Arrt Q's

Front 1

To "excuse" suboptimal images, a radiographer makes a note on the exam requisition claiming that the patient "was uncooperative." That radiographer can legally be found guilty of:

A. malpractice. B slander. C libel. D tort.

Back 1

C libel

Front 2

A dorsal decubitus position of the chest may be used to evaluate small amounts of

1.fluid in the posterior chest.

2.air in the posterior chest.

3.fluid in the anterior chest.

Back 2

1 ONLY

Front 3

An overall image density arising from factors other than the light or radiation used to expose the image is called

A fog. B log-relative exposure. C optical density. D artifact.

Back 3

A FOG

Front 4

The x-ray beam and collimator light field must coincide to within

A 10% of the OID

B 2% of the OID

C 10% of the SID

D 2% of the SID

Back 4

D 2% OF THE SID

Front 5

The image in Figure 6–6 was obtained while testing

A rectifier operation in a single-phase x-ray machine.

B rectifier operation in a three-phase x-ray machine.

C timer accuracy in a single-phase x-ray machine.

D timer accuracy in a three-phase x-ray machine.

Back 5

D-timer accuracy in a three-phase x-ray

Front 6

QA was being performed on a three-phase, full-wave-rectified x-ray unit. A synchronous spinning-top test was performed using 300 mA, 60 ms, and 70 kVp, and a 22-degree arc is observed on the test film. Which of the following statements regarding these results is most correct?

A The timer is inaccurate.

B The milliamperage station is inaccurate.

C One rectifier is malfunctioning.

D The test results are satisfactory.

Back 6

D The results are satisfactory

Front 7

SID affects recorded detail in which of the following ways?

A Recorded detail is directly related to SID.

B Recorded detail is inversely related to SID.

C As SID increases, recorded detail decreases.

D SID is not a detail factor

Back 7

A.) Recorded detail is directly related to SID.

Front 8

Which of the dose–response curves shown in Figure 3–7 is representative of radiation-induced skin erythema?

a. Dose–response curve

b. Dose–response curve

c. Dose–response curve

C

Back 8

C

Front 9

A patient unable to extend his or her arm is seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 90 degrees. The CR is directed 45 degrees medially. Which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

1. Radial head

2. Capitulum

3. Coronoid process

A 1 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2, and 3

Back 9

B 1 and 2 only

Front 10

The annual dose limit for occupationally exposed individuals is valid for

A Alpha, beta, and x-radiations.

B x- and gamma radiations only.

C beta, x-, and gamma radiations.

D all ionizing radiations.

Back 10

C beta, x-, and gamma radiations.

Front 11

According to the NCRP, the pregnant radiographer's gestational dose-equivalent limit for a 1-month period is

A 1 mSv

B 5 mSv

C 0.1 mSv

D 0.5 mSv

Back 11

D. 0.5mSv

Front 12

The lesser tubercle of the humerus will be visualized in profile in the

A. AP shoulder external rotation radiograph.

B .AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph.

C. AP elbow radiograph.

D. Lateral elbow radiograph

Back 12

B .AP shoulder internal rotation radiograph.

Front 13

A star pattern is used to measure

1.focal spot resolution.

2.intensifying-screen resolution.

3.SID resolution.

A 1 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 1 and 3 only

D 1, 2, and 3

Back 13

B 1 and 2 only

Front 14

Europium-activated barium fluorohalide is associated with

A rare earth intensifying screens

B image intensifiers

C PSP storage plates

D filament material

Back 14

C PSP storage plates

Front 15

An exposed image plate will retain its original image quality for about

A 2 hours

B 8 hours

C 24 hours

D 48 hours

Back 15

B 8 HRS

Front 16

Characteristics of a patient with pulmonary emphysema include

1. shoulder girdle elevation

2. increased AP diameter of the chest

3.hyperventilation

A 1 only

B 1 and 2 only

C 2 and 3 only

D 1, 2, and 3

Back 16

B 1 AND 2 ONLY

Front 17

The PA chest radiograph shown in Figure 2–13 demonstrates

1.rotationscapulae

2.superimposed on lung fields

3.adequate inspiration

Back 17

1 and 3 only

Front 18

Which of the following is most likely to produce a high-quality image?

A Small image matrix

B High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)

C Large pixel size

D Low resolution

Back 18

B High signal-to-noise ratio (SNR)

Front 19

A change from 400-speed screens to 200-speed screens would require what change in milliampere-seconds?

A mAs should be increased by 15%.

B mAs should be increased by 30%.

C mAs should be doubled.

D mAs should be halved.

Back 19

C mAs should be doubled.

Front 20

The functions of a picture archiving and communication system (PACS) include

1.storage of analog images

2.acquisition of digital images

3.storage of digital images

Back 20

2 and 3 only

Front 21

A graphic diagram of signal values representing various densities within the part being imaged is called a

A processing algorithm

B DICOM

C histogram

D window

Back 21

C histogram

Front 22

Which of the following is (are) accurate criticism(s) of the open-mouth projection of C1-2 seen in Figure A?

1.The MSP is not centered and perpendicular to the midline of the table.

2.The neck should be flexed more.

3.The neck should be extended more.

Back 22

1 and 2 only

Front 23

A kyphotic curve is formed by which of the following?

1.Sacral vertebrae

2.Thoracic vertebrae

3.Lumbar vertebrae

Back 23

1 and 2 only

Front 24

During IV urography, the prone position generally is recommended to demonstrate

1.the filling of the ureters

2.the renal pelvis

3.the superior calyces

Back 24

1 AND 2 ONLY

Front 25

The National Council on Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP) has recommended what total equivalent dose limit to the embryo/fetus?

A 0.5 mSv

B 5.0 mSv

C 50 mSv

D 500 mSv

Back 25

B 5.0mSv

Front 26

Which of the following examinations most likely would be performed to diagnose Wilm's tumor?

A BE

B Upper GI

C IVU

D Bone survey

Back 26

C IVU

Front 27

Which of the following radiologic procedures requires that a contrast medium be injected into the renal pelvis via a catheter placed within the ureter?

A Nephrotomography

B Retrograde urography

C Cystourethrography

D IVU

Back 27

B RETROGRADE UROGRAPHY

Front 28

Which of the following radiologic examinations can demonstrate ureteral reflux?

A IV urogram

B Retrograde pyelogram

C Voiding cystourethrogram

D Nephrotomogram

Back 28

C Voiding cystourethrogram

Front 29

A patient suffering from orthopnea would experience the least discomfort in which body position?

A Fowler

B Trendelenburg

C Recumbent

D Erect

Back 29

D ERECT

Front 30

Which of the following would best evaluate the structure labeled 4 in Figure 2–14?

A PA axial projection (Caldwell method)

B Parietoacanthal projection (Waters method)

C Lateral projection

D Submentovertical projection

Back 30

B Water method

Front 31

When modifying the PA axial projection of the skull to demonstrate superior orbital fissures, the central ray is directed

A 20° to 25° caudad.

B 20° to 25° cephalad.

C 30° to 35° caudad.

D 30° to 35° cephalad.

Back 31

A 20° to 25° caudad.

Front 32

Glossitis refers to inflammation of the

A epiglottis

B salivary glands

C tongue

D ossicles

Back 32

C tongue

Front 33

Which of the following sinus groups is demonstrated with the patient positioned as for a parietoacanthal projection (Waters method) with the CR directed through the patient's open mouth?

A Frontal

B Ethmoidal

C Maxillary

D Sphenoidal

Back 33

D SPHEDNOIDAL

Front 34

Which of the following statements is (are) true regarding the PA axial projection of the cranium?1.The central ray is directed caudally to the OML.

2.The petrous pyramids are projected into the lower third of the orbits.

3.The frontal sinuses are visualized.

Back 34

1, 2, and 3

Front 35

With a patient in the PA position and the OML perpendicular to the table, a 15- to 20-degree caudal angulation would place the petrous ridges in the lower third of the orbit. To achieve the same result in a baby or a small child, it is necessary for the radiographer to modify the angulation to

A 10 to 15 degrees caudal

B 25 to 30 degrees caudal

C 15 to 20 degrees cephalic

D 3 to 5 degrees caudal

Back 35

A 10-15 DEGREES CAUDAL

Front 36

The junction of the sagittal and coronal sutures is the

A diploe

B lambda

C bregma

D pterion

Back 36

C BREGMA

Front 37

The medical term for congenital clubfoot is

A coxa plana.

B osteochondritis.

C talipes.

D muscular dystrophy.

Back 37

C

Front 38

Which part of an induction motor is located within the x-ray tube glass envelope?

A Filament

B Focusing cup

C Stator

D Rotor

Back 38

D ROTOR

Front 39

An optically stimulated luminescence dosimeter contains which of the following detectors?

A Gadolinium

B Aluminum oxide

C Lithium fluoride

D Photographic film

Back 39

B Aluminum Oxide

Front 40

All the following are central venous lines except

A a Port-a-Cath.

B a PICC.

C a Swan–Ganz catheter.

D a Salem-sump.

Back 40

D a Salem-sump.

Front 41

The tarsals and metatarsals are arranged to form the

1.transverse arch.

2.longitudinal arch.

3.oblique arch.

Back 41

1 and 2 only

Front 42

With a patient suffering abdominal pain, it is frequently helpful to

1.elevate the head slightly with a pillow.

2.perform the examination in the Trendelenburg position.

3.place a support under the knees.

Back 42

1 and 3 only

Front 43

If a patient received 2000 mrad during a 10-minute fluoroscopic examination, what was the dose rate?

A 0.02 rad/min

B 0.2 rad/min

C 2.0 rad/min

D 20 rad/min

Back 43

B 0.2 rad/min

Front 44

Grid cutoff due to off-centering would result in

A overall loss of density

B both sides of the image being underexposed

C overexposure under the anode end

D underexposure under the anode end

Back 44

A overall loss of density

Front 45

If a patient's zygomatic arch has been traumatically depressed or the patient has flat cheekbones, the arch may be demonstrated by modifying the SMV projection and rotating the patient's head

A 15 degrees toward the side being examined

B 15 degrees away from the side being examined

C 30 degrees toward the side being examined

D 30 degrees away from the side being examined

Back 45

A 15 degrees toward the side being examined

Front 46

The hard palate is formed by the

1. ethmoid bone.

2. maxillary bone.

3. palatine bone.

Back 46

2 and 3 only

Front 47

Primary radiation barriers usually require which thickness of shielding?

A ¼-in. lead

B ⅛-in. lead

C 1/16-in. lead

D 1/32-in. lead

Back 47

C 1/16-in. lead

Front 48

Which of the following is a measurement of dose to biologic tissue?

A Roentgen (C/kg)

B Rad (Gy)

C Rem (Sv)

D RBE

Back 48

C Rem (Sv)

Front 49

What is the position of the stomach in a hypersthenic patient?

A High and vertical

B High and horizontal

C Low and vertical

D Low and horizontal

Back 49

B High and horizontal

Front 50

Which of the following structures will usually contain air, in the PA recumbent position on a sthenic patient, during a double-contrast upper GI (UGI) examination?

A Duodenal bulb

B Descending duodenum

C Pyloric vestibule

D Gastric fundus

Back 50

D Gastric fundus

Front 51

A flat and upright abdomen is requested on an acutely ill patient, to demonstrate the presence of air-fluid levels. Because of the patient's condition, the x-ray table can be tilted upright only 70° (rather than the desired 90°). How should the central ray be directed?

A Perpendicular to the IR

B Parallel to the floor

C 20° caudad

D 20° cephalad

Back 51

B Parallel to the floor

Front 52

Which of the following positions will demonstrate the lumbosacral apophyseal articulation?

A AP

B Lateral

C 30-degree RPO

D 45-degree LPO

Back 52

C 30-degree RPO

Front 53

Shoulder arthrography is performed to

1. evaluate humeral

2. luxationdemonstrate complete or partial rotator cuff tear

3. evaluate the glenoid labrum

Back 53

2 AND 3 ONLY

Front 54

With the patient seated at the end of the x-ray table, elbow flexed 80 degrees, and the CR directed 45 degrees laterally from the shoulder to the elbow joint, which of the following structures will be demonstrated best?

A Radial head

B Ulnar head

C Coronoid process

D Olecranon process

Back 54

C Coronoid process

Front 55

Which of the following is (are) demonstrated in an AP projection of the cervical spine?

1. Intervertebral disk spaces

2.C3–7 cervical bodies

3. Apophyseal joints

Back 55

1 AND 2 ONLY

Front 56

What is the structure indicated by the letter A in Figure 7–3?

A greater tubercle

B coronoid process

C coracoid process

D acromion process

Back 56

D acromion process

Front 57

What projection of the os calsis is obtained with the leg extended, the plantar surface of the foot vertical and perpendicular to the IR, and the CR directed 40 degrees cephalad?

A Axial plantodorsal projection

B Axial dorsoplantar projection

C Lateral projection

D Weight-bearing lateral projection

Back 57

A Axial plantodorsal projection

Front 58

What is the structure indicated by the number 7 in Figure 2–18?

A Common hepatic duct

B Common bile duct

C Cystic duct

D Pancreatic duct

Back 58

C Cystic duct

Front 59

The structure indicated by the number 5 in Figure 6–11 is the

A sigmoid.

B ileum.

C cecum.

D ascending colon.

Back 59

B ILEUM

Front 60

Which of the following terms is correctly used to describe x-ray beam quality?

A mA

B HVL

C Intensity

D Dose rate

Back 60

B HVL

Front 61

Patient dose during fluoroscopy is affected by the

1. distance between the patient and the input phosphor

2. amount of magnification

3. tissue density

Back 61

1,2, AND 3

Front 62

The primary function of filtration is to reduce

A patient skin dose.

B operator dose.

C image noise.

D scattered radiation.

Back 62

A patient skin dose.