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488 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
What is involved in the skeletal system?
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bones, cartilage, ligaments and other connective tissues that stabilize or connect bones.
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Are bones organs?
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Yes
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What are the two types of bone connective tissue present in most bones of the body?
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Compact bone ( dense or cortical bone)
Spongy bone(cancellous or trabecular bone) |
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Which bone type makes up approximately 80% of the total bone mass?
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Compact bone
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Which bone type appears porous?
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Spongy bone
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_____ is a semi-rigid connective tissue that is more flexible than bone
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Cartilage
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What are the three subtypes of cartilage?
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Hyaline cartilage
Fibrocartilage Elastic cartilage |
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What is hyaline cartilage?
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the most common type of cartilage. It is named for its clear, glassy appearance under the microscope. Hyaline cartilage is surrounded by a perichondrium. Hyaline cartilage is found in many areas of the body, including the nose, trachea, larynx, costal cartilage and articular ends of long bones. It also forms most of the fetal skeleton.
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What is fibrocartilage?
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fibrocartilage is a weight-bearing cartilage. It has numerous coarse, readily visible protein fibers that are arranged as irregular bundles between large chondrocytes. There is only a sparse amount of ground substance. The densely interwoven collagen fibers contribute to the durability of this cartilage. There is no perichondrium. Fibrocartilage acts as a good shock absorber and resists compression. It is located in the intervertebral disks, pubic symphysis, and menisci of the knee joint.
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What is elastic cartilage?
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The flexible, springy cartilage. Contains numerous elastic fivers within its extra-cellular matrix. The elastic fibers are densely packed together and ensure that this tissue is both resilient and very flexible. Elastic cartilage is surrounded by a perichondrium. This cartilage is found on the external ear and the epiglottis.
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Bone connective tissue is also known as _______ and makes up most of the structures referred to as "bones"
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Osseous connective tissue
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What is more solid? Bone or cartilage?
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Bone
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What are bone cells called?
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osteocytes
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the osteocytes are housed within spaces in the extracellular matrix called ________
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lacunae
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What is periosteum?
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similar to perichondrium of cartilage
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What are osteons?
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Compact bone is formed from these cylindrical structures which display concentric rings of bone connective tissue called lamellae.
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What is the classification of sesamoid bones?
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Heterotopic
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Name some heterotopic bones
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vermian, sesamoid, sutural
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What is the medullary cavity?
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Bone marrow
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What is periosteum?
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Surrounds the bone
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What provides a site for attachment on bones?
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Periosteum
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Tiny little holes in the bone allowing for blood flow
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Nutrient foramen
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How many kinds of bone marrow are there?
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3
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What are several of the basic functions bones perform?
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Support and protection
movement hemopoiesis storage of mineral and energy reserves |
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In what three locations of the body do you find fibrocartilage?
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Intervertebral discs, pubic symphysis, and cartilage pads of the knee joints (menisci)
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What is another name for the cartilage pads of the knee joints?
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Menisci
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What is menisci?
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Cartilage pads of the knee joints
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Ligaments attach _______ to _____ and tendons attach ______ to ______.
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ligaments: bone to bone
tendons: bone to muscle |
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Hemopoiesis is the process of _____
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blood cell production
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Hemopoiesis occurs in what kind of bone marrow?
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Red bone marrow connective tissue that contains stem cells that form blood cells and platelets
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Most of the body's reserves of the minerals _____ and _____ are stored within and then released from bone.
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calcium and phosphate
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_____ is an essential mineral for such body functions as muscle contraction, blood clotting, and nerve impulse transmission
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Calcium
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Calcium is an essential mineral for what three biological functions?
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Muscle contraction
blood clotting nerve impulse transmission |
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_____ (mineral) is required for ATP utilization and is an important component of the plasma membrane
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Phosphate
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Name two things phosphate is required for biologically.
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ATP utilization and is an important component of the plasma membrane
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Potential energy in the form of lipids is stored where?
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yellow bone marrow in the shafts of some adult bones
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What two minerals are stored in bone, and what are their functions in the body?
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Calcium and phosphate
Calcium: muscle contraction, blood clotting, nerve impulse transmission Phosphate: ATP utilization, important component of the plasma membrane |
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What are the five major functions of skeletal muscle?
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Body movement
Maintenance of posture Protection and support Storage and movement of materials Heat production |
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Describe the five characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue.
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Excitability
Conductivity Contractility Elasticity Extensibility |
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Identify the three connective tissue layers associated with muscle
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epimysium
perimysium endomysium |
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Within the muscle many muscle fibers are organized into bundles called _____
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fasciles
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The _____ is a layer of dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the whole skeletal muscle
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epimysium
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The _____ surrounds the fascicles. The dense irregular connective tissue sheath contains extensive arrays of blood vessels and nerves that brach to supply muscle fibers within each individual fascicle
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perimysium
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The _____ is the innermost connective tissue layer of muscle.
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endomysium
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A _____ is a thick, cordlike structure composed of dense regular connective tissue
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tendon
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How many connective tissue layers is a tendon composed of?
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3
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A flattened sheet of dense irregular tissue is called:
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aponeurosis
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Deep fascia is also called _____ or _____
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visceral fascia or muscular fascia
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What is the purpose of deep fascia? list 4
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separates individual muscles
binds together muscles with similar functions contains nerves, blood vessels, and lymph vessels serves to fill spaces between muscles |
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_____ is composed of areolar connective tissue and adipose connective tissue that separates muscle from skin
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superficial fascia
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Is skeletal muscle vascularized or avascular?
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vascularized
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Is skeletal muscle innervated?
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yes
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_____ neurons extend from the brain and spinal cord to skeletal muscle fibers
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motor
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Each motor neuron has a long extension called an _____ that branches extensively at its terminal end
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axon
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_____ is the cytoplam of muscle fibers
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sarcoplasm
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A skeletal muscle fiber is typically between ____ and ____ micrometers in diameter
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10 and 500
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Are muscles multinucleated cells?
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yes
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Groups of embryonic cells termed _____ fuse to form single skeletal muscle fibers during development.
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myoblasts
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Myoblasts are:
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groups of embryonic cells fused to form single skeletal muscle fibers during development.
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Is deep fascia connective tissue?
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Yes
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Fascicle
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a bundle of individual muscle cells
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a motor unit =
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a motor unit = a single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates
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True or false:
a single motor neuron can innervate a lot of different muscle fibers |
True
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blast cells:
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immature cells that differentiate into mature cells
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_____ fuse together and form a single muscle cell
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myoblasts
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why are skeletal muscle cells multinucleated?
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multiple myoblasts fuse together to create a single muscle cell and each of them has their own nucleus
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satellite cells are:
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unfused myoblasts associated with repair and regeneration of muscle
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the muscle cell membrane is deep to the _____
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endomysium
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where are the nucleii in a muscle cell located?
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deep to the cell membrane
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what is the name of a muscle cell membrane?
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sarcolemma
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T-tubules stands for
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transverse tubules
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How do we send electrical signals deep into the muscle?
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through T-tubules
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What kind of pumps are located along the length of both the sarcolemma and T-tubules?
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Sodium-potassium
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____ (#) Na+ are pumped out of a skeletal muscle fiber for every ____ (#) K+ pumped in
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3;2
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_____ has a higher concentration outside the muscle fiber and _____concentration is greater inside the muscle fiber
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Na+ higher outside
K+ greater inside |
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_____ is an internal membrane complex that is similar to the smooth endoplasmic reticulum of other cells
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sarcoplasmic reticulum
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Terminal cisternae
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blind sacs at either end of individual sections of the sarcoplasmic reticulum which serve as reservoirs for calcium ions (Ca2+)
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blind sacs at either end of individual sections of the sarcoplasmic reticulum which serve as reservoirs for calcium ions (Ca2+)
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Terminal cisternae
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Approximately 80% of the volume of a muscle fiber is composed of long, cylindrical structures termed _____
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myofibrils
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What kind of cartilage makes up the epiphyseal plates?
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Hyaline
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What are the plates called between the diaphysis and the epiphysis?
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Epiphysial plates
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Name the four classifications of bones:
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Long, short, flat, irregular
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______ bones are greater in length than width
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Long
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the elongated, cylindrical shaft of long bones
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diaphysis
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the most common bone shape
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long bones
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where are long bones?
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arm, forearm, palm, and fingers
thigh, leg, sole of the foot, toes |
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_____ bones have a length nearly equal to their width
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short bones
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Examples of short bones are:
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carpals, tarsals, sesamoid bones
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the largest sesamoid bone
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patella
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What kind of cartilage makes up the epiphyseal plates?
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Hyaline
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What are the plates called between the diaphysis and the epiphysis?
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Epiphysial plates
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Name the four classifications of bones:
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Long, short, flat, irregular
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______ bones are greater in length than width
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Long
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the elongated, cylindrical shaft of long bones
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diaphysis
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the most common bone shape
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long bones
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where are long bones?
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arm, forearm, palm, and fingers
thigh, leg, sole of the foot, toes |
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_____ bones have a length nearly equal to their width
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short bones
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Examples of short bones are:
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carpals, tarsals, sesamoid bones
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the largest sesamoid bone
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patella
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This classification of bones form the roof of the skull, scapulae, sternum and ribs
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flat bones
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Name some irregular bones
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vertebrae, os cossa, skull bones including the ethmoid, sphenoid, and sutural bones
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The hollow, cylindrical space within the diaphysis is called the _____ cavity
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medullary
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The expanded, knobby region of a long bone is called the _____
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epiphysis
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Epiphysis is found where?
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at each end of a long bone
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This region of long bone is made up of a thin outer layer of compact bone and an inner, more extensive region of spongy bone
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epiphysis
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Covering the joint surface of an epiphysis is a thin layer of _____ cartilage called ______ cartilage
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hyaline; articular
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Articular cartilage is what kind of cartilage?
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hyaline
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The _____ is the region in a mature bone sandwiched between the diaphysis and the epiphysis
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metaphysis
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This region of the bone contains the epiphyseal plate in adults
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metaphysis
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A tough sheath called _____ covers the outer surface of the bone except for the areas covered by articular cartilage
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periosteum
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The lining of the bone
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periosteum
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How many layers does the periosteum consist of?
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2: outer protects bone, anchors blood vessels and nerves, serves as an attachment site for ligaments and tendons
inner includes osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts |
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How is the periosteum anchored to the bone?
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numerous collagen fibers called perforating fibers or Sharpey's fibers which run perpendicular to the diaphysis
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This is an incomplete layer of cells that covers all internal surfaces of the bone within the medullary cavity
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endosteum
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Do both the endosteum and the periosteum contain osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts?
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yes
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These bones have no medullary cavity
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Short, flat and irregular
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In a flat bone of the skull, the spongy bone is called:
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diploe
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Myeloid tissue is also called
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red bone marrow
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Red bone marrow locations in adults
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selected portions of the axial skeleton, such as the flat bones of the skull, the vertebrae, the ribs, the sternum and the ossa coxae. Also in the proximal epiphyses of each humerus and femur
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bone connective tissue
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osseus connective tissue
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List the four types of cells found in bone connective tissue:
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osteoprogenitor cells, osteoblasts, osteocytes, and osteoclasts
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Stem cells in bone derived from mesenchyme.
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Osteoprogenitor
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_____ are formed from osteoprogenitor cells
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osteoblasts
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_____ perform the important function of synthesizing and secreting the initial semisolid organic form of bone matrix called osteoid
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osteoblasts
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semisolid organic form of bone matrix created by osteoblasts
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osteoid
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____ are mature bone cells derived from osteoblasts
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osteoclasts
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The ___ is the skin that covers your body.
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integument
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Skin is also known as the _____ membrane
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cutaneous
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The integumentary system consists of the skin and its derivatives, which are:
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nails, hair, sweat glands, and sebaceous (oil) glands
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The scientific study and treatment of the integumentary system is called _____
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dermatology
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The ____ is the body's largest organ
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integument
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_____ are groups of similar cells and extracellualar material that perform a common function
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Tissues
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The study of tissues is called
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histology
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Histology is the study of _____
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tissues
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What are the four types of tissue in the body?
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epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous
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All epithelia exhibit the following common characteristics:
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Cellularity
Polarity Attachment to a basement membrane Avascularity Extensive innervation High regeneration capacity |
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_____ tissue covers the body surfaces, lines the body cavities, and forms the majority of glands.
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Epithelial
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An _____ is composed of one or more layers of closely packed cells, and contains little to no extracellular matrix between these cells.
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epithelium
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What is an apical surface?
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the free or exposed surface of an epithelium
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Each epithelium has a _____ surface where the epithelium is attached to the underlying connective tissue
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basal
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What are the three layers of a basement membrane?
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lamina lucida, lamina densa, reticular lamina
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True or False: all epithelial tissues lack blood vessels
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true
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How are nutrients for epithelial cells obtained
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across the apical surface or by diffusion across the basal surface from the underlying connective tissue
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Are epithelia innervated
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yes
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epithelial cells have a high/low regeneration capacity
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High
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Why does an epithelium need to be highly regenerative?
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Because they have an apical surface that is exposed to the environment and are frequently damaged or lost by abrasion
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What are some of the functions of epithelia?
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Physical protection
selective permeability secretions sensations |
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_____ tissues protect both external and internal surfaces from dehydration, abrasion, and destruction by physical, chemical, or biological agents
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epithelial
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All substances that enter or leave the body must pass through an _____
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epithelium
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What are the two classifications of epithelium?
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simple or stratified
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A _____ epithelium is one cell layer thick
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simple
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A _____ epithelium contains two or more laywers of epithelial cells
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stratified
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Give three examples of where simple epithelium are found
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the lining of the air sacs of the lung, intestines, blood vessels
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With stratified epithelium, which layer is in direct contact with the basement membrane?
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the deepest, basal layer
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_____ epithelial cells are flat, wide and somewhat irregular in shape
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squamous
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What are the 4 epithelial cell shapes?
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squamous, cuboidal, columnar, and transitional
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This is the thinnest possible epithelial layer
|
simple squamous
|
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This kind of epithelial cell ines the alveoli
|
simple squamous
|
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the simple squamous epithelium that lines the blood vessels and lymph vessel walls is called
|
endothelium
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_____ is the simple squamous epithelium that forms the serous membranes of body cavities
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mesothelium
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What does mesothelium line?
|
serous membranes of body cavities
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4 types of simple epithelium
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simple squamous
simple cuboidal simple columnar pseudostratified columnar |
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One layer of flattened epithelial cells
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simple squamous
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one layer of epithelial cells about as tall as they are wide
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simple cuboidal
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one layer of epithelial cells that are taller than they are wide; nonciliated form may contain microvilli while ciliated form contains cilia
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simple columnar
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One layer of epithelial cells varying heights; all cells attach to basement membrane; ciliated form contains cilia na dgoblet cells; nonciliated form lacks cilia and goblet cells
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Pseudostratified columnar
|
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Epithelium:
many layers thick; cells in surface layers are dead, flat, and filled with the protein keratin |
Stratified squamous, keratinized
|
|
Epithelium:
many layers thick; no keratin in cells; surface layers are flat and kept moist, alive |
stratified squamous, nonkeratinized
|
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Epithelium:
two or more layers of cells; apical layer of cells is cuboidal-shaped |
stratified cuboidal
|
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Epithelium:
two or more layers of cells; apical layer of cells is columnar-shaped |
stratified columnar
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Epithelium:
multiple layers of polyhedral cells (when tissue is relaxed), or flattened cells (when tissue is distended); some cells may be binucleated |
transitional
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All connective tissue is ultimately derived from ___
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mesenchyme
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_____ are involved in breaking down bone in an important process called bone resorption
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osteoclasts
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The process whereby bone matrix is destroyed by stubstances released from osteoclasts into the extracellular space adjacent to the bone
|
bone resorption
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The _____ is a cylindrical channel that lies in the center of the osteon and runs parallel to it
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central canal
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the small spaces that house an osteocyte
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lacunae
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tiny, interconnecting channels within bone connective tissue that extend from each lacuna, extend through the lamellae, and connect to other lacunaie and the central canal
|
canaliculi
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These run perpendicular to the central canal of bone and contain blood vessels and nerves
|
perforating canals
|
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the rings of bone immediately internal to the periosteum of the bone
|
external circumferential lamellae
|
|
the rings of bone internal to the endosteum
|
internal circumferential lamellae
|
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Does spongy bone contain osteons?
|
No
|
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The open lattice of narrow rods and plates of bone in spongy bone
|
trabeculae
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The formation and development of bone connective tissue
|
ossification or osteogenesis
|
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Intramembranous ossification is sometimes also called
|
dermal ossification
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Osteoid is composed of _____ protein and a semisolid ground substance of _____ including _____ and _____
|
collagen
proteoglycans chondroitin sulfate glycoproteins |
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The organic portion of the matrix of bone connective tissue is _____
|
osteoid
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The inorganic portion of bone matrix is composed of ____ and ____ to form ____
|
Calcium phosphate Ca3(PO4)2;
calcium hydroxide hydroxyapatite |
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What is hydroxyapatite made of?
|
Calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide
|
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Calcium phosphate and calcium hydroxide make ____
|
hydroxyapatite
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Insufficient _____ results in soft bones
|
calcium
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A loss of protein or abnormal proteins results in _____
|
brittle bones
|
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_____ or _____ occurs to osteoid formation when hydroxyapatite crystals deposit in the bone matrix
|
Calcification or mineralization
|
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How does vitamin D aid in bone formation?
|
enhances calcium absorption from the gastrointestinal tract.
|
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Which vitamin is required for collagen formation?
|
Vitamin C
|
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_____ is a process whereby bone matrix is destroyed by substances released from osteoclasts into the extracellular space adjacent to the bone.
|
Bone resorption
|
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_____ enzymes released from lysosomes within the osteoclasts chemically digest the organic components of bone matrix
|
Proteolytic
|
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Bone resorption may occur when ____ levels are low
|
blood calcium
|
|
List the four steps of interstitial growth of cartilage
|
1 - chondrocytes housed within the internal lacunae are stinmulated to undergo mitotic cell division.
2 - Following cell division, two cells occupy a single lacuna; they are now called chondroblasts 3 - As chondroblasts begin to synthesize and secrete new cartilage matrix, they are pushed apart. These cells now reside in their own lacuna and are called chondrocytes 4 - The cartilage continues to grow in the internal regions as chondrocytes continue to produce more matrix |
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_____ cartilage growth occurs within the internal regions of cartilage; _____ is an increase in width along the cartilage's outside edge
|
interstitial; appositional
|
|
List the three steps of appositional cartilage growth
|
1 - Undifferentiated stem cells at the internal edge of the perichondrium begin to divide
2 - New undifferentiated stem cells and committed cells that differentiate into chondroblasts are formed. These chondroblasts are located at the periphery of the old cartilage, where they begin to produce and secrete new cartilage matrix. 3 - The chondroblasts, as a result of matrix formation, push apart and become chondrocytes, with each occupying its own lacuna. The cartilage continues to grow at the periphery as chondrocytes continue to produce more matrix. |
|
The type of ossification which produces flat bones of the skull, the zygomatic bone, maxilla, mandible, and central part of the clavicle.
|
Intramembranous ossification
|
|
Intramembranous ossification produces which bones?
|
flat bones of the skull, the zygomatic bone, maxilla, mandible, and central part of the clavicle.
|
|
This begins when mesenchyme becomes thickened and condensed with a dense supply of blood capillaries
|
intramembranous ossification
|
|
Why is intramembranous ossification also called dermal ossification?
|
Because the mesenchyme that is the source of these bones is in the area of the future dermis.
|
|
In what week of development do ossification centers form within thickened regions of mesenchyme for intramembranous ossification?
|
week 8
|
|
List the steps of intramembranous ossification
|
1 - Ossification centers form within thickened regions of mesenchyme beginning at the eigth week of development
2 - Osteoid undergoes calcification 3 - Woven bone and its surrounding periostem form 4 - Lamellar bone replaces woven bone, as compact bone and spongy bone form |
|
Initial, newly-formed bone connective tissue that is immature and not well organized
|
woven bone (primary bone)
|
|
What is the other name for woven bone?
|
primary bone
|
|
What is the other name for primary bone?
|
Woven bone
|
|
What are the parts of a triad?
|
2 terminal cisternae and one t-tubule
|
|
How many myofibrils are there per muscle cell?
|
several hundred to several thousand
|
|
What gives the myofibril its banded appearance?
|
Myofilaments
|
|
Why is skeletal muscle striped?
|
Because of the regular pattern of actin and myocin
|
|
A repeating unit in a myofibril from Z to Z is called
|
sarcomere
|
|
The Z line is made up of a protein called ____
|
alpha-actinin
|
|
The ____ anchors the actin filaments
|
Z line
|
|
Which band is lighter? I or A?
|
I
|
|
Which band is darker? I or A?
|
A
|
|
The H band or H line is within which other band?
|
A band
|
|
List the bands of a sarcomere.
|
I, Z, I,A, H, M, A, I, Z, I
|
|
What alternates in an I band
|
Thin filament, Connectin, thin filament, connectin
|
|
What alternates in the A band?
|
Thin filament, thick filament, thin filament, thick filament
|
|
What alternates in the H zone?
|
Noting. It is just myosin
|
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What is the M line in the middle of?
|
The H zone
|
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Thick filament of a sarcomere refers to _____
|
Myocin
|
|
Thin filament of a sarcomere refers to _____
|
Actin
|
|
The actin binding site is on the _____ of the myocin
|
Head
|
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_____ forms a cross bridge with actin
|
Myosin head
|
|
Approximately how many myocin molecules make up a thick filament?
|
~200
|
|
What makes up the thin filament?
|
Actin and regulatory proteins
|
|
What is G-Actin?
|
Globular actin
singular actin molecules |
|
What is F-actin
|
Filamentous actin
single chain of g-actin |
|
How many G-actins are in a single twist of the helix?
|
13
|
|
What are the regulatory proteins in a thin filament?
|
Troponin and tropomyosin
|
|
Of the two regulatory proteins on a thin filament, which one is a quaternary structure?
|
troponin
troponin T binds to tropomyosin troponin I is the inhibitory subunit troponin C is the Ca2+ binding site |
|
What is twisted around filamentous actin?
|
tropomyosin
|
|
~1 tropomyosin per ____ globular actin
|
7
|
|
The inhibitory ______ will keep actin and myosin apart
|
troponin
|
|
Where is calcium stored in a muscle fiber?
|
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
|
|
List 5 properties of connectin
|
elastic filament
allows stretch allows recoil helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction helps reset the length of a sarcomere |
|
_____ helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction
|
connectin/titin
|
|
the other name for titin
|
connectin
|
|
the other name for connectin
|
titin
|
|
_____ helps reset the length of a sarcomere
|
connectin
|
|
_____ is a structural protein that links the sarcomere to the sarcolemma
|
dystrophin
|
|
List 5 properties of connectin
|
elastic filament
allows stretch allows recoil helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction helps reset the length of a sarcomere |
|
_____ helps in the recovery phase of muscle contraction
|
connectin/titin
|
|
the other name for titin
|
connectin
|
|
the other name for connectin
|
titin
|
|
_____ helps reset the length of a sarcomere
|
connectin
|
|
_____ is a structural protein that links the sarcomere to the sarcolemma
|
dystrophin
|
|
Two types of transport proteins are embedded within the membrane of the sarcoplasmic reticulum. They are:
|
Ca2+ pumps and voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
|
|
_____ move Ca2+ into the sarcoplasmic reticulum where it is stored
|
Calcium pumps
|
|
____ open to release Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum into the sarcoplasm.
|
voltage-gated channels
|
|
Calcium is bound to specialized proteins within the terminal cisternae called.
|
Calmodulin and calsequestrin
|
|
What is calmodulin?
|
A specialized protein within the terminal cisternae which binds to calcium during storage
|
|
What is calsequestrin?
|
A specialized protein within the terminal cisternae which binds to calcium during storage
|
|
Release of _____ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum causes muscle contraction.
|
Ca2+
|
|
Approximately 80% of the volume of a muscle fiber is composed of _____
|
myofibrils
|
|
Approximately __ % of the volume of a muscle fiber is composed of myofibrils
|
80%
|
|
Each myofibril contains bundles of muscle protein filaments called _____
|
myofilaments
|
|
Each myosin protein consists of two strand; each has a _____ and an _____.
|
globular head; elongated tail
|
|
The head of a myosin protein contains a binding site for ____ of the thin filament
|
actin
|
|
The myosin head is the site where ___ attaches to split into ____ and ___
|
ATP; ADP; P
|
|
What enzyme splits ATP?
|
ATPase
|
|
Thin filaments are primarily composed of ___ strands of actin protein that are twisted around each other
|
two
|
|
G-actin is what
|
globular actin, or single pearls of actin that join together to form filamentous actin strands
|
|
F-actin is what
|
filamentous actin which is comprised of individual g-actin. It is a single strand of the double-stranded helix of the thin filament
|
|
Each globular actin has a significant feature called the _____
|
myosin binding site
|
|
The myosin head attaches to the _____ during muscle contraction
|
myosin binding site of the g-actin
|
|
What is the troponin-tropomyosin complex
|
troponin and tropomyocin are regulatory proteins on the thin filament that regulate the myocin and actin relationship
|
|
Myofilaments within myofibrils are arranged in repeating microscopic cylindrical units called _____
|
sarcomeres
|
|
Each sarcomere is delineated at both ends by ____
|
Z discs or Z lines
|
|
Z disks are made up of _____
|
alpha-actinin
|
|
____ serve as anchors for the thin filaments
|
Z discs
|
|
This serves as an attachment site for the thick filaments and keeps the thick filaments aligned during contraction and relaxation events.
|
M line
|
|
This protein extends from the Z discs to the M line through the core of each thick filament.
|
Connectin
|
|
What is a motor unit?
|
A single motor neuron and all the skeletal fibers it innervates
|
|
Skeletal muscle fibers have abundant _____ for aerobic cellular respiration
|
mitochondria
|
|
The typical skeletal muscle contains ~ ____ mitochondria
|
300
|
|
Skeletal muscle fibers contain _____ for use as an immediate fuel molecule
|
glycogen stores
(granules called glycosomes) |
|
_____ is a molecule unique to muscle tissue (1 of 2)
|
myoglobin
|
|
A reddish, globular protein that is somewhat similar to hemoglobin in that it binds oxygen when muscle is at rest and releases it for use during muscular contraction.
|
Myoglobin
|
|
____ is a molecule unique to muscle tissue (2 of 2)
|
creatine phosphate
|
|
_____ provides muscle fibers with a means of supplying ATP anaerobically.
|
creatine phosphate
|
|
_____ are nerve cells that transmit nerve signals from the brain or spinal cord to control skeletal muscle activity
|
motor neurons
|
|
There is a(n) ______ relationship between the size of a motor unit and the degree of control.
|
inverse
|
|
_____ is the specific location, usually in the mid-region of the muscle fiber where it is innervated by a motor neuron
|
neuromuscular junction
|
|
What are the three parts to a neuromuscular junction?
|
synaptic knob
motor end plate synaptic cleft |
|
_____ is an expanded tip of an axon
|
synaptic knob
|
|
The synaptic knob houses numerous vesicles containing
|
acetylcholine (ACh)
|
|
What is ACh?
|
acetylcholine
|
|
ACh is stored where within the synaptic knob?
|
vesicles
|
|
A specialized region of the sarcolemma of a muscle fiber with numerous folds and indentations (junction folds)
|
motor end plate
|
|
The ____ has vast numbers of ACh receptors in muscle cells
|
motor end plate
|
|
Binding of ___ opens the plasma membrane protein channels that are chemically gated on the motor end plate
|
ACh
|
|
Binding of ACh allows ___ to enter into the muscle fiber and ___ to exit
|
Na+
K+ |
|
The extremely narrow, fluid-filled space separating the synaptic knob and the motor end plate
|
synaptic cleft
|
|
The enzyme _____ resides within the synaptic cleft and quickly breaks down ACh molecules following their release into the synaptic cleft.
|
acetylcholinesterase
|
|
Acetylcholinesterase resides within the synaptic cleft and quickly breaks down ____ molecules following their release into the synaptic cleft
|
ACh
|
|
How do sarcomeres shorten?
|
skeletal muscle fiber decreases in length as thick and thin protein filaments within sarcomeres interact
|
|
The anatomic structures and associated physiologic processes of skeletal muscle contraction include the events that occur in three locations:
|
1 - neuromuscular junction
2 - sarcolemma, T-tubules, and sarcoplasmic reticulum 3 - sarcomeres |
|
For calcium to enter the synaptic knob from the interstitial fluid, is it by concentration gradient or voltage-gated channels?
|
Voltage-Gated channels
|
|
What does calcium do once it is inside the synaptic knob?
|
attaches to membrane proteins called synaptotagmin that are on the external surface of synaptic vesicles that house ACh
|
|
What is synaptotagmin?
|
membrane proteins on the surface of synaptic vesicles. Once calcium binds with them, the vesicle releases ACh via exocytosis into the synaptic cleft.
|
|
What does calcium bind in order to release ACh from the synaptic knob?
|
synaptotagmin
|
|
Approximately ___ vesicles are released from the synaptic knob per nerve signal
|
300
|
|
How does ACh get across the fluid-filled synaptic cleft?
|
diffusion
|
|
What are the contractile proteins in a muscle fiber?
|
actin, connectin, myosin
|
|
An adult skeleton typically has ____ named bones
|
206
|
|
Distinctive ______ are the surface features that characterize each bone in the body.
|
bone markings
|
|
Large, smooth, rounded articulating oval structure. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Condyle
Articulating surface |
|
Small, flat, shallow articulating surface
|
facet
Articulating surface |
|
Prominent, rounded epiphysys. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Head
Articulating surface |
|
Smooth, grooved, pulley-like articular process. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Trochlea
Articulating surface |
|
Deep pit or socket in the maxillae or mandible. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Alveolus (pl. alveoli)
Depressions |
|
Flattened or shallow depression.
Also give the name of the general structure. |
Fossa (pl. fossae)
Depressions |
|
Narrow groove.
Also give the name of the general structure. |
Sulcus
Depressions |
|
Narrow, prominent, ridgelike projection. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Crest
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment |
|
Projection adjacent to a condyle. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Ipicondyle
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment |
|
Low ridge. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Line
Porjections for tendon and ligament attachment |
|
Any marked bony prominence. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Process
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment |
|
Angular extension of a bone relative to the rest of the structure. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Ramus (pl. rami)
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment |
|
Pointed, slender process. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Spine
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment |
|
Massive, rough projection found only on the femur. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Trochanter. Projections for tendon and ligament attachment
|
|
Small, round projection, Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Tubercle
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment. |
|
Large, rough projection. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Tuberosity.
Projections for tendon and ligament attachment. |
|
Passageway through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Canal.
Openings and spaces. |
|
Narrow, slitlike opening through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Fissure
Openings and spaces |
|
Rounded passageway through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Foramen (pl. foramina)
Openings and spaces |
|
Passageway through a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Meatus.
Openings and spaces |
|
Cavity or hollow space in a bone. Also give the name of the general structure.
|
Sinus.
Openings and spaces |
|
A _____ or _____ is the place of contact between bones, between bone and cartilage, or between bones and teeth.
|
Joint; articulation
|
|
Bones are said to _____ with each other at a joint
|
articulate
|
|
The scientific study of joints is called _____
|
arthrology
|
|
Joints are classified by both their _____ and _____
|
structural characteristics; movement they allow
|
|
A _____ joint has no joint cavity and occurs where bones are held together by dense regular connective tissue
|
fibrous
|
|
Does a fibrous joint have a joint cavity?
|
No
|
|
A _____ joint has no joint cavity and occurs where bones are joined by cartilage.
|
Cartilaginous
|
|
Do cartilaginous joints have a cavity?
|
No
|
|
A _____ joint has a fluid-filled joint cavity that separates the articulating surfaces of the bones. The articulating surfaces are enclosed within a connective tissue capsule, and the bones are attached to each other by various ligaments.
|
Synovial
|
|
Do synovial joints have a joint cavity?
|
Yes
|
|
Name the three structural categories of joints:
|
fibrous (no cavity)
cartilanginous (no cavity) synovial (cavity) |
|
Name the three functional categories of joints:
|
Synarthrosis
amphiarthrosis diarthrosis |
|
_____ is an immobile joint
|
synarthrosis
|
|
______ is a slightly mobile joint
|
ampharthrosis
|
|
______ is a freely mobile joint
|
diarthrosis
|
|
All _____ joints are diarthroses
|
synovial
|
|
There is a(n) _____ relationship between mobility and stability in joint articulations.
|
inverse
|
|
Periodontal membranes hold tooth to bony jaw.
|
Gomphosis
|
|
Dense regular connective tissue connects skull bones
|
suture
|
|
dense rebular connective tissue fibers (interosseous membrane) between bones
|
Syndesmosis
|
|
hyaline cartilage between bones
|
Synchondrosis
|
|
fibrocartilage pad between bones
|
symphysis
|
|
flattened or slightly curved faces slide across one another
|
plane joint
|
|
convex feature of one bone fits into concave depression of another bone
|
hinge joint
|
|
bone with a rounded surface fits into a ring formed by a ligament and another bone
|
pivot joint
|
|
oval articular surface on one bone closely inerfaces with a depressed oval surface on another bone
|
condylar joint
|
|
Saddle-shaped articular surface on one bone closely interfaces with a saddle-shaped surface on another bone
|
saddle joint
|
|
round head of one bone rests within cup-shaped depression in another bone
|
ball-and-socket joint
|
|
Describe the structural characteristics of a fibrous joint
|
Dense regular connective tissue holds together the ends of bones and bone parts; no joint cavity
|
|
Describe the structural characteristics of a cartilaginous joint
|
Pad of cartilage is wedged between the ends of bones; no joint cavity
|
|
Describe the structural characteristics of a synovial joint
|
Ends of bones covered with articular cartilage; joint cavity separates the articulating bones; joint enclosed by an articular capsule, lined by a synovial membrane; contains synovial fluid
|
|
What is the functional classification of gomphosis?
|
synarthrosis (immobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of a suture?
|
Synarthrosis (immobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of syndemosis?
|
Amphiarthrosis (slightly mobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of synchondrosis?
|
Synarthrosis (immobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of symphysis?
|
Amphiarthrosis (slightly mobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of plane joint
|
diarthrosis (freely mobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of hinge joint?
|
diarthrosis (freely mobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of pivot joint?
|
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of condylar joint?
|
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
|
|
What is the functional classification of saddle joint?
|
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
|
|
What is the classification of ball-and-socket-joint?
|
Diarthrosis (freely mobile)
|
|
Articulating bones in fibrous joinss are connected by ____ connective tissue.
|
dense regular
|
|
Do fibrous joints have a joint cavity?
|
No
|
|
This joint's primary function is to hold two bones together
|
fibrous
|
|
Give some examples of fibrous joints
|
teeth in their sockets, sutures between skull bones, and the articulations between either the radius and ulna or the tivia and fibula.
|
|
Name the three most common types of fibrous joints.
|
gomphoses, sutures, syndesmoses
|
|
The only gomphoses in the human body are the:
|
teeth in the sockets of the mandible and maxillae.
|
|
A tooth is held firmly in place by fibrous ______
|
periodontal membranes.
|
|
What is the functional classification of gomphoses?
|
synarthrosis
|
|
_____ are immobile fibrous joints that are found only between certain bones of the skull
|
sutures
|
|
When the bones have completely fused across the suture line, the sutures become
|
synosteses
|
|
___ are fibrous joints in which articulating bones are joined by long strands of dense regular connective tissue only.
|
syndesmoses
|
|
What is the functional classification of syndesmoses?
|
amphiarthroses
|
|
Where are syndesmoses found?
|
between the radius and ulna and between the tibia and fibula
|
|
What is an interosseous membrane?
|
broad ligamentous sheet that binds two bones together ie tibia and fibula or radius and ulna
|
|
What are the three types of fibrous joints?
|
gomphoses, syndemoses, and sutures
|
|
Do cartilaginous joints have a joint cavity?
|
No
|
|
The two types of cartilaginous joints are _____ and _____
|
synchondroses and symphyses
|
|
An articulation in which bones are joined by hyaline cartilage is called a _____
|
synchondrosis
|
|
A synchondrosis is an articulation in which bones are jointed by _____ cartilage
|
hyaline
|
|
The _____ joint is the joint between each bony rib and its respective costal cartilage
|
costochondral
|
|
The first sternocostal joint is what kind of joint?
|
synchondrosis
|
|
A _____ has a pad of fibrocartilage between the articulating bones, and resists compression and tension stresses
|
symphysis
|
|
All symphyses are classified functionally as_____
|
amphiarthroses
|
|
Do synovial joints have a joint cavity?
|
yes
|
|
How are synovial joints classified functionally?
|
diarthroses
|
|
Are all synovial joints diarthroses?
|
yes
|
|
What are the basic features of all synovial joints?
|
articular capsule
joint cavity synovial fluid articular cartilage ligaments nerves blood vessels |
|
Each synovial joint is composed of a double-layered capsule called the _____
|
articular capsule or joint capsule
|
|
The outer layer of the articular capsule of synovial joints is called the _____ and the inner layer is the ______
|
fibrous layer;
synovial membrane (or synovium) |
|
The fibrous layer of the articular capsule is formed from ____ connective tissue
|
dense
|
|
The synovial membrane of an articular capsule is composed primarily of ______ connective tissue
|
areolar
|
|
This covers all the internal joint surfaces of an articular capsule not covered by cartilage and lines the articular capsule
|
synovial membrane
|
|
This help produce synovial fluid in an articular capsule of a synovial joint
|
synovial membrane
|
|
all articulating bone surfaces in a synovial joint are covered by a thin layer of hyaline cartilage called _____
|
articular cartilage
|
|
Articular cartilage has many functions: (3)
|
1 - reduces friction in the joint during movement
2 - acts as a spongy cushion to absorb compression 3 - prevents damage to the articulating ends of the bones |
|
Does hyaline articular cartilage have a prichondrium?
|
No
|
|
Only ____ joints house a joint cavity (or articular cavity)
|
synovial
|
|
Synovial fluid has three functions:
|
1 - lubricates the articular cartilage on the surface of articulating bones
2 - nourishes the articular cartilage's chondrocytes 3 - acts as a shock absorber, distributing stresses and force evenly across the articular surfaces |
|
Ligaments are composed of _____ connective tissue
|
dense regular
|
|
_____ connect one bone to another
|
ligaments
|
|
_____ function to stabilize, strengthen , and reinforce most synovial joints
|
ligaments
|
|
_____ ligaments are outside of, and physically separate from, the joint capsule
|
extrinsic ligaments
|
|
_____ ligaments represent thickenings of the articular capsule itself
|
intrinsic ligaments
|
|
Intrinsic ligaments include _____ ligaments outside the joint capsule and _____ ligaments inside the joint capsule
|
extracapsular ligameents
intracapsular ligaments |
|
Tendons are composed of ____ connective tissue
|
dense regular
|
|
Tendons and ligaments are both composed of dense regular connective tissue. True or False?
|
True
|
|
Tendons attach ___ to ____
|
muscle to bone
|
|
How do tendons help stabilize joints?
|
They pass across or around a joint to provide mechanical support.
|
|
These pass across or around a joint to provide mechanical support
|
Tendons
|
|
Name two accessory structures in addition to the main components of synovial joints
|
bursae and fat pads
|
|
___ is a fibrous, saclike structure that contains synovial fluid and is lined internally by a synovial membrane.
|
bursa
|
|
_____ are associated with most synovial joints and also where bones, ligaments, muscles, skin, or tendons overlie each other and rub together
|
bursae
|
|
An elongated bursa is called a _____
|
tendon sheath
|
|
What is a tendon sheath?
|
an elongated bursa
|
|
These act as packing material for synovial joints and provide some protection for the joint
|
fat pads
|
|
a joint is said to be _____ if the bone moves in just one plane or axis.
|
uniaxial
|
|
A joint is _____ if the bone moves in two planes or axes
|
biaxial
|
|
A joint is _____ if the bone moves in multiple planes or axes.
|
multiaxial (or triaxial)
|
|
Name the six specific types of synovial joints:
|
1 - plane
2 - hinge 3 - pivot 4 - condylar 5 - saddle 6 - ball-and-socket |
|
Pepsi Has Pretty Cool Soda Bubbles
|
Plane
Hinge Pivot Condylar Saddle Ball-And-Joint |
|
List the 6 types of synovial joints
|
Plane
Hinge Pivot Condylar Saddle Ball-And-Socket |
|
The least mobile synovial joint:
|
Plane
|
|
Is a plane joint 1)uniaxial 2)biaxial or 3)multiaxial?
|
uniaxial
|
|
What kind of joints are intercarpal and intertarsal joints?
|
planar
|
|
Name two plane joints
|
intercarpal; intertarsal
|
|
A _____ is formed by the convex surface of one articulating bone fitting into the concave depression on another bone in the joint.
|
hinge
|
|
Is a hinge joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
|
uniaxial
|
|
A _____ joint has one articulating bone with a rounded surface fitting into a ring formed by a ligament and another bone.
|
pivot
|
|
Is a pivot joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
|
uniaxial
|
|
Name two pivot joints
|
proximal radio-ulnar joint;
atlantoaxial joint |
|
Give two other names for condylar joints
|
condyloid or ellipsoid
|
|
_____ are biaxial joints with an oval, convex surface on one bone that articulates with a concave articular surface on the second bone of the joint.
|
condylar
|
|
Is a condylar joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
|
biaxial
|
|
What kind of joint are the metacarpophalangeal joints?
|
Condylar
|
|
Are the metacarpophalangeal joints uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
|
biaxial
|
|
A _____ has articular surfaces of bones with convex and concave regions.
|
saddle
|
|
Is a saddle joint uniaxial, biaxial, or multiaxial?
|
biaxial
|
|
What kind of joint is the carpometacarpal joint?
|
saddle
|
|
What kind of joint allows us to have an opposing thumb?
|
saddle
|
|
____ joints are multiaxial
|
ball-and-socket
|
|
The _____ joint is considered the most freely mobile type of synovial joint
|
ball-and-socket
|
|
List all of the multiaxial joints
|
ball-and-socket
|
|
List all of the uniaxial joints
|
planar
hinge pivot |
|
List all of the biaxial joints
|
condylar
saddle |
|
What kind of motion:
Two opposing articular surfaces slide past each other in almost any direction; the amount of movement is slight |
Gliding motion
|
|
What kind of motion:
The angle between articulating bones increases or decreases |
angular
|
|
The angle between articulating bones decreases
|
flexion
|
|
the angle between articulating bones increases
|
extension
|
|
Extension movement continues past the anatomic position
|
hyperextension
|
|
the vertebral column moves (bends) in a lateral direction along a coronal plane
|
Lateral flexion
|
|
movement of a bone away from the midline
|
abduction
|
|
movement of a bone toward the midline
|
adduction
|
|
A continuous movement that combines flexion, abduction, extension, and adduction in successions; the distal end of the limb or digit moves in a circle
|
circumduction
|
|
rotation of the forearm where the palm is turned posteriorly
|
pronation
|
|
rotation of the forearm in which the palm is turned anteriorly
|
supination
|
|
Movement of a body part inferiorly
|
depression
|
|
movement of a body part superiorly
|
elevation
|
|
Ankle joint movement where the dorsum (superior surface) of the foot is brought toward the anterior surface of the leg
|
dorsiflexion
|
|
Ankle joint movement where the sole of the foot is brought toward the posterior surface of the leg
|
Plantar flexion
|
|
Twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole medially or inward
|
Inversion
|
|
Twisting motion of the foot that turns the sole laterally or outward
|
Eversion
|
|
Anterior movement of a body part from anatomic position
|
Protraction
|
|
Posterior movement of a body part from anatomic position
|
Retraction
|
|
Special movement of the thumb across the palm toward the fingers to permit grasping and holding of an object
|
Opposition
|
|
What kind of synovial joint movement allows us to grasp objects?
|
Opposition
|
|
List the four types of motion at synovial joints.
|
Gliding, angular, rotational, and special movements
|
|
Acronym for the four types of motion at synovial joints:
|
GARS
|
|
GARS
(joint movements) |
gliding, angular, rotational, and special movements (joint movements)
|
|
What are the four steps of crossbridge cycling?
|
1 - crossbridge formation (attaching of myosin head to actin)
2 - power stroke (pulling thin filament by movement of myosin head) 3 - release of myosin head from actin 4 - resetting of myosin head |
|
What is a power stroke?
|
when the myosin head swivels or ratchets
|
|
What binds to cause the release of the myosin from the actin
|
ATP binds to the ATP binding site of the myosin head
|
|
How is myosin head reset?
|
ATPas splits ATP into ADP and Pi, providing the energy to reset the myosin head in the cocked position.
|
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the repetitive movement of thin filaments sliding past thick filaments is called
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sliding filament theory
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What is the sliding filament theory?
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the repetitive movement of thin filaments sliding past thick filaments
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