailing edge of the wings. They rotate the aircraft around the longitudinal axis.

Ailerons

Left and right ailerons move simultaneously but in ___________ directions.

Opposite

_________ increases on the down aileron, and decreases on the up aileron.

Lift

What is adverse yaw?

The tendency of the nose of the aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction of the turn. It's caused by the drag of the "down" aileron.

What is adverse yaw?

The tendency of the nose of the aircraft to yaw in the opposite direction of the turn. It's caused by the drag of the "down" aileron.



Note: turning the rudder the direction of the turn decreases the affect of adverse yaw.

What controls ailerons and left and right turns?

The control yoke. Push in to descend or pull back to climb. Steer to go left or right.

What primary control surface is located on the horizontal stabilizer and rotates the aircraft around the lateral axis (up and down)?

The elevator - controls the angle of attack and pitch of the aircraft. (Think teeter-totter)



Note: if the entire horizontal tail surface moves, it's known as a stabilator.

What steering device inside the aircraft controls the elevator?

The control yoke.

What steering device inside the aircraft controls the elevator?

The control yoke.



Moves forward and backward to control the elevator. Pull back-nose up. Push forward-nose down.



Note: elevator (think about watching an elevator go up and down)

The ________ is on the aft of the vertical stabilizer (tail).

Rudder - rotates the aircraft around the vertical axis and control the yaw.

The rudder is controlled by rudder pedals. Depress right pedal and the aircraft will yaw right. Depress the left pedal and the aircraft will yaw left.

Use the rudder when using ailerons in the SAME direction to avoid "adverse yaw"

Which two movements are controlled by the control yoke?

Roll (ailerons)


Pitch (elevators)

The purpose of ______ _______ is to LESSEN THE MANUAL PRESSURE the pilots must apply to the control surfaces.

Trim tabs



Note: trim tabs are generally used on larger aircraft but elevator and rudder trim tabs are common across the board.



They're small hinged surfaces on the trailing edges of primary control surfaces.

Trim tabs hold the control surface in position aerodynamically. The control surface can still be moved by the pilot.



Note: it's like cruise control. Relieves pressure on controls so pilots can relax.

Trim tab is a secondary control surface.



The controls are either manual or electric

Another secondary control surface besides trim tabs are ______.

Flaps

Flaps are located inboard the wing's trailing edge and are used to increase lift. They are extended in increments described as degrees from the full up position (zero degrees).

10 and 20 degrees positions give you more lift than drag so they can be used during takeoff.



Once flaps are down more than 20 degrees (30 or 40) they are only creating drag. Good for landings.

Flaps extend on both wings at the same time. The extension of flaps can increase camber by changing the Chord Line. What happens because of this?

- Lift increases


- Drag increases


- Lowers stall speed


- Allows steeper approach to runway without increased speed

How are flaps adjusted?

Manually


Electrically


Hydraulically

What are the 3 primary control surfaces?

Ailerons


Elevators


Rudder

What are the 2 secondary control surfaces?

Trim tabs


Flaps

The forces acting on helicopters are the same as those acting on fixed-wing aircraft.



Lift


Weight


Thrust


Drag



Each rotor blade is shaped like an _________

Airfoil

A rotor blade in motion acts like a _____

Wing

Function of the throttle in a helicopter is to regulate...

Revolutions per minute (RPMs)

The _________ controls the pitch of the rotor blade (angle of attack).

Collective

When lift is greater than weight, you get...

Vertical ascent

When weight is greater than lift, you get...

Vertical descent

Motionless flight over a reference point is ________. This occurs when thrust and lift equals weight and drag.



Must have a constant heading and altitude.

Hovering

The ________ controls the tilt of the rotor blade which controls the direction of flight in a helicopter.

Cyclic

____________ is the state of flight where the main rotor system is being turned by the action of relative wind rather than engine power...

Autorotation



This allows the aircraft to make a controlled landing when the engine is no longer providing power.

Aircraft categories are used for providing the same runway separation within the terminal environment. Why?

Provides a method of grouping aircraft



Allows for immediate distinction

Aircraft categories are used for providing the same runway separation within the terminal environment. Why?

Provides a method of grouping aircraft



Allows for immediate distinction

CAT 1 aircraft basics...

Weight - 12,500 lbs


Single engine


Prop-driven

Aircraft categories are used for providing the same runway separation within the terminal environment. Why?

Provides a method of grouping aircraft



Allows for immediate distinction

CAT 1 aircraft basics...

Weight - 12,500 lbs


Single engine


Prop-driven

CAT II aircraft basics

Weight - 12,500 lbs


Twin engine


Prop-driven

CAT III aircraft basics

Anything not in CAT I or CAT II

CAT I general performance characteristics

Speed - 100-160 kts


Altitude - 10,000 and below


Climb rate - 1,000 ft per min


Weight class - S

CAT I general performance characteristics

Speed - 100-160 kts


Altitude - 10,000 and below


Climb rate - 1,000 ft per min


Weight class - S

CAT II General performance characteristics

Speed - 160-250 kts


Altitude - up to FL240


Climb rate - 1,000-2,000 ft per min


Weight class - S

CAT II general performance characteristics

Speed - 160-250 kts


Altitude - up to FL240


Climb rate - 1,000-2,000 ft per min


Weight class - S

CAT II general performance characteristics

Speed - 160-250 kts


Altitude - up to FL240


Climb rate - 1,000-2,000 ft per min


Weight class - S

CAT III General performance characteristics

Speed - 300-550 kts


Altitude - FL450 and below


Climb rate - 2,000-4,000 ft per min


Weight class - Specified for each aircraft

CAT II general performance characteristics

Speed - 160-250 kts


Altitude - FL240 and below


Climb rate - 1,000-2,000 ft per min


Weight class - S

Helicopters general performance characteristics

Speed - 90-160 kts


Altitude - FL200 and below


Climb rate - 500-2,150 ft per min


Weight class - S or L

Weight classes for aircraft

Small - 41,000 lbs or less max certified takeoff weight



Large - more than 41,000 lbs, max certified takeoff weight up to but not including 300,000 lbs



Heavy - aircraft capable of takeoff weights of 300,000 lbs or more wether or not they are operating at this weight during a flight

As the categories of aircraft (CAT I, CAT II, CAT III) are used for same runway separation, aircraft weight classes (S, L, H) are primarily used for ______ ___________ ___________.

Wake turbulence separation

What are approved, shortened versions of the aircraft manufacturer's designation?

Aircraft designators



Note: used on Flight Progress Strips and for ATC communications.

Aircraft designators are 2 to 4 characters long and may contain all letters or a combination of letters and numbers. But they must begin with a ________.

Letter

What organization made it so individual countries could no longer establish their own designators?

International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)



Pronounced I-Kay-O

Military designators are formulated using a letter denoting the primary function of the aircraft and a number to denote a design or series of configuration.

A - attack


B - bomber


C - cargo transport


E - electronic (ECM)


F - fighter


H - helicopter


P - patrol


T - trainer

Three engine types in aircraft (in order of slowest to fastest performance) are...

Reciprocating


Turboprop


Turbojet

Reciprocating engine characteristics

-Similar to car engine


-Operates around 60-350 horsepower

Reciprocating engine characteristics

-Similar to car engine


-Operates around 60-350 horsepower

Turboprop engine characteristics

-Found on many CAT II aircraft


-small or large weight class


-greater horsepower, faster speeds, better performance

Reciprocating engine characteristics

-Similar to car engine


-Operates around 60-350 horsepower

Turboprop engine characteristics

-Found on many CAT II aircraft


-small or large weight class


-greater horsepower, faster speeds, better performance

Turbojet engine characteristics

-all jets are CAT III aircraft


-found in all weight classes


-derives power from thrust or exhaust gases


-highest performance aviation engine

Helicopter controls... Remember CYTI COP

Cyclic controls Tilt



Collective controls Pitch

The state of flight where the main rotor system is being turned by the action of relative wind rather than engine power.

Autorotation

Hazards affecting flight

Hazards affecting flight

Hazards affecting flight

Hazards affecting flight

Stalls are the most common cause of light aircraft accidents.



A stall occurs when...

The airfoil reaches a "critical angle of attack" which is approximately 15-20 degrees.



As the critical able of attack is reached, the smooth flow of the airstream begins separating from the rear of the upper wing surface and ceases to produce lift.

Three primary causes of stalls are...

Insufficient airspeed


Excessively violent flight maneuvers


Severe wind shear

The three types of icing are:

Structural icing


Pitot-static icing


Carburetor icing

The three types of icing are:

Structural icing


Pitot-static icing


Carburetor icing

Structural icing changes the shape of the airfoil (wing) which disrupts smooth flow of air and adds weight.



When pitot-static icing occurs, what becomes unreliable?

Airspeed indicator



Note: although rate, if static vent icing occurs, the altimeter, airspeed and vertical speed indicators are affected.

The three types of icing are:

Structural icing


Pitot-static icing


Carburetor icing

Structural icing changes the shape of the airfoil (wing) which disrupts smooth flow of air and adds weight.



When pitot-static icing occurs, what becomes unreliable?

Airspeed indicator



Note: although rate, if static vent icing occurs, the altimeter, airspeed and vertical speed indicators are affected.

Carburetor icing most often occurs between 20-79 degrees F under conditions of high humidity. It's the only type of icing to occur in above-freezing temperatures.



It can be cleared by adding carburetor heat but this technique is primarily used for __________ icing, no de-icing.

Anti-icing

Failures on an aircraft resulting in instruments or lights or radio or flaps not working are ____________ failures.

Electrical

Failures on an aircraft resulting in instruments or lights or radio or flaps not working are ____________ failures.

Electrical

When your landing gear doesn't drop or you lose a panel or crack a windshield or blow a tire, these are ____________ failures.

Mechanical

___________ failures can affect landing gear or flaps or breaks on some aircraft.

Hydraulic

A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft thought the atmosphere. It includes vortices, thrust stews turbulence, jet blast, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash both on the ground and in the air.

Wake turbulence

A phenomenon resulting from the passage of an aircraft thought the atmosphere. It includes vortices, thrust stews turbulence, jet blast, jet wash, propeller wash, and rotor wash both on the ground and in the air.

Wake turbulence

Circular patterns of air created by the movement of an airfoil through the air WHEN GENERATING LIFT.

Vortices

Vortices from large aircraft can be of extremely high velocity (170 kts) and hazardous to smaller aircraft.



What is the strength of a vortex (rotational force) governed by?

Weight of the generating aircraft



Shape of the wing



Speed of the generating aircraft

The greatest vortex strength is when the aircraft is ________, _________, and ______.

Heavy, clean, and slow

The greatest factor that affects the intensity of wake turbulence is the ________.

Weight

A wing with _______ configuration allows for a stronger vortex to be generated because without flaps the wing has a smaller surface area and wing loading is therefore greater per square foot.

Clean

A wing with _______ configuration increases the total wing area and decreases the wing loading. The flaps disrupt airflow over the wing and break down the formation of the vortex.

Dirty

The slower the speed, the greater the chance for the wake to take form. This is critical for aircraft on approach to an airport.

At higher speeds, the airflow over the wing tips is spread out and does not have much of an opportunity to take form.

Strength of vortices will diminish with _______ and _________.

Time


Distance

Lift is generated by low pressure above the wing and high pressure below the wing. The pressure differential triggers a roll up of airflow. Can also be known as...

Wake vortex


Wing tip vortices

Lift is generated by low pressure above the wing and high pressure below the wing. The pressure differential triggers a roll up of airflow. Can also be known as...

Wake vortex


Wing tip vortices

Vortex circulation always goes IN toward the body (fuselage) of the aircraft.

When viewing aircraft from behind....Clockwise off left and counterclockwise off the right.

Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft __________ _______.

Generates lift

Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft __________ _______.

Generates lift



- when the nose wheel leaves the ground.

Vortices are generated at the moment the aircraft __________ _______.

Generates lift



- when the nose wheel leaves the ground.

Vortices discontinue at the moment the aircraft stops __________ ______.

Generating lift



When all landing gear has touched down.

What is the vortex sink rate?

300-500 ft per minute.



Normally levels off about 500-1,000 ft below flight path.

What is the vortex sink rate?

300-500 ft per minute.



Normally levels off about 500-1,000 ft below flight path.

Vortices move outward and diminish in strength with time and distance.



When close to the ground and with zero wind, vortices from aircraft move 2-3 kts laterally and within ________ ft of the ground.

100-200 ft

A crosswind will affect a vortex how?

Crosswind of 1-5 kts will decrease or stall the movement of one vortex while increasing the movement of another.



This could hasten the vortex arrival to another parallel runway.

Tailwinds can also move vortices into the landing zone of aircraft that were trying to avoid the wake.

Vortices from large aircraft will sink approximately 300-500 feet per minute and level off approximately 500-1,000 feet below the flight path.

The mechanical force a wake vortex has on an aircraft.

Induced roll

The mechanical force a wake vortex has on an aircraft.

Induced roll

When induced roll exceeds the level of roll-control, the plane will spiral out of control.

Roll control is the ability of an aircraft to move around the longitudinal axis.

An aircraft with a large wingspan, which extends beyond the outer edges of a vortex, is better able to counter the roll effects of the vortex than a smaller aircraft whose wingspan is completely engulfed by the vortex.

If ailerons are outside the vortices, it can be corrected. Ailerons must be in stable air.



Wingspan and ailerons extend beyond the OUTER EDGES of the vortex.

Helicopters generate a downwash out of a hover position which extends out to a distance approximately ______ times the diameter of the rotor.

Three

Downwash circulation is outward, upward, around, and away from the main rotors on ALL directions.

Helicopters will generate. Pair of wingtip vortices when in forward flight.



Note: evidence suggests that helicopter vortices are more intense than those of fixed-wing aircraft.

Jet blast is jet engine exhaust.

Jet blast is normally experienced during ground operations and during initial takeoff roll prior to lift.

Jet blast is jet engine exhaust.

Jet blast is normally experienced during ground operations and during initial takeoff roll prior to lift.

Why are controllers not responsible for anticipating the existence of wake turbulence?

Because it's unpredictable.

When issuing cautionary advisory during ground operations, controllers may use the following terms in lieu of the term, wake turbulence...

Jet blast


Prop wash


Rotor wash

The greatest impact wake turbulence has on ATC is increases separation for _________ operations, both ground and airborne. And for _________ operations for approach and Enroute environments.

Terminal


Radar

Because of wake turbulence, traffic management delays may occur as a result of:

Increases separation, meaning a lower airport acceptance rate.

AIRSPACE

AIRSPACE

AIRSPACE

AIRSPACE

___________ __________ is airspace if defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flight and VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

Controlled airspace

AIRSPACE

AIRSPACE

___________ __________ is airspace if defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flight and VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

Controlled airspace

What class of airspace is generally from 18,000 MSL up to and including FL600?



All operations must be under IFR and are subject to ATC clearances and instructions.



Two-way radio must be established.



4096 transponder with functioning Mode C required.

Class A

AIRSPACE

AIRSPACE

___________ __________ is airspace if defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flight and VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification.

Controlled airspace

What class of airspace is generally from 18,000 MSL up to and including FL600?



All operations must be under IFR and are subject to ATC clearances and instructions.



Two-way radio must be established.



4096 transponder with functioning Mode C required.

Class A

What class of airspace goes from the surface (SFC) to 10,000 MSL surrounding the nation's busiest airports?



All aircraft require ATC clearance to enter.



ATC provides separation so Two-way radio must be established.



4096 transponder with functioning Mode C required



Aircraft require operable VOR or TACAN.

Class B



All aircraft VFR and IFR receive separation services while in this airspace.

What airspace is from the surface up to 4,000 ft above airport elevation (AGL) surrounding airports with:



Operational control tower


Service provided by TRACON


A certain number of IFR operations and passenger emplacements.

Class C



A circle with a 10 NM radius that extends from no lower than 1,200 ft up to 4,000 ft.



A non-charted outer area where vectoring and sequencing is provided for IFR and participating VFR aircraft.



VFR aircraft only separated from IFR aircraft. They don't need clearance to enter but may be denied.

________ airspace is generally from the surface up to 2,500 ft MSL surrounding airports with an operational control tower.

Class D



No separation services provided to VFR aircraft.



Airspace is individually tailored (may level at base of overlying airspace).

Except for 18,000 ft MSL, _________ airspace has no defines vertical limit but rather extends upward from either the surface or a designed altitude to the overlying adjacent airspace.

Class E



Contains federal (Victor) airways and low altitude RNAV (Tango) routes.



No communication requirement or separation provided for VFR aircraft.

Except for 18,000 ft MSL, _________ airspace has no defines vertical limit but rather extends upward from either the surface or a designed altitude to the overlying adjacent airspace.

Class E



Contains federal (Victor) airways and low altitude RNAV (Tango) routes.



No communication requirement or separation provided for VFR aircraft.

What class of airspace is uncontrolled?

Class G



Normally extends from the surface to the base of the overlying controlled airspace.



Vector aircraft in class G only upon pilot request as an additional service.

What non-designated type of airspace separates all off aircraft, participating VFR aircraft, provides radar vectoring and separation, and is listed on VFR aeronautical charts?

Terminal radar service area (TRSA)

What non-designated type of airspace separates all off aircraft, participating VFR aircraft, provides radar vectoring and separation, and is listed on VFR aeronautical charts?

Terminal radar service area (TRSA)

These are issued within the sovereign airspace of the USA and its territories to restrict certain aircraft from operating within a defined area on a temporary basis to protect people or property on the ground.

Temporary flight restrictions (TFRs)

This is the airspace identified by an area on the surface of the earth wherein activities must be confined because of their nature and/or wherein limitations may be imposed upon aircraft that are not part of those activities.

Special use airspace (SUA)

SUA programs are designed to accommodate national defense , security, and welfare.



They also identify where activities occur and protect others from hazardous operations.

The CONTROLLING AGENCY is the FAA ATC facility that exercises control of the airspace when an SUA area is not activated.

SUA programs are designed to accommodate national defense , security, and welfare.



They also identify where activities occur and protect others from hazardous operations.

The CONTROLLING AGENCY is the FAA ATC facility that exercises control of the airspace when an SUA area is not activated.

The Using Agency is the military unit or other organization whose activity established the requirement for the SUA.

There are 7 types of Special Use Airspaces.



Prohibited area -P


Restricted area -R


Warning area -W


Alert area -A


Controlled firing area -CFA


Military operation area -MOA


National security area -NSA

A __________ area is designated airspace where the flight of the aircraft is not permitted, without permission of the using agency.

Prohibited



They prohibit flight over an area on the surface in the interest of national security and welfare.



Detectives on aeronautical charts by letter P, a dash, plus number. (P-47)

A __________ area is designated airspace where the flight of the aircraft is not permitted, without permission of the using agency.

Prohibited



They prohibit flight over an area on the surface in the interest of national security and welfare.



Detectives on aeronautical charts by letter P, a dash, plus number. (P-47)

A _____________ area is designated airspace above US land areas of territorial waters, within which flight of aircraft is NOT totally prohibited, but is subject to restrictions.

Restricted



Established when determined necessary to confine or segregate activities considered hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.



Depicted on aeronautical charts by letter R, a dash, and number. (R-5701)

A __________ area is airspace extending from 3 NM outward from the coast of the U.S. Designated to contain activity that may be hazardous to nonparticipating aircraft.

Warning area.



Warns nonparticipating pilots of the potential danger from activities being conducted.



(W-104)



Warning areas may be jointly used if released to FAA during periods when it's not required for it's designated purpose.

An ________ area is an airspace where a high volume of pilot training occurs or other types of unusual aeronautical activity goes on.

Alert



These areas can't extend into A, B, C, D airspaces, or E airport surface areas.



They're just warning other pilots that a high volume of training is going on.

A CFA is airspace designated to contain activities, that if not protected in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to other aircraft.

Controlled firing area.



CFAs can provide a means to accommodate, without impact to aviation, certain hazardous activities that can be immediately suspended if a nonparticipating aircraft approaches.

A CFA is airspace designated to contain activities, that if not protected in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to other aircraft.

Controlled firing area.



CFAs can provide a means to accommodate, without impact to aviation, certain hazardous activities that can be immediately suspended if a nonparticipating aircraft approaches.

MOA is an airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established outside class A airspace for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic and to identify VFR traffic where these practices are conducted.

Military operations areas (MOAs) Te designated to non hazardous military flights including, but not limited to, air combat maneuvers, air intercepts, low altitude tactics, etc.

A CFA is airspace designated to contain activities, that if not protected in a controlled environment, would be hazardous to other aircraft.

Controlled firing area.



CFAs can provide a means to accommodate, without impact to aviation, certain hazardous activities that can be immediately suspended if a nonparticipating aircraft approaches.

MOA is an airspace of defined vertical and lateral limits established outside class A airspace for the purpose of separating military training activities from IFR traffic and to identify VFR traffic where these practices are conducted.

Military operations areas (MOAs) Te designated to non hazardous military flights including, but not limited to, air combat maneuvers, air intercepts, low altitude tactics, etc.

How do you identify an MOA?

Name followed by the acronym MOA



(HOLLIS MOA)


(SHEPPARD 1 MOA)

A _________ __________ _____ consists of airspace of defined lateral and vertical dimensions established at locations where there is a requirement for increased security or ground facilities.

National security area (NSA)



Pilots are required to voluntarily avoid flying through them.



They're designed to enhance natl security and protect natl assets.



They have no standard dimensions.