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99 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
____ is made up of keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.
Epidermis
Cell types

____ produce the water insoluble protein keratin which hardens structures; approx. 90% of epidermal cells

____ produce melanin, a brown/black pigment which absorbs UV light and is the primary skin pigment; approx. 8% of epidermal cells

____ produced in the bone marrow; help provide immunity to the epidermis.

____ nerve ending for touch.
Keratinocytes

Melanocytes

Langerhans cells

Markel cell (disc)
Layers of the Epidermis

_______ a single layer of cuboidal shaped cells; mitotically active

_______ 8-10 cell layers thick; cells start to flatten as they reach the upper part of this layer.

_______ 3-5 cell layers thick; cells continue to flatten out; cells begin to die forming a water resistant barrier (ie, keratinization)

______ only present n he finger tips, palms and soles of feet; 3-5 layers of cells.

_____ 20-30 cell layers in thickness; flatted dead keratinocytes, no nuclei; outer layers are continually she needing to be replaced; approx. 3/4 of the epidermal thickness.
Stratum Basale

Stratum Spinosum

Stratum Granulosum

Stratum Lucidum

Stratum Corneum
____: mostly connective tissue containing collagen and elastin fibers, few cells.
Dermis
Two regions (layers) of dermis:

_____ superficial portion.

_____ deepest and largest portion; contains irregular C.T.
Papillary region

Reticular region
Papillary Region:

Define:
Dermal Papillae
Meissner corpuscles
Epidermal ridges
Dermal Papillae:
tiny projections into the epidermis which increase the surface area of the stratum basale.

Meissner corpuscles:
(corpuscles of touch) tactile receptors; located at the apex of dermal papillae

Epidermal ridges:
dermatoglyphs = finger points
associated with the underlying papillae
______ is composed of adipose and areolar connective tissue; stores fat; contains vessels and nerves that supply the skin
Hypodermis
Pigmentation

______: brown/black pigment produced from Melanocytes; made from amino acid Tyrosine; disorders: albinism, vitiligo

______: a yellow/orange pigment; not associated with jaundice; associate with vitamin A

______: pink/red pigment; the oxygen carrying molecule in RBCs, associated with translucent skin
Melanin

Carotene

Hemoglobin
Accessory structures = epidermal derivatives

____ covers most skin surfaces; columns of dead keratinized cells that are bonded together; protects the body from heat loss and UV light.

____ plates of tightly packed, keratinized epidermal cells

____ secrete sebum, an oily substance that softens and lubricates the skin, water proofing, maintains hair follicles, contains antibacterial substances; associated with hair follicles, lips, pubic region; not found on palms or soles.

____ release secretions onto the surface of the skin

____ most common; produces watery sweat that contains ions and small organic molecules; help regulate body temperature; eliminate wastes

____ common to axilla and groin; watery secretion, more viscous than normal sweat, contains proteins and lipids; secondary sexual function
hair = pili/pilus

nails

sebaceous glands

sudoriferous (sweat) glands

eccrine glands

apocrine gland
Wound Healing in the Integument

Superficial: when only the ______ is damaged; the cells surrounding the wound enlarge and migrate to fill the gap created by the injury.

Mitosis in the Stratum Basale is stimulated, more cells are produced to make up for dead cells.
Epidermis
Superficial:

What is contact inhibition?
Migration ceases when the cells on both sides of the wound come into contact.
Deep Wound Healing:
Damage affects the ______.
Dermis
Phases of deep wound healing:

What happens in each stage?
Inflammatory phase
Migratory phase
Proliferative phase
Maturation phase
Inflammatory:
clot forms over wound; local vasodilation, leukocytes (infection) and fibroblasts (rebuild tissue) move into the damage area

Migratory:
scab forms; epithelial tissue migrates beneath the scab to bridge the wound; granulation (scar) tissue begins to be laid down beneath the scab; vessels begin to regrow

Proliferative:
epithelial tissue begins to mature; collagen fibers continue to be laid down randomly

Maturation phase: scab falls off after the epidermis is repaired; circulation is restored; fibroblasts decrease in number
What is fibrosis?
It is scar tissue formation (scar tissue is not as healthy as the original tissue).
What is a keloid?
It is an uncontrolled fibrosis.
What are the three steps in thermoregulation?
(avg temp is 98.6F)
1. Temperature change is detected by nerve endings in the skin (ie thermoceptors)

2. This information is sent to the Hypothalamus.

3. Nerve signals are then sent back to the sweat glands, and the smooth muscle in the vessels of the Integumentary system.
Responses:

What happens when ambient temperature is elevated ("This one's too hot")?
1. Perspiration increases, heat is lost by evaporation.
2. Smooth muscle in the dermal vessels relax causing their diameter to increase. More blood can now enter these vessels. Heat is lost to the environment by radiation.
Responses:

What happens when ambient temperature decreases ("This one is too cold")?
1. Sweat gland activity decreases. Body conserves heat.
2. Smooth muscle in dermal vessels constrict, conserving heat.
If skeletal muscle gets too cold, _____ begins. If skeletal muscle gets too warm, it _____. This is a direct mechanism and not mediated by the Hypothalamus.
shivering, relaxes
Homeostatic Disorders

____ is tissue damage caused by excessive heat, electricity, radioactivity or corrosive chemicals that break down the skin.
Burns
Down to what level do these burns affect:

First degree
Second degree
Third degree

Rules of nines: _____
Epidermis
into dermis
through dermis (full thickness)

prioritize burns
Pressure sores are also known as ______ (bed sore). It is the break down of the integumentary system associated with excess pressure.
Decubitus ulcer
What is osseus (bone) tissue?
Is it the connective tissue in which the matrix is hardened by calciumphosphate and other minerals.

Osteo = bone
Shape of bone
General features of bones

1. ______ the shaft of a bone (also called the body)
2. ______ the ends of a bone
3. ______ covers the ends of moveable bones
4. ______ fibrous membrane that covers the outer portion of a bone, tends attach here, highly innervated
5. ______ space inside bone that contains marrow
6. ______ the lining of the medullary cavity
7. ______ area that contains hyaline cartilage in growing bone, area that causes bone to elngoate, becomes ossified (bone) in adults
1. Diaphysis
2. Epiphysis
3. Articular (hyaline) cartilage
4. Periosteum
5. Medullary (marrow) cavity
6. Endosteum
7. Epiphyseal plate
Histology of bone

1. ______ a stem cell that differentiates to become an Osteoblast
2. ______ cells that lay down collagen fibers and matric to form bone
3. ______ mature osteoblast, bone cells, sense the various stressors on bone
4. ______ bone dissolving cells
1. Osteogenic cell
2. Osteoblast
3. Osteocyte
4. Osteoclast
______ is mostly Hydroxyapatite, a calcium phosphate salt, and some calcium carbonate; organic portion is mostly collagen.
Matrix
What is a compact bone?
It is a densely packed bone, usually located in the outer diaphysis.
What is the basic structural unit of compact bone?
Osteon = Haversian System
1. ______ located at the center of the Osteon, contains vessels and nerves.

2. _____ concentric layers of matrix that surround the central canal.

3. _____ the space that houses the osteocyte

4. _____ "tiny canals" that connect lacuna

5. _____ channels that contain vessels and nerves, connect adjacent osteons and osteons to the outer surface of bone.
1. Central (Haversian) canal
2. Concentric lamellae
3. Lacuna
4. Canaliculi
5. Perforating (Volkmann) canal
What is a spongy bone?
It is loosely packed bone, usually found inside of the epiphysis.
What is trabeculae?
It is thin plates of calcified tissue that provide a lattice appearance to spongy bone.
Name and describe the two types of bone marrow.
Red Bone Marrow:
hemopoietic tissue (produces formed elemts of the blood, ex RBC, WBC, Platelets)

Yellow Bone Marrow:
Adipose tissue, not hematopoietic
Ossification or osteogenesis is _______.
formation of bone
What are the two methods of bone development?
1. Intramembraneous ossification: produces flat bones, ex skull, clavicle; bone develops from membranes

2. Endochondral ossification: produces most bones; hyaline cartilage matrix is laid down initially, then ossification occurs replacing this cartilage
______ is the change of the size and shape of bones to accommodate the changing forces applied to the skeleton.
Remodeling
______ is adding matrix; when this occurs in the hyaline cartilage of the epiphyseal plate, the bone grows in length.
Interstitial growth
______ is deposition onto the surface of bone; increases the diameter of bone.
Appositional growth
What is the normal range of blood calcium?
9.2 to 10.4 mg/dL
What is hypocalcemia?
Low blood calcium, muscle is unable to relax, tetany. Under 9.2
What is hypercalcemia?
high blood calcium, nerves and muscles are slow to respond; weakness, sluggish reflexes, possible cardiac arrest. Over 10.4
Hormone regulation of calcium and phosphate homeostasis

Name and describe two responses for hypocalcemia.
1. Calcitriol:
a form of vitamin D is stimulated by absorption of UV light; this hormone raises blood calcium by:
- increasing absorption in the small intestine
- stimulates calcium removal from bones (osteoclast)
- causing the kidney to retain calcium in the blood

2. Parathyroid hormone (PTH): released by the parathyroid glands; this hormone raises the blood calcium level by:
- stimulating osteoclast
- causing the kidneys to retain calcium in the blood
- decreases osteoblast activity
What is one response to hypercalcemia?
Calcitonin: released by the thyroid gland; this hormone lowers calcium level in the blood by:
- inhibiting osteoclast
- stimulate osteoblast (places calcium into bone)
What is a fracture?
It is any disruption in the continuity of a bone; during normal fracture repair, the bone forms a hard callus that is often stronger than the original bone.

Steps associated with fracture repair:
1. Hematoma forms around fracture site.
2. Granulation tissue forms - hematoma becomes infiltrated with capillaries, fibroblasts, microphages, osteoclasts, osteogenic cells
3. Callus formation - fibroblasts lay down collagen, "soft callus" is formed which is made up of fibrocartilage
4. Remodeling - bone tissue is laid down replacing cartilage, this forms the bony (hard) callus; initially spongy bone is laid down, the outer portion of the bone is converted (remodeled) into compact (cortical) bone
Joint = articulation is __________.
A point of contact between two bones, between bone and cartilage, or between bone and teeth.
What is kinesiology?
It is the study of movement of the human body.
How are joints classified?
- joints are classified structurally based on their anatomical characteristics
- joints are classified functionally based on the kind of movement they permit
______ do not have a synovial cavity and the articulating bones are held together with fibrous connective tissue; these allow little to no movement.
Fibrous Joints
Types of Fibrous joints:

1. ______ a thin later of dense fibrous connective tissue connects the bones of the skull. Functionally, this kind of joint is called a synarthrosis i.e., an immovable joint (these joints tend to ossify with age to form a synostosis).

2. ______ a fibrous joint which has a greater distance between articulating bones than sutures and more fibrous connective tissue. ex, the sheen of connective tissue than connects the tibia and fibula; these joints are slightly moveable

3. ______ where a cone shaped peg fits into a socket; ex connecting the jaw to teeth; synarthrosis
1. Sutures
2. Syndesmoses
3. Gomphosis
_______ joints do not have a synovial cavity and the articulating bones are connected with cartilage. These allow little to no movement.
Cartilaginous
Cartilaginous joints:

______ contains Hyaline Cartilage; ex the Epiphyseal plate

_____ a broad, flat disk of fibrocartilage connects the bones; are amphiarthoses; ex. intervertebral disks
Synchondroses
Symphoses
_____ joints are considered to be freely moveable joints; the bone ends of these joints are covered with
Articular (Hyaline) cartilage; a space called the Synovial Cavity lies between the articulating bones.
Synovial
Other components of Synovial Joints:

1. ______ surrounds the synovial joint to form the synovial cavity; two layers.
Articular Capsule
2. ______ secreted by the synovial membrane; a viscous fluid that lubricates and nourishes joint surfaces
Synovial Fluid
3. ______ some joints contain ligaments inside or outside the joint cavity
Accessory Ligaments
4. ______ a pad of fibrocartilage that lies between certain articulating bones; ex knee joint
Meniscus = Articular disc
5. ______ tiny, fluid filled, saclike structures around certain joints that help reduce friction caused by movement.
Bursae
6. ______ a tube like bursa that wraps around certain tendons; these help reduce friction where tendons pass through synovial cavities
Tendon Sheaths
What is bursitis?
Inflammation of a bursa. Associated with synovial joint bursae.
Movements of synovial joints

Define flexion.
A decrease in the angle between articulating bones.
Define extension.
An increase in the angle between articulating bones, or to restore a body part to the Anatomical Position.
Define hyperextension.
A continuation of extension beyond the Anatomical Position.
Define abduction.
The movement of a bone away from the midline;
the midline for the hand is the middle finger;
the midline for the foot is the second toe
Define adduction.
Movement of a bone towards the midline.
Define circumduction.
Movement of the distal end of the body part in a circle; requires movement in more than one plane of motion.
Define rotation.
When a bone revolves around its own longitudinal axis.
Define oppositional.
The movement of the thumb at the carpometacarpal joint in which the thumb moves across the palm to touch the tips of the fingers of the same hand.
Disorders

_____ damage to a joint that tears ligaments, but does not dislocate bones; can cause significant damage to surrounding tissues.
Sprain
______ is a displacement of a bone from a joint; this results in the tearing of the articular capsule and adjacent tissues.
Dislocation
_______ is a degenerative disorder of synovial joints where the articular cartilage is gradually lost; associated with the normal "wear and tear" on joints; calcium deposits around the joint to create "spurs"
Osteoarthritis (O.A.) Degenerative Joint Disease (D.J.D.)
______ is an autoimmune disorder (the body attacks its own tissues); this disorder usually occurs bilaterally (vs R.A.); often leads to joint fusion.
Rheumatoid Arthritis (R.A.)
_____ is a disorder associated wit the build up of Uric Acid (a waste product of Nucleic Acid metabolism); as Uric Acid build up it forms crystals which are deposited in soft tissues of joints, these crystals irritate and inflame joints eroding away articulating surfaces.
Gouty Arthritis (Gout)
Myo = _______
Muscle
What are the functions of muscle tissue?
1. production of body movements
2. stabilize body positions
3. storage and movement of substances through the body
4. generating heat
Properties of Muscle Tissue
What is electrical excitability?
It is the ability to respond to stimuli.
What is contractility?
It is the ability to contract (shorten) forcibly when stimulated.
What is extensibility?
It is the ability to stretch without being damaged.
What is elasticity?
It is the ability to return to its original length and shape after contraction or extension.
Connective tissue components:

______ is a sheath or broad band of fibrous connective tissue that is deep to the skin and surrounds muscles or other organs of the body
Fascia
Layer of fascia:

__________ Fascia (hypodermis)
- contains adipose & areolar C.T., vessels, nerves
- stores triglycerides
- provides insulation
- protects underlying muscles and separates these muscles from the skin (ie provides a reduced friction surface)

________ Fascia:
- dense irregular connective tissue
- contains vessels and nerves
- provides reduced friction surface for muscle movement
Superficial

Deep
Layers of Deep Fascia:

a. ______ - surrounds individual muscle fibers
b. ______ - surrounds bundles of muscle fibers - Fascicle
c. ______ - the outer most fascial layer; surrounds individual muscles (ex, Trapezius)
a. endomysium
b. perimysium
c. epimysium
T or F:
The deep fascial layers are continuous with the connective tissue that connects muscles to other structures, i.e. tendons.
True
What is a tendon?
It is a dense regular connective tissue that connects muscles to the periosteum of bone.
______ is a broad, flat tendon.
Aponeurosis
Nerves & Blood Supply

Skeletal muscle is highly ______ (i.e. has a good blood supply) to supply the needed oxygen and nutrients, and to remove waste products.
vascularized
Skeletal muscle is ____ __ ______ ______(Somatic Nervous System). A single axon will usually innervate several muscle fibers.
innervated by motor neurons
What is a motor unit?
A motor neuron and all the muscle fibers that it innervates.
What is neuromuscular Junction?
It is the point of contact between the motor neuron and the muscle fiber, I.e. synapse.
_____ is a syncytium which is a group of cells that fused to form one large structure, has many nuclei, and is surrounded by endomysium.
Muscle fiber
_____ is the plasma membrane that surrounds a muscle fiber.
Sarcolemma
____ is the cytoplasm of muscle fibers.
Sarcoplasm
_____ are thread like filaments contained within a muscle fiber. It is the contractile element of muscles; contains myofilaments.
Myofibrils
___________ surrounds myofibrils, stores calcium, contains calcium pumps that continually pump Ca++ from around the myofibrils back in to the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum.
Sarcoplasmic Reticulum
________ move at right angles to the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum; they have invaginations of the Sarcolemma that pass signals to the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum.
Transverse (T) Tubules
______ is the functional unit of a myofibril; made up of various myofilaments (proteins).
Sarcomere
Sarcomere myofilaments:

1. Thick filament - made from _____.
2. Thin filament - mostly _____.
3. _____ - a thick, elastic protein strand that stabilizes the thick filament.
4. Troponin & Tryptomyosin - surround the binding sites of _____.
1. myosin
2. actin
3. titin
4. actin
Regions of the Sarcomere:

a. _____ - the region that contains the thick filaments (Myosin), also known as the Dark band
b. _____ - the region that does not contain the thick filaments, also known as the Light band
c. _____ - layer of protein that separate Sarcomeres
d. _____ - line of protein that runs down he middle of the Sarcomere
a. A band
b. I band
c. Z disc
d. M line
Alternating ___ and ____ bands produce the striated appearance of Skeletal muscle.
A, I
Sequence of events associated with muscle contraction:

1. Action Potential travels down the axon towards the neuromuscular junction.

2.. Action Potential reaches the axon terminal and causes a synaptic vesicle to release neurotransmitter in to the synaptic cleft, via endocytosis.

* the synaptic vesicle is the neurotransmitter enclosed in a lipid bilayer "packet", ACh is the neurotransmitter for skeletal muscle contraction.

3. ACh diffuses across the synaptic cleft.

4. ACh binds to a receptor on the motor end plate (i.e. the portion of the neuromuscular junction that is on the muscle).

5. ACh binding to the receptor produces an Action Potential which travels along the T-tubules (transverse tubules) toward the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum.

6. Action Potential signals the Sarcoplasmic Reticulum to release Calcium across the myofibrils.
7. Calcium binds to Troponin. Tropomyosin is attached to Troponin. When calcium binds to Troponin, the Tropomyosin slides across the thin filament (actin). This movement exposes the Myosin binding sites that are on the Thin filament.

8. The Myosin heads of the Thick filament can now approximate the Myosin binding sites.

9. ATP attaches to the Myosin head. ATP is split into ADP and phosphate. This activates the Myosin head.

10. The activated Mysoin head binds to the Myosin binding site. The phosphate group is released.

11. The Myosin head flexes (Power Stroke) which draws the Thin filament toward the M line. ADP is released after the Myosin head is flexed.

12. Myosin head remains attached to the Myosin binding site until another ATP attached to it. The Myosin head is then released from the Myosin binding site and becomes extended. It will then bind to another Myosin binding site.

Steps 9, 10 and 11 are repeated until the signal from the neuron ceases.
Sliding Filament Mechanism is the process where Thin filaments are drawn towards the ___ line. This involves the repeating of steps 9 through 12.
M