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201 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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who leads the department of transportation? |
office of the secretary |
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when was faa established |
1967 |
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how many regions are there to the faa |
9 |
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who leads the air traffic organization (ATO)? |
The Chief Operating Officer (teri bristol) |
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what does Air traffic Services do? (AJT) |
provide safe, secure, and efficient management of NAS |
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how many service areas are there? |
3 (western, central, eastern) |
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another term for spacial disorientation |
vertigo |
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primary purpose of the atc system: |
prevent a collision between aircraft and provide a safe, orderly, and expeditious flow of traffic, and to provide support for national security and national defense |
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what is positive control |
separation of all air traffic within a designated airspace |
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first priority |
separating aircraft and issuing safety alerts |
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second priority |
provide support to national security and homeland defense |
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third priority |
provide additional service to the extent possible |
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when is automation used |
used in preference to non automation when at an advantage |
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how are aircraft served and list exceptions |
first come first serve. unless 1. aircraft in distress 2. medevac (call sign LN) 3. air evac if requested (call sign E) 4. search and rescue missions 5. air force one 6. flight check aircraft 7. special military/civilian ops 8. diverted flights |
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name 3 types of atc facilities |
1 flight service station 2 air route traffic control center 3 terminal air traffic control facilities |
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name 4 basic flight service positions |
flight data/notam coordinator broadcast preflight inflight |
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what does flight data/notam coordinator do? |
compile, evaluate, record, disseminate notams and flight plans. also initiates search and rescue missions |
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what does broadcast position do? |
compiles and disseminates weather and flight information. Hazardous inflight weather advisory service (HIWAS) |
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what does the pre flight position do? |
brief pilots the forecast and notams |
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true or false: fss provides radar traffic advisories to vfr aircraft |
false |
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which fss position issues airport advisories? |
in flight |
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name the tower team |
local controller, ground controller, tower associate, tower coordinator, flight data, clearance delivery |
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name the tracon team |
radar controller, radar associate, flight data, radar coordinator
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what is the mission of Traffic Management System? |
balance traffic demand with system capacity |
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name 7 traffic management initiatives |
altitude miles in trail/minutes in trail fix balancing/airborne holding sequencing programs reroutes ground delay programs ground stops |
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the operation of the TM system us the responsibility of? |
ATCSCC |
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what height are V and RNAV Tango airways used? |
below 18000 ft |
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what heights are Jet and RNAV Q routes used? |
18000 to 45000 ft |
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what are the primary navaids used? |
VOR and VORTEC |
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color of lines painted on runway |
white |
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color of lines painted on taxyway |
yellow |
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how far is Runway aiming zone markings from threshold? |
1000 ft |
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how far distanced are the Runway touchdown zone markings?
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500 ft |
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what is featured on a runway with no ifr approach |
designator, centerline, aiming zone |
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what is featured on a non precision runway? |
designator, centerline, aiming zone, threshold lines |
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what about a precision approach runway? |
designator, centerline, aiming zone, threshold lines, touchdown markings |
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what orientation and color are shoulder markings? |
yellow at 45 degrees |
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what precedes a DISPLACED threshold? |
Non landing portion |
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what color are blast pad chevrons? |
yellow |
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How is a runway permanently closed? |
lights disconnected, yellow X every 1000 feet, markings obliterated |
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how is a runway temporarily closed? |
yellow X at ends of runway |
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what is the taxiway centerline? |
yellow and continuous |
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what signs are red background and white text? |
mandatory instruction signs |
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what signs are black background and yellow text? |
runway location signs |
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what signs are black background and white text? |
runway distance signs (in thousands of feet) can also be used to apply runway separation |
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what signs are yellow background and black text with an arrow? |
taxiway direction sign |
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when is airport beacon used? |
during night or when IFR conditions |
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beacon: flash white and green |
land airport |
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beacon: flash white and yellow |
water airport |
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beacon: two flashes of white and a green flash |
military airport |
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What are the two bright strobe lights are the end of a runway? |
Runway End Identifier lights |
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what color are runway edge lights? |
white, until the end, yellow |
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what color are runway threshold lights? |
green for the one youre landing at. red at the opposite side |
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What are the 2 types of in-runway lighting? |
Touchdown zone lighting (TDZL) and runway centerline lighting system (RCLS)- white for 3k ft then white and yellow for 2k ft then red for 1k ft |
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what system of lights are used for visual descent guidance? |
Visual Approach slope indicators (VASI) |
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What lights provide the basic means to transition from IFR to VFR landing? |
Approach Light systems (ALS) |
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what color are taxiway edge lights? |
blue |
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what color are taxiway centerline lights? |
green |
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what color is stop bar lights? |
red |
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how far do you have to fly by restricted airspace? |
3 miles |
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what is the standard altimeter set to and at what height? |
29.92 in.Hg at or above FL180 |
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Anything greater (not including) fl410 has to be vertically distanced by this much |
2000 ft |
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what is RVSM |
Reduced Vertical Separation minima |
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at what heights is RVSM used? |
FL290 to FL410 |
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vertical separation of supersonic and subsonic aircraft. where and how much |
oceanic, 4000 ft, above FL450 |
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vertical separation of military aircraft above FL600 |
5000 ft |
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can non RVSM aircraft cruise in FL290 to 410? |
NO. only climb or descend |
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What are the exceptions of aircraft what can cruise non rvsm above FL290? |
1. DOD aircraft 2. NASA aircraft 3.MEDEVAC 4.Foreign embassaries 5. manufacturer developmental aircraft |
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what heading can be cleared for lateral separation?
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45 degrees |
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what is the standard minima for non radar longitudinal separation? |
10 minutes or 20 mi dme |
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whats the separation used using a single sight scope? |
3 miles before 40 m away. 5 if anything more |
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how far must aircraft be separated over FL600 |
10 miles |
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when can visual separation be used |
when tower sees both planes up to, but not including, fl180 |
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min distance of cat 1 plane behind a cat 2 or 1 plane |
3000ft |
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min distance of cat 2 plane behind a cat 1 or 2 |
4500 ft |
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min distance of cat 3 following anything |
6000 ft |
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standard patterns of holding fix |
right hand turn, 1 min legs (1.5 min over 14k ft) |
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what are the 2 subsystems of disseminating aeronautical information |
airmens information system (AIS)
and NOTAMs |
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who manages aeronautical charts |
National Flight Data Center (NFDC) |
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who is responsible for originating and canceling notam info related to navaids |
technical operations services |
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who is responsible for originating and canceling notam info related to aerodrome services and facilities |
airport management |
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who is the authority ensuring notam formats and the USNS |
United states notam office (USNOF) |
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who processes, stores, and distributes notams |
United states notam system (USNS) |
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what does a U in a notam mean? |
unverified information |
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what are the different types of notams? |
NOTAM D Flight Data Center FDC Notam pointer NOTAM Military NOTAM |
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when are notam D used? |
when WIDE dissemination required. of en route navaids |
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what notams can USNOF edit? |
all except FDC notams notifying the original source |
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when are fdc notams issued |
for information not normally regulatory in nature (air space changes, forest fires, hijacking) |
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how can an fdc notam be cancelled? |
issue another notam by the NOTAM issuing authority |
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what notam publication is issued every 28 days? |
NTAP - notice to airmen publication. by mission support services |
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who issues pointer notams |
fss |
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four parts of a primary radar |
transmittor antenna receiver radar display |
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mti |
moving target indicator |
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what is a con of MTI |
mti blind speed |
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what are the parts of secondary radar? |
interrogator antenna transponder decoder radar display |
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what are cons of secondary radar
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transponder near obstructions (double pings) ring around |
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order: flight service |
JO 7110.10 |
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order: ATC |
JO 7110.65 |
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order: Facility Operations and Admin |
JO 7210.3 |
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order: Contractions |
JO 7340.2 |
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order: Location identifiers |
JO 7350.9 |
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order: aircraft type designators |
JO 7360.1 |
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what are the different types of directives? |
Order, supplement, change, notice |
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what are the three types of notices? |
GENOTS RENOTS SERNOTS |
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who negotiates LOA? |
air traffic managers |
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who reviews and approves LOAs? |
Service area office. if not them then at representative, at manager, or region air defense liason officer |
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Bernoullis principle |
the internal pressure of a fluid decreases at points where speed of the fluid increases |
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newtons 3rd law |
for every action there is an equal and opposite reaction |
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relative wind |
the direction of the airflow produced by an object moving through the air parallel to flight path. not influenced by crosswind. |
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types of airfoils |
wing propeller *helicopter rotor horizontal stabilizer *vertical tail surfaces *fuselage*not principle airfoils |
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chord line
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imaginary straight line that goes from leading edge to trailing edge of an airfoil |
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angle of attack |
acute angle formed between chord line and flight path or relative wind |
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camber |
curvature of the airfoil |
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wing planform |
shape of wing viewed from top. delta wing, sweptback, tapered leading and straight trailing edge |
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3 key properties of atmosphere that effect airplane performance |
temperature, altitude, water vapor (humidity) |
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surface temp of earth |
59 f |
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lapse rate |
temp decreases 3.5 f every 1000 ft until -67 f 7 miles above ground |
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on what axes are longitudinal lateral and vertical rotations on an aircraft? and what controls them? |
roll pitch and yaw. ailerons, elevators, rudder |
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what does the collective do? |
controls the pitch of the rotor blade of a helicopter (angle of attack) |
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what does a cyclic do? |
changes the pitch of the entire rotor to one direction |
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when is the usual critical angle of attack? |
15 to 20 degrees |
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three primary causes of stalls |
insufficient airspeed excessive violent maneuvers severe wind shear |
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what is a product of lift? |
wake turbulence/vortices |
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what are 3 factors for vortex strength? |
weight of aircraft shape of wing (configuration) speed of aircraft greatest vortex is on a heavy,clean, slow aircraft |
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what direction do vortices flow? |
they rotates counterclockwise of the right wing, clockwise on left. and they drift outwards |
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how fast to vortices sink and where do they settle? |
300 to 500 ft per minute and they level 500 to 1000 ft below flight path. temperature inversion might slow descent |
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how to vortices behave near the ground? |
100 to 200 feet off the ground, they move laterally at 2 to 3 knots |
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what are the effects of crosswinds or tailwinds on vortices? |
can keep one vortex over the runway while pushing the other even faster to the parallel runway. or can push a vortex into a planes path |
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what is effective to fight induced rolls? |
have wingspans extending out of vortex diameter |
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how large is helicopter downwash? |
3x the diameter of the rotor |
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when do helicopters create vortexes? |
when in forward flight. can me more intense than plane vortex if heavy enough |
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criteria for cat 1 aircraft |
12500 lbs or less. single engine. prop driven all copters |
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criteria for cat 2 aircraft |
12500 lbs or less. twin engine. prop driven |
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criteria for cat 3 aircraft |
anything not cat 1 or 2 |
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criteria for 'small' aircraft |
41000 lbs or less max certified weight |
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criteria for 'large' aircraft |
more than 41000 lbs but less than 300000 lbs |
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criteria for 'heavy' aircraft |
planes of take off weights greater than 300000 lbs |
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'super' aircraft |
airbus a380-800 (A388) or Antonov An-225 (A225) |
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how are categories and weight classes used? |
categories are used for same runway separation. weight classes are used for separation from wake turbulence |
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performance for cat 1 aircraft |
speed: 100-160 knots altitude: 10000 ft or below climb rate: 1000 ft/min or less weight: small |
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performance for a cat 2 aircraft |
speed: 160-250 knots altitude: fl240 and below climb rate: 1000-2000 ft/min weight: small |
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performance for a cat 3 aircraft |
speed: 300-550 knots altitude: fl450 and below climb rate: 2000-4000 ft/min weight: varies |
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performance for helicopter |
speed: 90-160 knots altitude: fl200 and below climb rate: 500-2150 ft/min weight: small - large |
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what are aircraft designators derived from and how long are they? |
manufacturer model number or name, or from a common military type. from 2 to 4 characters beginning with a letter usually |
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what are the 3 aircraft engine types? |
reciprocating, turboprop, and turbojet |
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what are the 3 wing placements and cofigurations? |
high wing, mid wing, and low wing. straight wing, swept wing, and delta wing |
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what are the 5 basic tail configurations? |
conventional, forward slant, horizontal stabilizer above fuselage, T tail, V tail |
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what are the 5 types of windows? |
square round oval teardrop bubble |
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what are the two basic lading gears? |
conventional and tricycle |
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What are the different types of air spaces?
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CLASS A - 18000 MSL TO FL600
B - MSL BUSY AIRPORTS C D G - NOT CONTROLLED E - ANYTHING IN BETWEEN |
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Properties of Class B airspace |
up to 10000 ft msl. need clearance to enter. two way radio required. 4096 transponder with mode C needed. Class B operating rules found on TAC chart. separation provided for all aircraft |
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Properties of Class C airspace? |
surface to 4000 ft (Charted in MSL). usually 5 NM radius on surface. 10 NM radius from 1200 ft to 4000 ft. two way radio and 4096 transponder with Mode C required. vfr aircraft do not need clearance to enter but entry might be denied |
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Properties of Class D airspace? |
surface to 2500 ft (Charted in MSL) need two way radio separation not provided to vfr aircraft only in effect when tower in open |
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where are Victor and low RNAV Tango routes located? |
Class E airspace |
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what is a TRSA? |
Terminal Radar Service Area. ATC support in busy areas that cant be redrawn as busier class airspace. Pilots not need to participate but it is recommended. |
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who publishes Temporary flight restrictions? (TFRs). provide examples |
FDC Notam hazardous sight, aircraft accident, sport event, national security. |
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What does a Controlling Agency do? |
Provides ATC services of a Special use Airspace (SUA) when it is not active |
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what does the Using agency do? |
it is the military unit or organization whose activity established the requirement for the SUA |
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Characteristics of a Prohibited area |
designated airspace where flight of aircraft is not permitted without permission. begins from surface and goes to a certain altitude. "P - #" |
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Characteristics of a restricted area |
Flight is NOT prohibited but is restricted. i.e artillery practice, shelling, arial gunnery. "R - #" |
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characteristics of a Warning area |
designated for space that might be unsafe for nonparticipating pilots. from 3 NM coast of america. W-## or W-### |
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characteristics of an alert area |
Cant extend to Class A B C D or E airport surface areas. must comply with CFR Part 14. New jet pilots practice here. "A-## or A-###" |
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what is a MOA? |
Military operations Area. outside class A. non hazardous (dogfighting) "NAME - MOA" |
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Can planes fly over CFA's? |
Controlled firing area. Yes. activity can be suspended if an aircraft flies overhead |
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NSA |
National Security area. Designed to protect national assets. dimension should be set to a minimum. pilot asked to voluntarily avoid |
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who is a Code of Federal Regulations issued by? and how are they organized? |
FAA Administrator. part, subpart, section |
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Authorization by air traffic control for the purposed of preventing collision between known aircraft and for an aircraft to proceed under specified conditions in controlled airspace |
Air Traffic Clearance |
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Has final authority and responsibility for the operation and safety of the flight |
Pilot in command |
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geographical location in relation to which the position of an aircraft is reported |
reporting point |
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What is CFR 91 and what area does it cover? |
Operating rules for all air traffic within airspace 12 NM and water 3 NM of US coast |
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when can planes fly in formation? |
When all pilots have arranged to fly in formation and are not being paid to do so. |
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who has right of way? |
plane on right, or aircraft lease maneuverable |
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what direction turns do you make at landings? |
left |
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speed below 10000 ft msl |
250 KIAS |
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unless authorized or required by atc, speed of aircraft below 2500 ft AGL with 4NM of class C or D |
200 kias |
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speed below shelf of class B airspace |
200 KIAS |
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minimum height over congested area |
1000 ft above, 2000 feet around |
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minimum height over non congested areas |
500 ft over highest point |
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When does 29.92 inHg start getting used? |
at and above 18000 ft |
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when can a pilot deviate from clearance? |
in case of emergency or TCAS alert |
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when can a pilot cancel IFR |
When in VFR conditions and outside class A airspace |
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when should pilots receiving ATC priority for an emergency submit a report? |
if requested, within 48 hours |
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can towers exist in class G airspace? |
yes temporary ones. in which case youd need a two way radio. |
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what height do large or turbine powered aircraft in class C or D enter the traffic pattern for landing? |
1500 ft above airport |
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when can pilots request a different runway when it goes against noise abatement? |
in the interest of safety |
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what does a tower atc controller need?
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air traffic control tower operator certificate CTO.
be 18 or older good moral character read and speak english valid second class medical license |
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where are medical rule found and how often are exams? |
CFR 67. 39 yo and below, every 2 years. 40 and above, every year |
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what are 3 flight plans and what is the main purpose? |
IFr, VFR, DVFR. for search and rescue missions |
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when does IFR exist? |
when cloud ceiling is below 1000 ft agl and visibility less that 3 statute miles |
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who is responsible for canceling a IFR and VFRflight plan? |
the PIC once completed. if landing at airport with operational tower, flight plan is automatically cancelled for IFR |
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when is filing a VFR flight plan mandatory? |
When penetrating an Air Defense Identification Zone (ADIZ) or Distant Early Warning Identification zone (DEWIZ) used for security reasons listed in CFR part 99 pilot needs to cancel. can start after or before departure |
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what ways can a flight plan be filed? |
verbally or in writing with a FSS or ATC on computer using DUATS |
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Is SVFR a written flight plan? |
No, must be requested by pilot. it is a clearance which is automatically cancelled when landed or departed. below 10000 ft msl in Class B C D E surface areas clear of clouds visibility at least 1 SM (except for helicopters) prohibited between sunset and sunrise unless pilot is vfr rated and aircraft is instrument equipped |
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What is the rule for aircraft flying in directions more than 3000 ft up to but not including 18000 ft |
NEODD and SWEVEN. 0 to 179 degrees is odd plus 500 ft 180 to 359 degrees is even plus 500 ft |
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what is VFR on top? |
IFR Clearance pilot requests route issued by atc. cannot fly through clouds. pilot responsible for separation if in class E or D |
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what are the standard takeoff minimums for revenue flights? |
1 SM visibility required from aircraft with 2 engines or less. 1/2 SM required for aircraft with more than 2 engines |
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whats the lowest you can fly IFR over areas with no minimum? |
2000 ft over and 4 miles around (mountains)
1000 ft over and 4 miles around (cities) |
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IFR direction rules over 18000ft |
FL180 to and including FL410 every 1000 ft. FL greater than 410, every 2000 ft |
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Do pilots need to report passing each designated reporting point? |
not if they are on radar |
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what happens in a NORDO situation when an IFR aircraft is in flight? what clearance items do they need to follow? |
they switch to VFR and land immediately. if in IFR conditions, they must mind route, altitude, and clearance limit they must follow last atc clearance or follow flight plan 1) leave at expect further clearance (EFC) or 2) arrive by ETA |
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a person cant operate an unpressurized aircraft unless: |
1. altitude above 12500 msl up to and including 14000 msl has oxygen for crew if operating more than 30 minutes (flight crew) 2.altitudes over 14000 msl unless have oxygen at all times (flight crew) 3.over 15000 ft msl unless each occupant has oxygen (everyone) |
