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108 Cards in this Set

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What is the difference between plasma and serum?

Plasma is unclotted and has fibrinogen. Serum is clotted and has no fibrinogen.

Describe lavender topped vacutainer tubes.

They use EDTA as an anticoagulant. They are used in hematology.

Describe light blue topped vacutainer tubes.

They use sodium citrate and are used in coagulation testing.

Describe grey topped vacutainer tubes.

They use flouride and are used in glucose assays.

Describe yellow topped vacutainer tubes.

They are serum separator tubes and are used in chemistry and for blood cultures. They have a plug that settles between the RBCs and the serum, separating them.

Describe red topped vacutainer tubes.

They are called serum tubes. They have no additives and are used in chemistry.

What is the most commonly recommended blood draw order?

Yellow, light blue, orange, red, green, blue-grey, lavender, grey.

Describe an icteric specimen.

Dark yellow due to jaundice/increased bilirubin.

Describe a lipemic specimen.

It will be milky-yellow due to increased lipids (fats).

Describe a hemolyzed specimen.

It is pink-red in color due to hemolysis.

Which is smaller; 23 gauge or 21 gauge needles?


What do you do if the patient has an IV and why?

What to do: You try to use the other arm without the IV, or draw from below the IV. Note an IV draw on requisition.

Reason: The IV will contaminate the blood draw with IV fluid if you draw above the IV.

What does parfocal mean?

A parfocal lens is a lens that stays in focus when magnification/focal length is changed.

What is quality assurance?

The process required to ensure that results will be accurate and trustworthy.

What is quality control?

Control of the testing process to ensure that the test results meet the quality needs.

Define accuracy.

The closeness of the test value to the true result.

Define precision.

When replicate analyses of a sample agree with each other- reproducibility. Indicator of random error. Expressed as CV.

Define control.

A substance of biological nature that’s physical and chemical composition closely resembles the unknown test specimen.

What is a calibrator?

A calibrator is a preserved human or artificial cell suspension whose parameters have been determined by multiple reference labs.

What is a delta check?

Comparing the results from the analysis of a sample with the result from the previous sample for the same analyte.

What is a reference interval?

Range of values for an analyte in healthy persons.

What is diagnostic sensitivity and specificity?

Diagnostic sensitivity: Sensitivity relates to the test's ability to identify positive results.

Diagnostic specificity: Specificity relates to the ability of the test to identify negative results.

What is a shift?

When the control values suddenly move above or below the mean on a consistent basis over six days.

What is a trend?

When the control values move away from the mean in an ever increasing or decreasing way.

What do you call the formation of blood cells?


How many phases of hematopoiesis are there in our lives?


The 1st phase of hematopoiesis is called __.

Mesoblastic phase (or Yolk Sac Phase)

The 2nd phase of hematopoiesis is called __.

Hepatic phase

What is the 3rd phase of hematopoiesis?

Medullary phase (or myeloid phase)

What 4 organs generate blood cells during the Hepatic phase?

Spleen, thymus, liver, lymph nodes

When does the mesoblastic phase begin?

2-3 weeks after fertilization

The mesoblastic phase ends after __ weeks.


What is an erythroblast?

Primitive pluripotential cells that are precursors of all blood cell lines.

What is the first lymphatic organ to develop?

(This happens during the hepatic phase) The thymus

Where do B cells develop in the hepatic phase?

The spleen and kidney

What phase does production of megakaryocytes begin in?

Hepatic phase

The spleen is almost the sole site of __ during the hepatic phase.


When does the medullary phase begin?

5 months

After __ months, the bone marrow is the primary source of hematopoiesis.


What do colony stimulating factors do?

Cause the cells to proliferate and differentiate into specific kinds of blood cells.

Under hypoxic conditions, the __ will produce and secrete erythropoietin to increase the production of red blood cells.


What is the most common cause of anemia?

Iron deficiency

What color is the bone marrow of 3 year old?

Red. There are no fat cells in a 3 year old's bone marrow.

At what age does a child's bone marrow start to turn from red to (partially) yellow?

4 years of age. The process ends around 7 years of age.

How long do RBCs live?

120 days

In a patient with leukemia, the ratio of __ marrow to fat increases dramatically.

red; note that fat will be yellow.

Phagocytic __ cells in the spleen, liver, and other strategic locations "eat" pathogens as well as eliminating debris from the blood.


The __ is the storage cite for platelets.


What does splenomegaly (enlargement of the spleen) indicate?

leukemia, lymphomas, RBC problems

What kind of cell is responsible for the stimulation or inhibition of blood cells?


Normal RBCs developing in the bone marrow are called __.


What is a megaloblast?

An unusually large erythroblast.

What does the presence of megaloblasts indicate?

Vitamin B12 deficiency and/or folic acid deficiency

The presence of megaloblasts is called?

megaloblastic anemia

The first stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __.

The first stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __.

Rubriblast or a pronormoblast

Rubriblast or a pronormoblast

The 2nd stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __.

Prorubricyte or a basophilic normoblast

The 3rd stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __.

Rubricyte or a polychromatic normoblast

The 4th stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __.

Metarubricyte or an orthochromic normoblast

The 5th stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __.

Reticulocyte or a polychromatophilc rbc

The 6th stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __.

Mature erythrocyte

What type of stain do you use to spot a reticulocyte?

New methylene blue or another supravital stain

Retics stay how many days in the bone marrow?


How long do retics circulate in our blood stream?

1 day

Percentage-wise, what is the normal range of reticulocytes in an adult human body?

.5% - 1.5%

How long does it take a stem cell to develop into a full erythrocyte?

4 - 5 days

What is the main function of an erythrocyte?

To transport oxygen and CO2

Erythropoietin acts on the __ __.

bone marrow

What does it mean when a patient has aplasia?

Their body isn't responding to erythropoietin.

Apoptosis is __ __ __.

programmed cell death

Shift retics have more RNA due to what?

early release into the circulation

The __ __ __ is a system of fixed macrophages located all over the body, especially the spleen.

reticuloendothelial system (RES)

As erythrocytes age, their shape becomes more __.


As erythrocytes age, they accumulate __ due to decreased enzyme activity.


You need what kind of iron in your body so your RBCs can transport oxygen?

Fe 2+

What is a carrier protein for iron which goes to hematopoietic tissue?

Transferrin (iron enters circulation bound to transferrin)

Some iron is temporarily stored as __.


What are the 3 principal regulators of iron?

transferrin, transferrin receptor, ferritin

What is transferrin called when there is no iron attached?


Where is transferrin produced?

the liver

Iron stored in degraded Ferritin is called __.

Hemosiderin. (The iron within deposits of hemosiderin is very poorly available to supply iron when needed.)

In what 3 organs is iron stored?

liver, bone marrow, and spleen

The amount of serum ferritin in the body indicates what?

The amount of iron stored in the body.

What does a measurement of Serum Iron indicate?

Tissue iron supply

What does a measurement of TIBC/transferrin indicate?

Tissue iron supply

What does a measurement of bone marrow sideroblast count indicate?

Functional iron available

What is the main component of RBCs?

RBCs are 90% hemoglobin

Mature erythrocytes cannot synthesize __.

Heme (heme gives RBCs their red color)

What vitamin does heme biosynthesis require?


What plasma protein carries iron to the developing RBCs?


Excess iron aggregates in the cytoplasm as __.


What unites with protoporphyrin 9 to make heme?


Iron and protoporphyrin 9 combine in the presence of __ to create heme.


A sideroblast is an anucleated RBC with excess __.


The most common combo of chains that form hemoglobin A are __ and __.

two alpha, two beta

Hgb A2 contains 2 __ and 2 __ chains.

2 alpha chains and 2 delta chains

Hgb F contains 2 __ and 2 __ chains.

2 alpha and 2 gamma chains

What 2 things combine to form hemoglobin?

heme and globin (duh)

What oxygen binding heme protein binds oxygen better than hgb?


If the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, you need more or less oxygen?

less oxygen

If the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, alkalyne levels go higher or lower?


If the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right, you need more or less oxygen?


An increase in PH level is generally good or bad?


What can cause an increase in PH levels?

blood transfusion, decreased body temp, Hgb F

What can cause a decrease in PH levels?

hypoxia, increase in body temp, pulmonary problems, several anemia - all of these are usually bad.

Hgb F results in an __ in oxygen saturation and affinity.


Can methemoglobin combine with oxygen?


Without Fe2+, you can't keep __ in your RBCs.


What RBC abnormality can result if the hexose monophosphate shunt is deficient?

Heinz bodies