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108 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is the difference between plasma and serum? |
Plasma is unclotted and has fibrinogen. Serum is clotted and has no fibrinogen. |
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Describe lavender topped vacutainer tubes.
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They use EDTA as an anticoagulant. They are used in hematology. |
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Describe light blue topped vacutainer tubes. |
They use sodium citrate and are used in coagulation testing. |
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Describe grey topped vacutainer tubes. |
They use flouride and are used in glucose assays. |
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Describe yellow topped vacutainer tubes. |
They are serum separator tubes and are used in chemistry and for blood cultures. They have a plug that settles between the RBCs and the serum, separating them. |
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Describe red topped vacutainer tubes. |
They are called serum tubes. They have no additives and are used in chemistry. |
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What is the most commonly recommended blood draw order? |
Yellow, light blue, orange, red, green, blue-grey, lavender, grey. |
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Describe an icteric specimen. |
Dark yellow due to jaundice/increased bilirubin. |
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Describe a lipemic specimen. |
It will be milky-yellow due to increased lipids (fats). |
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Describe a hemolyzed specimen. |
It is pink-red in color due to hemolysis. |
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Which is smaller; 23 gauge or 21 gauge needles? |
23 |
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What do you do if the patient has an IV and why? |
What to do: You try to use the other arm without the IV, or draw from below the IV. Note an IV draw on requisition. Reason: The IV will contaminate the blood draw with IV fluid if you draw above the IV. |
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What does parfocal mean? |
A parfocal lens is a lens that stays in focus when magnification/focal length is changed. |
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What is quality assurance?
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The process required to ensure that results will be accurate and trustworthy. |
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What is quality control? |
Control of the testing process to ensure that the test results meet the quality needs. |
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Define accuracy. |
The closeness of the test value to the true result. |
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Define precision. |
When replicate analyses of a sample agree with each other- reproducibility. Indicator of random error. Expressed as CV. |
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Define control. |
A substance of biological nature that’s physical and chemical composition closely resembles the unknown test specimen. |
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What is a calibrator? |
A calibrator is a preserved human or artificial cell suspension whose parameters have been determined by multiple reference labs. |
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What is a delta check? |
Comparing the results from the analysis of a sample with the result from the previous sample for the same analyte. |
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What is a reference interval? |
Range of values for an analyte in healthy persons. |
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What is diagnostic sensitivity and specificity? |
Diagnostic sensitivity: Sensitivity relates to the test's ability to identify positive results. Diagnostic specificity: Specificity relates to the ability of the test to identify negative results. |
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What is a shift? |
When the control values suddenly move above or below the mean on a consistent basis over six days. |
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What is a trend? |
When the control values move away from the mean in an ever increasing or decreasing way. |
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What do you call the formation of blood cells? |
Hematopoiesis |
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How many phases of hematopoiesis are there in our lives? |
3 |
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The 1st phase of hematopoiesis is called __. |
Mesoblastic phase (or Yolk Sac Phase) |
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The 2nd phase of hematopoiesis is called __. |
Hepatic phase |
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What is the 3rd phase of hematopoiesis? |
Medullary phase (or myeloid phase) |
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What 4 organs generate blood cells during the Hepatic phase? |
Spleen, thymus, liver, lymph nodes |
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When does the mesoblastic phase begin? |
2-3 weeks after fertilization |
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The mesoblastic phase ends after __ weeks. |
6 |
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What is an erythroblast? |
Primitive pluripotential cells that are precursors of all blood cell lines. |
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What is the first lymphatic organ to develop? |
(This happens during the hepatic phase) The thymus |
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Where do B cells develop in the hepatic phase? |
The spleen and kidney |
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What phase does production of megakaryocytes begin in? |
Hepatic phase |
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The spleen is almost the sole site of __ during the hepatic phase. |
lymphopoiesis |
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When does the medullary phase begin? |
5 months |
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After __ months, the bone marrow is the primary source of hematopoiesis. |
6 |
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What do colony stimulating factors do? |
Cause the cells to proliferate and differentiate into specific kinds of blood cells. |
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Under hypoxic conditions, the __ will produce and secrete erythropoietin to increase the production of red blood cells. |
kidney |
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What is the most common cause of anemia? |
Iron deficiency |
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What color is the bone marrow of 3 year old? |
Red. There are no fat cells in a 3 year old's bone marrow. |
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At what age does a child's bone marrow start to turn from red to (partially) yellow? |
4 years of age. The process ends around 7 years of age. |
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How long do RBCs live? |
120 days |
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In a patient with leukemia, the ratio of __ marrow to fat increases dramatically. |
red; note that fat will be yellow. |
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Phagocytic __ cells in the spleen, liver, and other strategic locations "eat" pathogens as well as eliminating debris from the blood. |
macrophage |
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The __ is the storage cite for platelets. |
spleen |
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What does splenomegaly (enlargement of the spleen) indicate? |
leukemia, lymphomas, RBC problems |
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What kind of cell is responsible for the stimulation or inhibition of blood cells? |
cytokine |
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Normal RBCs developing in the bone marrow are called __. |
normoblasts |
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What is a megaloblast? |
An unusually large erythroblast. |
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What does the presence of megaloblasts indicate? |
Vitamin B12 deficiency and/or folic acid deficiency |
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The presence of megaloblasts is called? |
megaloblastic anemia |
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The first stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __. |
Rubriblast or a pronormoblast |
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The 2nd stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __. |
Prorubricyte or a basophilic normoblast |
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The 3rd stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __. |
Rubricyte or a polychromatic normoblast |
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The 4th stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __. |
Metarubricyte or an orthochromic normoblast |
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The 5th stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __ or a __. |
Reticulocyte or a polychromatophilc rbc |
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The 6th stage in the maturation sequence of RBCs is called a __. |
Mature erythrocyte |
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What type of stain do you use to spot a reticulocyte? |
New methylene blue or another supravital stain |
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Retics stay how many days in the bone marrow? |
2-3 |
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How long do retics circulate in our blood stream? |
1 day |
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Percentage-wise, what is the normal range of reticulocytes in an adult human body? |
.5% - 1.5% |
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How long does it take a stem cell to develop into a full erythrocyte? |
4 - 5 days |
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What is the main function of an erythrocyte? |
To transport oxygen and CO2 |
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Erythropoietin acts on the __ __. |
bone marrow |
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What does it mean when a patient has aplasia? |
Their body isn't responding to erythropoietin. |
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Apoptosis is __ __ __. |
programmed cell death |
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Shift retics have more RNA due to what? |
early release into the circulation |
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The __ __ __ is a system of fixed macrophages located all over the body, especially the spleen. |
reticuloendothelial system (RES) |
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As erythrocytes age, their shape becomes more __. |
spherical |
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As erythrocytes age, they accumulate __ due to decreased enzyme activity. |
methemoglobin |
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You need what kind of iron in your body so your RBCs can transport oxygen? |
Fe 2+ |
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What is a carrier protein for iron which goes to hematopoietic tissue? |
Transferrin (iron enters circulation bound to transferrin) |
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Some iron is temporarily stored as __. |
ferritin |
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What are the 3 principal regulators of iron? |
transferrin, transferrin receptor, ferritin |
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What is transferrin called when there is no iron attached? |
apoferritin |
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Where is transferrin produced? |
the liver |
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Iron stored in degraded Ferritin is called __. |
Hemosiderin. (The iron within deposits of hemosiderin is very poorly available to supply iron when needed.) |
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In what 3 organs is iron stored? |
liver, bone marrow, and spleen |
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The amount of serum ferritin in the body indicates what? |
The amount of iron stored in the body. |
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What does a measurement of Serum Iron indicate? |
Tissue iron supply |
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What does a measurement of TIBC/transferrin indicate? |
Tissue iron supply |
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What does a measurement of bone marrow sideroblast count indicate? |
Functional iron available |
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What is the main component of RBCs? |
RBCs are 90% hemoglobin |
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Mature erythrocytes cannot synthesize __. |
Heme (heme gives RBCs their red color) |
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What vitamin does heme biosynthesis require? |
B6 |
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What plasma protein carries iron to the developing RBCs? |
Transferrin |
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Excess iron aggregates in the cytoplasm as __. |
ferritin |
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What unites with protoporphyrin 9 to make heme? |
iron |
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Iron and protoporphyrin 9 combine in the presence of __ to create heme. |
ferrochelatase |
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A sideroblast is an anucleated RBC with excess __. |
iron |
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The most common combo of chains that form hemoglobin A are __ and __. |
two alpha, two beta |
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Hgb A2 contains 2 __ and 2 __ chains. |
2 alpha chains and 2 delta chains |
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Hgb F contains 2 __ and 2 __ chains. |
2 alpha and 2 gamma chains |
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What 2 things combine to form hemoglobin? |
heme and globin (duh) |
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What oxygen binding heme protein binds oxygen better than hgb? |
myoglobin |
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If the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, you need more or less oxygen? |
less oxygen |
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If the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the left, alkalyne levels go higher or lower? |
higher |
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If the oxygen dissociation curve shifts to the right, you need more or less oxygen? |
more |
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An increase in PH level is generally good or bad? |
good |
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What can cause an increase in PH levels? |
blood transfusion, decreased body temp, Hgb F |
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What can cause a decrease in PH levels? |
hypoxia, increase in body temp, pulmonary problems, several anemia - all of these are usually bad. |
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Hgb F results in an __ in oxygen saturation and affinity. |
increase |
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Can methemoglobin combine with oxygen? |
No |
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Without Fe2+, you can't keep __ in your RBCs. |
oxygen |
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What RBC abnormality can result if the hexose monophosphate shunt is deficient? |
Heinz bodies |
