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613 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Endocrinology involves the study of the endocrine organs and _______

hormones

which of the following is NOT a major endocrine gland:


A. Adrenal


B. Kidney


C. Thyroid


D. Pituitary

Kidney

T/F: Autocrines are long-distance chemical signals that travel in blood or lymph throughout the body

F - short-distance

Steroids are synthesized from _____

cholesterol

When one hormone opposes the action of another hormone, the interaction is called _______

antagonism

what occurs in a negative feedback system

target organ effects inhibit further hormone release

what hormone stimulates most body cells to increase in size and divide?

growth hormone

_________ involves the loss of receptors and prevents the target cells from overreacting to persistently high hormone levels

down-regulation

what disorder results from hyposecretion of growth hormone

pituitary dwarf syndrome

what hormone stimulates gamete production

follicle-stimulating hormone

as blood levels of _______ rise the expulsive contractions of labor gain momentum and finally end in birth

oxytocin

the cells found in the parathyroid gland that secrete the parathyroid hormone are called ______

parathyroid cells

which condition, if left untreated, progress to respiratory paralysis and death?

hypoparathyroidism

which homeostatic imbalance results from deficits in both glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

Addison's disease

growth hormone, secreted by the ________ gland stimulates growth of bones and muscle

anterior pituitary

the anterior pituitary stimulates growth of bones and muscle by activating intermediary proteins called ________

IGFs - insulin growth factors

_________ from the anterior pituitar stimulates secretion of cortisol

adrenocorticotropic hormone

cortisol is secreted from the _________ (gland)

adrenal cortex

The anterior pituitary consists of ______ tissue

glandular

the parafollicular or C cells of the _______ gland produce ________ a peptide hormone that lowers plasma calcium levels

thyroid


calcitonin

Hormones secreted by the pancreatic islets of the pancreas include _______ from the alpha cells and _______ from the beta cells

glucagon


insulin

which hormone secreted by the pancreas raises blood glucose levels

glucagon

specialized muscle cells in the atria of the heart produce _________ (hormone) which increases excretion by the kidneys

atrial natriuretic peptide

atrial natriuretic peptide hormone increases excretion of ________ by the kidneys

sodium

___________ (hormone) promotes the final conversion of vitamin D to _________ in the kidney

parathyroid hormone


calcitriol

_________ (hormone) produced by the G cells i the pyloric antrum stimulates _____ secretion in the stomach

gastrin


HCl

One hypothalamic hormone, ___________ is essentiral for the stress response as well as ______

corticotropin-releasing


dopamine

________ = a hypothalamic hormone that inhibits release of prolactin

dopamine

_______ (hormone) is a stimulus for sperm production in the male and maturation of ovarian follicles in the female

follicle-stimulating

________ secreted by the pineal gland, helps regulate body activities with the light/dark cycle

melatonin

the zona flomerulosa of the adrenal cortex primarily produces the hormone _______

aldosterone

aldosterone acts on the _______ to increase ______ reabsorption

kidneys


sodium

the __________ (gland region) is a modified sympathetic ganglion producing the amine hormones known as ________

adrenal medulla


catecholamines

catecholamines includes to hormones:

epinephrine


norepinephrine

the testes produces a steroid hormone called ____ in the interstitial cells

testosterone

the testes produces a peptide hormone called ______ that inhibits FSH

inhibin

Large follicles in the ______ gland gontain a protein colloid called _______

thyroid


thyroglobulin

thyroglobulin produces the hormones ____ and _____

T3 and T4

T3 and T4 regulate _________ functions and are important for ________ system development and growth

metabolic


nervous

Nuclei in the ventral hypothalamus produce two hormones that are stored in the posterior pituitary.


- Name the two nuclei that produce these hormones


- name the two hormones


- which is important for water balance

supraoptic nucleus - ADH


paraventricular nucleus - oxytocin



antidiuretic hormone (ADH)

name the important peptides

insulin


glucagon


growth hormone


ADH

name the imporant amines

T3


T4


epinephrine


norepinephrine

name the imporant steroids

testosterone


cortisol


aldosterone


estradiol

Peptide hormones are synthesized as large precursor hormones called ________

preprohormones

preprohormones are stored in ________ and released from the cell by ______

secretory vesicles


exocytosis

do peptide hormones require a carrier in the bloodstream?

no

catecholamines are produced in the _______ of the adrenal gland and are classified as amine hormones because they are derived from _______

medulla


tyrosine

stimulation of the chromaffin cells causes an influx of ______ ions, which causes the vesicles to merge with the plasma membrane and release the hormone by ______

calcium


exocytosis

are catecholamines water soluble or liquid soluble

water-soluble

Thyroid hormones include _____ and _____

T3 and T4

are carriers required for the transport of thyroid hormones?

yes

All steroid hormones are derived from _______; each is determined by _____ present in the cell

cholesterol


enzymes

The common precursor molecule for all steroid hormones is ______

pregnenolone

steroid hormones enter the blood stream via _______ and (do/do not) require a carrier

diffusion


do

The rate of secretion of steroid hormones is (faster/slower) than that of catecholamines because steroid hormones are not __________

slower


stored in the secretory vesicles

Preganglionic sympathetic fibers trigger the release of ________ and ________ (hormones) from the ________ (gland)

epinephrine and norepinephrine


adrenal medulla

The negative feedback of T3 and T4 decrease ______ levels

TSH

The negative feedback of cortisol decreases both ____ and _____ levels

ACTH


CRH

Besides increased levels of plasma glucose and amino acids, increased levels of the hormone _____ and stimulation of the ______ nervous system also increase plasma insulin levels

GIP


parasympathetic

Some hormones are released in rhythmic 24-hour patterns known as ________ rhythms

circadian

______ is a hormone allowing stressful stimuli to override the circadian rhythm and increases the plasma hormone levels

cortisol

_____ hormones are an example of large amounts of the hormones being bound to carrier proteins in the plasma forming a large circulation reservoir

thyroid

the ______ and ______ are the major organs that metabolize hormones

liver


kidneys

______ and ______ are rapidly metabolized in the liver and kidneys; while the _____ and _____ take longer to metabolize

peptide hormones


catecholamines



thyroid and steroid hormones

Hormones cause a biochemical change in the cell. The 5 possible changes include:

contraction


secretion


transport


synthesis


breakdown

water soluble proteins such as _______ and ______ bind to receptors located on the ______

peptides


catecholamines



cell membrane

what catalyzes the conversion of ATP to cAMP

adenylate cyclase

A single molecule of a hormone can have a large effect on the cell. Name the process that makes this possible

amplification

what enzyme inactivates cAMP?

phosphodiesterase

name the storage form of glucose

glycogen

name the storage form of amino acids

proteins

name the storage form of fatty acids

triglycerides

conversion to the storage form is known as _______ metabolism

anabolic

after a meal, high levels of glucose, amino acids, and fatty acides leads to an ________(increase/decrease) in insulin secretion

increase

sympathetic _________(increase/decrease) insulin secretion

decreases

parasympathetic _______ (increase/decrease) insulin secretion

increases

insulin travels in the blood and binds to what type of receptors on the cell membrane?

tyrosine kinase

what is the approximate halflife of insulin

10 minutes

what hormone increases plasma glucose levels

glucagon

glucagon breaks down the storage forms and is known as ______ metabolism

catabolic

what type of diabetes is characterized by a resistance of the target cells to insulin? Plasma insulin levels are (normal/high)

Type 2


normal to slightly elevated

In type 1 diabetes, the lack of insulin and glycogenolysis in the liver leads to _______

hyperglycemia

with the increase in filtration of glucose at the kidneys, the carriers become _________ and the glucose appears in the urine, also known as ______

saturated


glucosuria

glucose acts as an ________, leading to urine flow

osmotic diuretic

increased lipolysis produces an increase in ________, which, when used as fuel produces ______

plasma lipids


ketones

The presence of ketones in plasma and urine is known as _____ and _____

ketosis


ketonuria

Lipid soluble hormones such as _____ and _____ hormones bind to receptors ___________ the cell

steroid and thyroid


within

the hormone-receptor complexes act as _________ and then binds to _____. the mRNA produces _______ that catalyze biological reactions in the cell

transcription factors


DNA


enzymes

name 4 major actions of cortisol that are important for stress response

gluconeogenesis/glycogenolysis


lipolysis and protein breakdown


enhances vasoconstriction


inhibits immune response and inflammation

the main function of the thyroid hormones are:

regulating metabolic rate


alter carb, lipid, and protein metabolism


essential for growth


essential for nervous system development and function

the anterior pituitary is composed of _______

epithelial

name the 6 classic hormones whose functions are well know

TSH


FSH


LH


ACTH


GH


PRL

TRH, GNRH, and CRH are released into capillary beds and carried directly to the pituitary by the ________ located in the ______

hypophyseal portal veins


infundibulum

_____ and ______ are the posterior pituitary hormones

oxytocin and vasopressin (ADH)

give an example of hormones that has negative feedback mainly to the anterior pituitary

T3 and T4

give an example of a hormone that has negative feedback to both the anterior pituitary and the ventral hypothalamus

cortisol

Prolactin is unique in that the main hypothalamic hormone regulating its secretion, _______ in inhibits its release

dopamine

which hormone increases prolactin release

estrogen

_______ hormones are necessary for the release of the growth hormone

thyroid

suckling of an infant causes milk letdown by stimulating what hormone?

oxytocin

changes in osmolarity detected by chemically sensitive neurons in the hypothalamus will alter what hormones level?

vasopressin (ADH)

cortisol release is synchronized by the light/dark cycle and has a 24-hour pattern of secretion known as ______

circadian rhythm

Levels of cortisol are highest during what part of the day?

early morning

besides controlling levels of ____ and ____, TSH also promotes _____ of the thyroid gland

T3 and T4


Growth

T4 are carried in the bloodstream bound to _______ because they are _____

carrier proteins


lipophilic

T3 and T4 enter target cells by _____ and bind to receptors located in the ____. They are synthesized by ___ and ____

diffusion


nucleus


tyrosine


iodine

hypothyroidism is also known as _____

myxedema

what are the symptoms of hypothyroidism?

lethargy


low BMR


low to normal heart beat


feeling cold


weight gain

lack of dietary iodine would cause _____ hypothyroidism and the patient would probably get an iodine-deficient ______

primary


goiter

Graves' disease is the most common cause of primary ________

hyperthyroidism

In graves' disease, the body secretes ________, which mimics the action of TSH and may cause a _____ as well as high levels of thyroid hormones

thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin


goiter

increased levels of what three hormones indicate that an individual is experiencing stress?

epinephrine


norepinephrine


cortisol

epinephrine and norepinephrine response to stress by increasing/decreasing effects on the body.. name them

increased CO, sweating, ventilation, blood pressure, plasma levels


decreased insulin, and blood flow to digestive system

in response to stress, the hypothalamus increases the release of CRH, which increases _____ from the anterior pituitary and ______ from the adrenal cortex

ACTH


cortisol

Cortisol enhances ______ in vessels to help maintain blood pressure

constriction


besides cortisol, the adrenal cortex releases _______ which promotes salt and water retention - helping maintain blood volume and pressure

aldosterone

_______ also aids in the stress response by promoting water retention at high levels, it is also a potent ________

vasopressin


vasoconstriction

epinephrine is a ______ hormone, thus it does not require a protein carrier and he receptors at the target cell are located _______

hydrophilic


on the membrane

epinephrine is synthesized from ______ and has a very short half-life of _____

tyrosine


10 seconds

________ is a condition in which there is hypercecretion of catacholamines by a tumor in the adrenal medulla

pheochromocytoma

pheochromocytoma causes:

sweating


increased BP


increased blood glucose


increased heart rate


increased TPR

cortisol is a _______ hormone, thus it does require a protein carrier, and receptors are located ___

lipophilic


within the cell

cortisol is synthesized by _______ and has a half life of ______

cholesterol


90 minutes

hypercortisolism is known as _________

cushings disease

_________ is due to a hypersecreting tumor in the anterior pituitary - hypersecreted hormore ______

cushings disease


ACTH

hypercortisolism from reasons other than a hypersecreting tumor is called________ - an example is ______

cushings syndrome


glucocorticoid drugs

Primary adrenal insufficiency is better known as _________. what two hormones are insufficient

Addison's disease


aldosterone and cortisol

what are the characteristics of Addisons disease

low BP


decreased plasma sodium


hypoglycemia

what are the characteristics of cushings disease

high BP


poor wound healing


hyperglycemia

what is the function of the endocrine system

interact with nervous system to coordinate and integrate the activity of body cells

what are the key differences between endocrine and neural control of homeostasis

neural - regulates muscle and gland activity via electrochemical impulses delivered by neurons


endocrine - influences metabolic activity via hormones

what are the major processes that hormones control and integrate

-reproduction


-growth and development


-maintenance of electrolyte, H20, and nutrient balance of blood


-regulation of cellular metabolism and energy balance


-mobilization of body defenses

what are the major endocrine glands

pineal


pituitary


hypothalamus


thyroid


thymus


adrenal glands


pancreas


gonads

what are the endocrine organs associated with neuroendocrine

hypothalamus


pancreas


gonads


placenta

what are the endocrine organs associated with: glands with mixed functions

pituitary


thyroid


parathyroid


adrenal


pineal

what are the organs with endocrine cells

small intestine


stomach


kidneys


heart

define exocrine glands

produce non-hormonal substances


have ducts that carry to surface

give an example of exocrine glands

sweat and saliva

define endocrine glands

ductless glands that release hormones into surrounding tissue

chemical messengers that are secreted by cells into extracellular fluid

hormones

what is the function of hormones

regulate metabolic functions of other cells in the body

chemicals that exert their effects on the same cells secreted

autocrines

chemical messengers that act locally, but also affect cell types other than those releasing

paracrines

identify two chemical classes of hormones

amino acids


steroids

what effects do hormones have on target cells

-alters plasma membrane permeability by opening/closing ion channels


-stimulates synthesis of enzymes and other proteins in cell


-activates/deactivates enzymes


-includes secretory activity


-stimulates mitosis


how do water-soluble hormones activate a target cell

act on receptors in the plasma membrane receptors are coupled via regulatory molecules (G proteins) with proteins of second messengers that cause targets cell response

identify 2 major second messenger systems utilized by water-soluble hormones

cyclic AMP


PIP2- calcium

how do lipid soluble hormones activate a target cell

acts on receptors inside of the cell and directly activates genes

examples of lipid soluble hormones

steroids and thyroid hormones

name 3 factors that determine the level of target cell activation

1. blood levels of hormone


2. relative numbers of receptors for that hormone on target cells


3. strength of binding btw hormone and receptor


what is up-regulation

persistent low levels of hormone can cause target cells to form an additional receptor

what is down-regulation

desensitized target cells to respond less vigorously to stimulation

how does negative feedback work

stimulus triggers hormone secretion -> the hormone levels rise --> target organ effects --> inhibits futher hormone release

identify three ways endocrine glands are stimulated to release hormones and explain

humoral - direct response to changing blood levels of certain ions and nutrients


hormonal - release hormones in response to other organs hormones


neural - nerve fibers stimulate hormone release

which hormone class has the shortest half life

water soluble

list three kinds of interactions of different hormones acting on the same target cell

permissiveness


synergism


antagonism

________: when one hormone cant exert full effects without another hormone

permissiveness

_______: when more than one hormone produces the same effects at target cell - the combined effects are amplified

synergism

________: one hormone opposes the action of another

antagonism

describe the structural and functional relationships between the hypothalamus and the pituitary gland

connected by the infundibulum


the pituitary releases neurohormones received by the hypothalamus

what is the function/structure of the posterior pituitary gland

largely neural tissue - releases neurohormone recieved by the hypothalamus


is a hormone storage area, doesn't manufacture

what is the function/structure of the anterior pituitary gland

mostly glandular tissue - manufactures and releases hormones

how does the hypothalamus control the activity of the pituitary gland

hypophyseal portal system - releases and inhibits hormones

what are the two posterior pituitary hormones

oxytocin


ADH

what is the source of oxytocin

stimulated by impulses from the hypothalmic neurons in response to cervical/uterine stretching and sucking of infant at breast

what inhibits oxytocin

lack of appropriate neural stimuli

target organ of oxytocin

uterus


breast

effect of oxytocin on uterus

stimulates uterine contractions, initiates labor

effect of oxytocin on breast

initiates milk ejection

how is ADH stimulated

impulses from hypothalamic neurons in response to increased blood solute conc. or decreased blood volume


-also stimulated by pain, drugs and low bp

how is ADH inhibited

adequate hydration of the body


alcohol

target organ of ADH and effect

kidneys - stimulate kidney tubule cells to reabsorb water

hyposecretion of ADH

diabetes insipidus

hypersecretion of ADH

syndrome of inappropriate ADH secretion (SIADH)

cell type of growth hormone

protein, somatotropic cells

how is growth hormone stimulated

GHRH release - triggered by low blood levels of growth hormone


-hypoglycemia


-low levels of fatty acids

how is GH inhibitd

-feedback inhibition exerted by GH and IGFs


-hyperglycemia


-obesity

target organs of GH

Liver


muscle


bone


cartilage


hyposecretion of GH

pituitary dwarf syndrome in children

hypersecretion of GH

gigantism in children


acromegaly in adults

how is TSH stimulated

by TRH


in infants - cold temp


how is TSH inhibited

by feedback inhibition exerted by glucocorticoids

target organ of TSH

thyroid gland - stimulated organ to release thyroid hormones

hyposecretion of TSH

cretinism in children


myxedema in adults

hypersecretion of TSH

hyperthyroidism

how is ACTH stimulated

by CRH and hypoglycemia

target organ of ACTH

adrenal cortex - promotes release of glucocorticoids and androgens

hypersecretion of ACTH

Cushing's Disease

how is FSH stimulated

by GnRH

how is FSH inhibited

by feedback inhibition exerted by inhibin


estrongen in females


testosterone in males

target organ of FSH and how

ovaries - stimulates ovarian follicle maturation and estrogen production


testes - stimulates sperm production

hyposecretion of FSH

failure of sexual maturation

how is LH stimulated

by GnRH

how is LH inhibited

feedback inhibition exerted by estrogen and progesterone in females and testosterone in males

target organs of LH

ovaries - triggers ovulation and stimulates production of estrogen and progesterone


testes - promones testosterone production

hyposecretion of LH

failure of sexual maturation

how is PRL stimulated

by decreased dopamine


release enhacened by estrogens, bc pills, breast feeding, and dopamine blocking drugs

how is PRL inhibited

by dopamine

what is the target organ of PRL

breast secretory tissue - promotes lactation

hyposection of PRL

poor milk production in nursing women

hypersecretion of PRL

inappropriate milk production

what is a follicle

in the thyroid gland, produces thyroglobulin

glycoprotein secreted by follicles

thyroglobulin

substance that contains thyroglobulin attached to iodine atoms

colloid

______ cells: produce calcitonin found in follicular epithelium

parafollicular

what are the two components of the thyroid hormone

T3- triiodothyroxine


T4 - thyroxine

how do thyroid hormones function

enters target cell, binds to nucleus to initiate transcription of mRNA for protein synthesis

what are the functions of thyroid hormone

maintain blood pressure


increases basal metabolic rate


regulates tissue growth

know the basic process to synthesize thyroxine

1. thyroglobulin synthesized and discharged into follicile lumen


2. iodine actively transported into cell and oxidized to iodine


3. attached to tyrosine in colloid and forms DIT and MIT


4. iodinated tyrosines are linked together to form T3 and T4


5. thyroglobulin is endocytosed and combined with lysosome


6. lysosomal enzymes cleave T3 and T4 from thyroglobulin and diffused in bloodstream

what is the negative feedback mechanism to control regulation of thyroid hormone

falling TH levels trigger release of TSH which inhibits hypothalamic anterior pituitary axis which temporarily shuts off TSH release stimulus

what are the secretory cells of the parathyroid gland and what is the stimulus

parathyroid cells - falling Ca2+ levels causes PTH secretion

what are the functions of PTH

stimulates osteoclasts to digest bony matrix


enhances resorption of Ca2+


promotes activation of vitamin D

fxn of adrenal hormones

regulate electrolyte concentration in extracellular fluid

what are the 3 zones of adrenal cortex and what corticosteroid

zona glomerulosa - mineralocorticoids


zona fasciculata - glucocorticoids


zona reticularis - gonadocorticoids

what is the function of mineralcorticoids and what are the most important

regulate electrolyte concentration


Na+ and K+

what is the electrolyte responsible for establishing resting membrane potential

K+

target organ for aldosterone and mech of activity

kidney tubules - stimulates resorption of Na+ and water retention by elimination of K+

what triffers secretion of aldosterone

low BP


Low blood vol


increased K+

what triggers inhibition of aldosterone

increased BP


increased blood vol


decreased K+

what are the four mechanisms to regulate aldosterone production

Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone


plasma conc. of potassium


ACTH


Atrial Natiuretic peptide

what does renin-angiotensin-aldosterone do?

regulates the release of aldosterone

how does plasma concentration of potassium affect aldosterone secretion

influences the zone glomerulosa cells in the adrenal cortex

how does ACTH affect aldosterone secretion

hypothalamus secretes more CRN which increases the rate of aldosterone

how does atrial natiuretic peptide affect aldosterone secretion

ANP is secreted by heard which inhibits renin-angiotensin mechanism and blocks renin and aldosterone secretion

what are the general functions of glucocorticoids and identify the most important

energy metabolism in cells, reduce stressors


cortisol

what is the prime metabolic effect of cortisol

provoke gluconeogenisis --> formation of glucose from fats and proteins

what are the effects of excessive levels of glucocorticoids

Cushings syndrome - ACTH pituitary tumor

state the general functions of the gonadocorticoids

-axillary and pubic hair


-sex drive


-menopause

identify the secretory cells of the adrenal medulla and their products

medullary chromaffin cells - synthesize catecholamines (epinephrine and norepinephrine)

how are medullary chromaffin cells stimulated and what are the effects of the products

stimulated by preganglionic fibers of the sympathetic nervous system


increases the heart rate and metabolic rate, increases BP and leads to hypertension

identify the secretory cells of the pineal gland and the hormone synthesized for secreation

pinealocytes - melatonin

identify the key sensation to stimulate the pineal gland

suprachiasmic nucleus - "biological clock"

identify the location of melatonin receptors and the function of the organ

hands from the roof of the third ventricle in diencephalon


regulates body temp, sleep, and appetite

why is the pancreas considered a mixed gland

composed of both endocrine and exocrine gland

identify the pancreatic cells functioning as exocrine glands

acinar cells

identify the pancreatic cells functioning as endocrine glands and their associated hormones

pancreatic islets - alpha and beta cells


glucagon and insulin

identify the major target of glucagon and the actions it promotes

regulating blood glucose levels


target = liver

identify stimulants of glucagon secretion

stimulated by sympathetic nervous system and rising amino acid levels

state 3 ways in which insulin reduces blood glucose levels

-glycogenolysis


-gluconeogenisis


-release of glucose to blood by liver cells

identify the enzymatic activities triggered when insulin enters a cell

- enhances membrane transport of gluose into body cells (muscle and fat)


-inhibits breakdown of glycogen to glucose


-inhibits conversion of amino acids to glucose

identify the stimulus of insulin secretion

elevated blood glucose levels

identify the hormones produced by the ovaries and state their functions

estrogen - produce eggs, maturation of reproductive organs and puberty


progesterone - breast development

identify the hormones produced by the testes and their functions

testosterone - maturation, sex drive, and secondary sex characteristics

when is the placenta a temporary endocrine organ?

secretes steroid and protein hormone - estrogens and progesterone - and human chronic gonadotropin

identify a hormone produced by the heart and state its function

atrial natriuretic peptide - decreases the amount of Na+ in fluid - decreases blood volume and blood pressure

identify the hormone secreting cells of the GI tract, the hormones produced, and their general function

enteroendocrine - release peptide hormones


gastrin - stimulates HCl production


ghrelin - stimulates food intake and GH release


secretin - stimulates release of enzyme-rich juice from the pancreas


identify the secretory cells from the kidney, the hormone produced and its function

erythropoietin - red blood cell production

identify hormones synthesized in the skin and state their functions

cholecalciferol - stimulates active transport of calcium across the membrane in the small intestine

identify hormones synthesized in adipose tissue and state their functions

leptin - supresses appetite, increases energy expenditure


resistin - antagonizes insulin


adiponectin - enhances sensitivity to insulin


identify hormones synthesized by skeletal osteoblasts and state their functions

osteocalcin - promoted by insulin - increases production and sensitivity of insulin

identify the families of hormones synthesized by the thymus and state their general functions

thymulin, thymopoietins, thymosins - all local paracrines involved in T-lymphocyte development and immune response

________: hypersecretion of growth hormone in children - targets still active epiphyseal plate; abnormally tall

gigantism

________: excessive growth hormone secreted after epiphyseal plates closed "enlarged extremities" - overgrown bony areas

acromegaly

_____: growth hormone deficiency in children - slows long bone growth

pituitary dwarfism

______: ADH deficiency - intense thirst and large urine output caused by damage to the hypothalamus or posterior pituitary

diabetes insipidus

_______: underactivity of the thyroid gland - low metabolic rate, feeling chilled, thick dried skin, edema

myxedema

_____: enlarged protruding thyroid gland from lack of iodine

endemic goiter

_______ severe hypothyroidism in infants - mentally retarded; short, disprportionately sized body - thick tongue and neck

cretinism

_________: autoimmune condition - person makes abnormal antibodies against thyroid follicular cells

graves disease

_______: parathyroid gland tumor - calcium is leeched from bones

hyperparathyroidism

________: ACTH-releasing malignancy of lungs, pancreas, kidneys

cushings syndrome

__________: hyposecretion of adrenal cortex - deficits in glucocorticoids and mineralocorticoids

addisons disease

_______: absent insulin

diabetes type 1

__________: insulin present but deficient

diabetes type 2

brief overview of blood circulation

initiated by pumping action of heart


blood exits heart via arteries which branch into tiny capillaries


diffustion of O2 and nutrients into body tissues


CO2 and wastes leave tissues into blood stream


O2 deficient blood leaves via veins back to the heat to the lungs and back to the heart

properties of blood that qualify as a tissue using formed elements and plasma

plasma = 55%


buffy coat = leukocytes and platelets


erythrocytes = 45%


proteins

fxn of erythrocytes

RBC's transport O2 in the blood

what is hematocrit and what are the averages male/female

percentage of RBS's in the blood


males 47% +/- 5%


females 42% +/- 5%

what is the function of leukocytes

protect the body from foreign substances

what is the fxn of platelets

help stop bleeding

blood = ______% of body weight

8

what is the normal blood volume for an adult female/male

female = 4-5L


male = 5-6L

what are the 3 distribution functions of blood

- delivering O2 and nutrients to body cells


-eliminating waste


-transporting hormones from endocrine organs to their target organ

state the 3 regulatory functions of blood

-maintaining appropriate body temp


-maintain normal pH in body tissues


-maintain adequate fluid volume in circulatory system

state the 2 protective functions of blood

-prevent blood loss via clotting


-prevent infection via antibodies

key solutes found in plasma and the relative abundance

water = 90%


electrolytes = Na+, K, Ca2+, Mg2+, P, S, H2CO3


Plasma proteins (8%)


nutrients = glucose, carbohydrates, amino acids, fatty acids


respiratory gasses - O2, CO2, H2CO3


hormones - steroid and thyroid

what are the plasma proteins and where are they made

albumin - liver (60%) - carrier in blood buffer; contributes to osmotic pressure that keeps H2O in the blood stream


globulins - liver (36%) - alpha and beta transport proteins that bind to lipids, metal ions, and fat soluble ions


gamma releases antibodies during immune response


fibrinogen - liver fxns in blood clotting (4%) - forms fibrin threads of blood clot

identify the three formed elements of blood

erythrocytes


leukocytes


platelets

known the 3 structural characteristics that contribute to Red Blood Cell function

- biconcave shape - provide surface area relative to volume - suited for gas exchange


-discounting H20 content -> 97% hemoglobin binds respiratory gases


-dont consume any O2 carried b/c generate ATP themselves

normal values for adult male/females for hemoglobin

males = 13-18grams per 100mL of blood


females = 12-16grams

what is hematopoiesis and where does it take place in adults

blood cell formation


occurs in red blood marrow within blood sinudoids


in axial skeleton bones and girdles, proximal epiphysis of humerus and femur

what is the average daily production of blood

an ounce

explain the negative feedback mechanism of erythrocyte homeostasis

caused by decreased RBC, Hb, and O2 - erythropoeitin stimulates formation of erythrocytes via bone marrow released by the kidney and liver which increases O2 carrying.

dietary requirements of erythrocyte formation

iron

what is that average life span of an erythrocyte and what happens to dying cells

100-120 days - they are degraded and leaves body in feces

condition in which the blood O2 carrying capacity is too low to support normal metabolism

anemia

what causes hemmorrhagic anemia

trauma - acute blood loss

what causes iron deficiency anemia

not enough red blood cells produced

what causes pernicious anemia

autoimmune disease that destroys own rbcs

what is renal anemia

lack of EPO

what is aplastic anemia

destruction of red bone marrow

what causes hemolytic anemia

erythrocytes rupture

what causes thalassemia

absent globin chains in rbcs

what causes sickle cell anemia

crescent shaped rbcs


caused by a mutation in DNA

what is polycythemia and common causes

abnormal excess of erythrocytes that increases blood viscosity causing it to flow sluggishly

mechanism where leukocytes move out of capillary vessels to transport

diapedesis

what is amoeboid motion

form flowing cytoplasmic extensions that move leukocytes along

mechanism that pinpoints areas of tissue damage and gather in large numbers to destroy foreign substances

positive chemotaxis

identify the 5 leukocytes and in order of relevant abundance

neutrophils


lympocytes


monocytes


eoisinophils


basophils

name the 3 granulocytes

neutrophils


basophils


eosinophils

what is the specific function of neutrophils

bacteria slayers - numbers increase during acute bacterial infections

what is the specific function of basophils

vasodilator due to inflammation- chemical attractcs WBC to infected site

what is the specific functions of eosinophils

digest bacteria - counter attack against parasitic worms too large to be phagocitized

name and state the function of the agranulocytes

lymphocytes


-Tcells - immune attack virus infected and tumor cells


-Bcells - plasma cells that produce antibodies released in the blood


monocytes - macrophages - defense against viruses

what are the chemical signals that stimulate leukopoesis

interleukins and colony stimulating factors


stimulate granulocyte production and promp WBC to mature and enhance protective property

what leukocyte differentiates from lymphoid stem cells

lymphocytes

what is leucopenia and what are the common causes

abnormally low WBC count - commonly induced by drugs particularly glucocorticoids and anticancer agents

what is leukemia and what are the 2 basic types and cell of origin

cancerous condition that involves the production of abnormal white blood cells


-myeloid leukemia - myeloblast decendants


-lymphocyte leukemia - lympocyte decendants

what is the hormone that regulates platelet formation and the target cell

thrombopoitin


megakaryocyte

mechanism that stops bleeding

hemostaisis

what are the 3 steps of hemostasis

1. vascular spasm


2. platelet plug formation


3. coagulation - blood clotting

what is the purpose of step 1 of hemostasis

vasoconstriction - constrict blood vessels

what blood chemicals are needed for step 3 of hemostasis

clotting factors/precoagulants


plasma proteins

why are Ca2+ and K+ important in hemostasis

Ca2+ needed in coagulation


K+ synthesizes clotting factors

what are the 3 phases of coagulation

1. two pathways to prothrobin activator


2. common pathway to thrombin


3. common pathway to fibrin mesh

what is the goal of phase 1 of blood coagulation

formation of prothrombin activator

compare/contrast intrinsic and extrinsic pathways of blood coagulation

intrinsic


-factors needed for clotting found w/in blood


-triggered by negatively charged surfaces- platelets, collagen


-slue due to many steps



extrinsic


-factors needed for clotting found outside of blood


-triggered by exposing blood to damaged endothelium


-fast - bypasses a lot of steps for intrinsic

what is the goal for phase 2 of blood coagulation

prothrombin activator catalyzes the conversion of prothrombin into active enzyme - thrombin

what is the goal of phase 3 of blood coagulation

clot formation

what is the importance of clot reaction

further stabilizes the clot, platelets contrat and squeeze serum from mass -> compacts the clot and draws the edges together

what is the importance of fibrinolysis and key molecules involved

removes unneeded clots when healing occurs


plasmin circulates enzymes to burst clot

identify 2 homeostatic mechanisms that prevent clots from becoming too large

1. swift removal of clotting factors


2. inhibition of activated clotting factors

how does antithrombin III prevents clots from becoming too large

inactivates any thrombin not bound to fibrin - inhibits the intrinsic pathway

what is the natural anticoagulant and state how it prevents clots from becoming too large

heparin - contained in basophil and mast cell granules inhibits thrombin by enhancing antithrombin III activity inhibits intrinsic pathway

what are the key factors for preventing undesirable clotting

-endothelium smooth and intact


-antithrombic substances, nitric oxide and prostacyclin prevent platelet adhesion


-vitamin E quinone - potent anticoagulant

what is a thromboembolic disorder of hemostasis

causes undesirable clot formation

______ = clot that develops and persists in unbroken blood vessel

thrombus

_______ = thrombus breaks away and floats freely in bloodstream

embolus

______ = emolus obstructing a blood vessel

embolism

________ = bleeding disorder where there is a deficient number of circulating platelets that causes spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels

thrombocytopenia

what deficiency causes impaired liver function

vitamin K

________ = deficiency of factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor)

hemophilias

_______ = anything the body sees as foreign and generates an immune response

antigen

identify the two groups of antigens that cause vigorous transfusion reactions

A & B

know the ABO blood groups by surface agglutinogen

A - anti A


B - anti B


AB - anti A and anti B


O - Neither - no agglutination

identify possible donors for each ABO blood type

AB - universal recipient


B - B and O


A - A and O


O - only O

what is the hemolytic disease of the newborn and is it preventable?

Rh- mother and Rh+ baby - antibodies will cross through placenta and destroy baby RBC's cause the baby to be anemic and hypoxic


Can be prevented by a transfusion before birth

what are the 2 major events in a transfusion reaction and what are the consequences

1. agglutination of foreign RBC's clogs blood vessels


2. Clumped cells begin to rupture/destroyed by phagocytes



Consequences:


1. transfused blood cells can't transport O2


2. clumped cells hinder blood flow to tissues

state the function of the lymphatic system and identify the componentsreturn

fluids that have leaked from the blood vascular system back to the blood


-lymphatic vessels


-lymph fluid


-lymph nodes

name the lymphoid organs

-spleen


-thymus


-tonsils


-lymph nodes

identify the lymphatic vessels from smallest to largest

lymphatic capillaries


lymphatic vessels

what are two structural modifications that make lymphatic capillaries highly permeable

1. endothelial cells forming the walls are not tightly joined - they are easily opened "mini-valves"


2. collagen filaments anchor the endothelial cells to surrounding structures so that any increase in interstitial fluid volume opens the mini-valves

describe lacteals - know specific location and function


what is chyle

A special set of lymphatic capillaries that transport absorbed fat from small intestine into the blood stream


chyle - fatty lymph that drains from intestines

describe the lymphatic collecting vessels, how they differ from blood veins

have thinner walls and more internal valves


lymphatics in the skin travel along with superficial veins

what are the drain fields for the lymphatic trunks and name them

largest collecting vessels unite to form trunks - travel with deep arteries; drain large areas of the body


-lumbar


-bronchomediastinal


-subclavian


-jugular


-intestinal

name the two large lymphatic ducts in thoracic cavity and know the collection area

right lymphatic duct - drains lymph from the right upper limb and right side of head an thorax



larger thoracic duct - drains lymph from the rest of the body -> L side of the thorax, L upper limb and L side of head

identify the methods by which lymph is transported through the system

- return excess tissue fluid to bloodstream


-return leaked proteins to the blood


- carry absorbed fat from the intestine to the blood (through lacteals)

what are two main varieties of lymphocytes and state their functions

T- cells = manage immune response and directly attack and destroy infected cells


B - cells = protect the body by producing plasma cells that secrete antibodies into the blood which make antigens for destruction by phagocytes

identify the lymphoid cells other than T and B cells

macrophages - protection and immune response -> directly attack and destroy infected cells



dendritic cells - activate Tcells and capture antigens that bring them back to the lymph nodes



reticular fibers - fibroblast-like cells that produce stroma = network that supports other cell types in lymphoid organs and tissues

state two reasons lymphoid tissue is considered part of the immune system

1. Houses and provides a proliferation site for lymphocytes


2. furnishes an ideal surveilance vantage point for lymphocytes and macrophages

what is the type of connective tissue found in most lymphoid tissues

reticular connective


exception = thymus

how are lymphoid tissues organized

huge numbers of lymphocytes squeeze through walls of postcapillary venules. they leave to patrol body again and cycles btw circulatory vessles, lymphoid tissues and loose conn. tissue. Body ensures lymphocytes reach infected or damaged sites quickly

identify the principal lymphoid organ and state the functions

lymph nodes


1. filtration - filters lymph before its transferred to blood stream


2. immune system activation - attack antigens

______= dense, fibrous casing = trabeculae extend from and create compartments

lymph node capsule

_______: contains densly packed follicles, many with gernimal centrers and heavy with dividing B cells

lymph node cortex

_______:inward extensions from cortical tissues - contain body types of lymph nodes

medullary cords

__________: large lymph capillaries spanned by criscrossing reticular fibers - house macrophages that phagocitize

lymph sinuses

_________ = 2nd area of lymph travel into smaller sinuses that enter medulla through medullary sinuses

subcapsular sinus

description of spleen and its location

largest lymphoid organ


site for lymphocyte proliferation and immune survaliance and response


*blood cleansing*

_________= where worn out RBCs and bloodborne pathogens are destroyed; contains lots of erythrocytes and macrophages

red pulp

_______ = immune functions take place - mostly lymphocytes on reticular fibers; forms cuffs around central arteries

white pulp

________ = enter/exit site of blood through spleen

hilum

_________ = surrounds spleen, has trabeculae that extend inward

fibrous capsule

________ = forms the exit to the hilum

central artery

_____= regions of reticular conn tissue that separate the blood filled splenic sinusoids

splenic cords

identify 3 splenic functions

1. stores some of the breakdown products of RBC's for later use


2. stores blood platelets and monocytes for release into blood when needed


3. site of RBC production in fetus

what is the primary function of thymus

t-lymphocytes become able to defend us against specific pathogens in immune response

how do the morphological changes of the thymus throughout life impact its function

highly active during 1st year of life - after puberty it atrophies gradually, by old age it is replaced by fatty tissue and fibrous tissue


- continues to produces immunocompetent cells but just at a declining rate

identify three important differences between the thymus and other lymphoid organs

1. No follicles b/c it lacks B cells


2. only lymphoid organ to not directly fight antigens; maturation site for T-lymph


3. The stroma of the thymus consists of epithelial cells (provide environment needed for Tlymphocyte maturity) rather than reticular fibers

The ______ of the thymus houses the thymic corpuscles that are involved in the development of _____ cells

medulla


Treg cells

_________ - keeps bloodborne antigens out of the thymus

blood thymus barrier

identify the lymphoid tissues that are considered MALT

tonsils


peyers patches


appendix

name the 4 tonsils and their specific location

palantine - posterior end of oral cavity - largest and most infected


lingual - lumpy collection of lymphoid follicles at the base of the tongue


pharyngeal (adenoids) - posterior wall of nasopharynx


tubal - surround openings of auditory tube into the pharynx

state the function of tonsils

gather and remove many pathogens entering the pharynx in food and air

describe structure of tonsils and know the significance of tonsillar crypts

contain follicles with germinal centers surrounded by lymphocytes


not fully encapsulated epithelium covering forms tonsillar crypts that block bacteria and matter

what are peyers patches and where are they located

aggregated lymphoid nodules - located in the wall of distal portion of small intestine

state the functions of peyers patches and appendix

1. destroy bacteria before pathogens can breach intestinal wall


2. generate memory lymphocytes fr long term immunity

__________ = tubular offshoot of large intestine with high conc of lymphoid follicles

appendix

identify the two intrinsic systems and the differences

innate defense system - protect from all foreign substances - external body membranes, intact skin and mucosae; internal antimicrobial proteins and phagocytes



adaptive defense system - attack particular foreign substances - takes more time; humoral (B cells) and cellular immunity (T cells)

Identify protective chemicals secreted by epithelial membranes

Acid mantle - skin, vagina, stomach - inhibits bacteria growth


lysozyme - saliva, respiratory mucus, eye - destroys bacteria


mucin - traps microorganisms


sebum/dermicidin - eccerine sweat, toxic to bacteria

know the secretions of the respiratory mucosa and fxn

secrete defensins - antimicrobial peptides - increasees rapidly in response to inflammation - control bacterial and fungal colonization

how are internal innate defenses triggered

respiratory tract mucosa have tiny mucous coated hair inside the nose that trap inhaled particles



cilia on mucus prevent bacteria from lower respiratory passage


internal innate defenses can be triggered by shaving and brushing teeth

identify the cells and chemicals of the internal innate defenses

-phagocytes


-natural killer cells


-antimicrobial proteins


-fever


-microphages


-mast cells


-WBCs

_______ = membrane lined vesicle that encloses bacteria

phagosome

_________ = phagosome fused with lysozyme

phagolysosome

_________ = pathogen coated with opsonins (antibodies) that accelerated phagocytosis

opsonization

_____ = when Tcells release chemicals that stimulate macrophage and activates additional enzymes that promotes bursting/killing of pathogens

respiratory burst

_________ police the body in blood and lymph - lyse and kill cancer and virus infected body cells before adaptive immune system is activated

NK cells_

how are NK cells different from other lymphocytes?

are non-specific and directly kill by inducing apoptosis


lymphocytes are specific

what are the triggers of the inflammatory response

physical trauma


intense heat


irritating chemicals


infection by virus, fungi, bacteria

3 beneficial functions of inflammation

1. prevents spread of damaging agents to nearby tissues


2. disposes of cell debris and pathogens


3. alters the adaptive immune system

4 cardinal signs of inflammation

redness


heat


swelling


pain

__________ = membrane receptors that recognize invaders and sound chemical alarm that triggers release of cytokines

toll-like receptors


_______ = inflammatory chemicals triggered by toll-like receptrs

cytokines

_______ = cells that release histamine in response to injured tissue/immune cells

mast cells

_______ = potent inflammatory chemical released by mast cells

histamine

fxn of kinins

-induce chemotaxis of leukocytes


-prompt neutrophils to release lysozymes


-induce pain

what 3 things dilates local anterioles and make local capillaries leak more

kinins, prostaglandins and complement

-_______ = fatty acid in cell membrane generated by neutrophils, basophils, and mast cells that induce neutrophil chemoxtaxis and pain

prostaglandins

________ = signaling chemicals that mediate inflammation and allergic reactions

leukotrienes

________ = bloodborne proteins that lyse microorganisms, enhance phagocytosis by opsonization

complement proteins

_______ = congestion with blood that occurs when local arterioles dilate; causes redness and heat of inflammed region

hyperemia

_______ = fluid containing clotting factors and antibodies seeps from blood into tissue space; causes local swelling (edema) and sense of pain

exudate

what is the first leukocyte involved in phagocyte mobilizaton

neutrophils

4 steps of phagocyte mobilization

1. leukocytosis


2. margination


3. diapedesis


4. chemotaxis

______ = neutrophils enter from red bone marrow and increases the number of neutrophils and WBC's

leukocytosis

_______ = inflammed endothelial cells sprout cell adhesion molecules and pinpoint the inflammed area

margination

________ = prompts neutrophils to squeeze through endothelial cells of capillary walls

diapedesis

_______ = WBC's migrate to site of inflammation response and destroy foreign material

chemotaxis

two most important antimicrobial proteins

interferons


complement protiens

_______ = proteins released by virus infected ells and lymphocytes that act as chemical messengers to protect uninfected tissue cells from viral take over

interferons

two ways by which complement can be activated

1. classical pathway: antibodies fight off invaders


2. lectin pathway: recognize foreign invaders and bind to activate complement

explain how complement fixation causes lysis of target cells

several antibodies bind close together on same cell and triggers cell lysis - amplifies inflammation response and promotes phagocytosis via opsonization

________ = protein the creates a hole in membrane of cell and allows an influx of H2O --> lyses cell

MAC - membrane attack complex

________ = abnormally high body temperature due to a localized response to infection

fever

how is a fever triggered

leukocytes and macrophages exposed to foreign substances release pyrogens that act on the bodies thermostat

how is fever protective

-causes liver and spleen to sequester iron and zinc --> less able to support bacterial growth


- increase metabolic rate of tissue cells -> speeding repair response

why is fever dangerous

denatures proteins and depresses neurons that can cause convulsions

innate vs adaptive immune system

innate - always ready to respond


adaptive - must be prepped by an initial exposure to antigen

3 most important aspects of the adaptive system

1. it is specific - particular pathogens


2. systemic - not restricted to initial infected site


2. memory - mounts stronger attacks on previous encountered pathogens

two arms of adaptive immunity and fxn

- humoral immunity - antibody mediated provided by lymphocyes that bind to foreign materials


-cellular immunity- cellular targets: virus/parasite infected cells/cancer cells directly kill cells

2 functional properties of complete antigens

immunogenicity - stimulate specific lymphocytes to multiply


reactivity - react with the activated lymphocytes and antibodies released

example of complete antigens

large polysacchariddes


lipids


nucleic acids


bacteria


fungi

_______ small molecules that link up with bodies own proteins so adaptive immune system recognizes combination as foreign and mounts harmful attack

incomplete antigens

_______ = antigenic to other individuals, contain a group of glycoproteins called MHC and Tlyphocytes can only bind antigens present on those proteins

self-antigens

3 crucial cell types of the adaptive immune system

1. B lymphocytes


2. T lymphocytes


3. APC's

________ = cells that oversee humoral immunity

B cells

_______ = nonantibody producing lymphocytes that constitute agaptice immunity

Tlymphocytes

5 general steps of development, maturation and activation of lymphocytes

origin


maturation


seeding secondary lymph organs


antigen encounter and activation


proliferation and differentiation

what is the aim of the maturation process

-immunocompetence - ale to recognize its antigen by binding to it


-self-tolerance - unresponsive to self-antigens so it doesn't attack the bodies own cells

identify the primary lymphoid organs where lymphocytes mature



what is their status upon exit

thymus and bone marrow - become immunocompetent



naive

________ selection: ensures that only T cells are able to recognize self MHC proteins

positive

______ selection: Tcells do not recognize self-antigens displayed on self MHC

negative

now is B cell maturation different from Tcell

occurs in red bone marrow instead of thymus


successful in making antigen recepters - they are self reactive or eliminated

how is receptor diversity created in lymphocytes

genes determine which specific foreign substances our immune system recognizes/resists

what is the major role of antigen-presenting cells

engulf antigens and present fragments on surfaces where T-cells can recognize them

what are the major types of APCs

dendritic cells


macrophages


B lymphocytes

what is the effect of antigen presentation to T cells

can only be activated by antigens presented to them on MHC proteins by APC's

how are lymphocytes emigated to the correct location

dendritic cells engulf, and travel via lymph to lymph node to present antigens to T-cells

what is the most effective APC

dendritic cells

response of B cell lymphocytes to the antigen challenge

humoral immune response - antibodies specific for that antigen are made

fate of most clones

proliferation into effector plasma cells

what happens to the rest of clones that dont differentiate

made into memory cells that cauese immediate humoral response if encounters same antigen

primary vs. secondary immune response

primary - 1st exposure; 3-6 days for B cells to proliferate into plasma cells



secondary - faster, more effective immune system already memorized that antigen; 'immunological memory'

two ways active humoral immunity is acquired

1. naturally acquired via bacterial/viral infection - develop symptoms


2. artifically acquired - vaccines

two benefits of vaccines

- spare most of the symptoms/discomfort of disease


-weakened antigens provide functional antigenic determinants that are both immunogenic and reactive

__________ immunity: ready made antibodies introduce to body, not made by plasma cells


ex. snake bites, rabies

passive humoral

_______ = gamma globulin part of blood; proteins secreted in response to an antigen by effector B cells and binds with antigen

antibody

basic structure of antibody monomer

4 chains combined


T or Y shaped

significance of variable region of antibody

combine to antigen binding site to "fit" an antigenic determinant

significance of stem constant region of antibody

-determine antibody class


-dictate the cells and chemicals the antibody can bind to


-how the antibody class fxns to eliminate antigen

_______ = pentamer secreted by plasma cells, readily fixes and activated compliment, receptor on B cell surface

IgM

______ dimer found in saliva, sweat, milk, instestines - stops pathogens from attaching to epithelial cells

IgA

_______ = monomer found on B cell surface that is a Bcell antigen receptor

IgD

______ = most abundant antibody in plasma - protects against bacteria, viruses, and toxinsi

IgG

_____ stem end binds to mast cells/basophils - triggers release of histamine - secreted by plasma cells in the skin mucous and GI, tonsils -

IgE

_____ antibody level rises during severe allergic reactions

IgE

4 methods by which antibodies inactivate antigens

neutralization


agglutination


precipitation


complement fixation

________ = antibodies block specific sites on viruses/bacteria

neutralization


_____ = antibodies bind to more than one binding site causing clumping

agglutination

_______ = antibodies caught in large complexes so phagocytes can capture

precipitation

______ = antibodies bind close together on same cell --> signals cell lysis

complement fixation

when are antibodies not effective

certain viruses and tuberculosis bacilli --> adaptive immunity

2 popular populations of cells that mediate cellular immunity

CD4 and CD8

_______ = cells that become Thelper cells and activate B, T cells and macrophages

CD4

______ cells = become cytotoxic T cells destroy any cells that hae foreign substances

CD8

cell differentiation glycoproteins function as receptors by

interactions between Tells and other cells

basic process for fragment presentation in MHC class I cells

peptide fragments bind to MHC I proteins -> transport vesicles export cytotoxic T cells to come and kill

basic process for fragment presentation in MHC class II cells

bind to peptide fragments -> displayed by antigens outside of the cell and broken down by proteases inside a phagolysosome

state the MHC restriction of CD4 cells for antigen binding

usually become Thelper cells restricted to binding antigens only on class II MHC proteins which are displayed on antigen-presenting cells (APC surfaces)

state the MHC restriction of CD8 cells for antigen binding

usually become cytotoxic T cells;


restricted to binding antigens only on class II MHC proteins found on surface of APC's

how do APCs comply with the CH8 restrictions for presentation of endogenous antigens

MHC I display endogenous antigens --> obtained by dendritic cells and can obtain other cell antigens by engulfling infected cells or importing antigens through gap junctions with infected cell --> display on both MHC I and II

what is the status of CD4 and CD8 cells that have successfully bound the antigen

T cell antigen receptors (TCR)

what are co-stimulatory signals and where are they located

appear on APC surface in damaged tissues --> binds with t cell to be able to proliferate and form a clone

what is the effect of co-stimulation

crucial for tcell activation to be started and proliferate

what is the importance of the 2-signal secuence (costimulation and antigen binding)

required for clonal selection

why do activated T cells have to be disposed after used

produce a lot of inflammatory cytokines and may promote cancer

fxns of IL1

-secreted by activated macrophages


-promotes inflammation and T-cell activation


-causes fever

fxns of IL2

-secreted by Thelper


-stimulates B and T cell proliferation and T cell development


-NK cell activation

name the two cytokines that are suppressor factors

TGF-beta and IL-10

Source and importance of T helper cells

activated by APC presentation of antigen


Th cells actiate B and T cells and induce proliferation


recruit other immune responses

role of Th cell in humoral immunity

binds with B cell that has encountered its antigen and is displaying it


Thelp cell releases ILs as costimulatory signals to complete B cell activation

role of Thelper cells in helping cell-mediated immunity

Th cell binds to dendritic cell --> stimulates cell to express co-stimulatory molecules --> dendritic cell can activate the CD8 cell with help of IL2 secreted by Th cell

Th____ = stimulates inflammation, activate macrophages and promotes differentiation of cytotoxic T cells

1

Th____ = defend against parasitic worms -> mobilize eosinophils to battlefield and activate immune responses that depend on B cells and antibody formation

2

Th_____ = link together adaptive and innate immunity by releasing an IL which promotes inflammation response against extracellular microbes

17

source and fxn of cytotoxic T cells

-activated CD8 cells - attack and kill other cells


-search for recognized antigens

targets of T(c) cells

varus infected cells and tissue cells infected by bacteria or paracyes


foreign cells introduced into the body by blood transfusions or organ transplants

mechanism of T(c) target cell killing using perforins and granzymes

1. identifies foreign antigen on MHC I protein and binds tightly to target


2. T(c) releases perforin and granenzyme by granules via exocytosis


3. perforin inserts into membrane and polymerizes to form pores


4. granenzymes enter through pores and activate enzymes that trigger apoptosis

besides perforin and granenzymes, whats another way T(c) cells can kill target cells

NK cells look for lack of MHC 1 or presence of antibodies on target cells

fxns of Tregs

slows or stops activity of immune system - important in controlling autoimmune disesae

4 major varieties of organ grafting

autograft


isograft


allograft


xenograft

_____= tissue transplanted from one body site to another in the same person

autograft

______= grafts donated to a patient by a genetically identical individual ex. twins

isograft

_______ = grafts transplanted from individuals who are not genetically identical but same species

allografts

_______ = taken from another animal species ex. baboon heart

xenografts

major steps to prevent rejection of transplant

-ABO blood group


- MHC antigen match


- corticosteroid drugs to suppress inflammation


-antiproliferative drugs


-immunosuppressant drugs

_______ = congenital or acquired condition that impairs the production/function of immune cells/certain molecules such as complement or antibodies

immunodeficiency

identify known mutations that result in Severe Combined Immunodeficiency Syndrome

- marked deficit of B and T cells


- defective adenosine deaminase enzyme --> lethal to T cells

what type of transplant is suitable for SCID

hematopoetic stem cells

target cell of HIV virus and control of cell

T helper - eventually cannot make CD4 cells

_______ = body produces antibodies and cytotoxic T cells that destroy its own tissues

autoimmunity

_______ = autoimmune disease that destroys myelin of white matter of the brain and spinal cord

multiple sclerosis

______ = disease that impairs communication between nerves and skeletal muscle

myasthenia gravis

______ = disease that prompts thyroid gland to produce excessive amounts of thyroxine and causes eyeballs to protrude

graves disease

________ = disease that destroys pancreatic beta cells and results in a deficit of insulin and ability to use carbohydrates

Type I diabetes

______ = disease affecting the kidneys, heart and lungs causes glomerulonephritis loss of memory and painful arthritic

systemic lupus erythematosus

_______ = disease that damages kidneys filtration membrane and severely impairs liver function

glomerulonephritis

________ = disease the systemically destroys joints

rheumatoid arthritis

two possible triggers of autoimmune diseases

1. foreign antigens resemble self antigens


2. new self antigens appear

_______ = immune system that damages tissues as it fights off perceived threat

hypersensitivities

how are different types of hypersensitivity distinguished - give examples

acute - allergie


subacute - caused by antibodies

mechanism of immediate hypersensitivity

allergen causes APC to digest and present to CD4 cells that differentiate into IL4 secreting TH2 cells


IL4 stimulates B cells to mature into IgE secreting plasma cells that spew out large amount of antibodies for that allergen

mechanism for anaphylactic shock

allergen directly enters blood and circulates rapidly through the body

what happens during anaphylactic shock

bronchioles constrick making it difficult to breath and sudden vasodilation and fluid loss may cause hypotensive shock and death

what reverses anaphylactic shock

epinephrine

compare subacute hypersensitivity to immediate hypersensitivity

subacute - caused by antibodies


immediate/acute - caused by allergens

mechanism of cytotoxic type II reactions and when they might occur

occur when antibodies bind to antigens on specific body cells and stimulate phagocytosis and complement mediated lysis of cellular antigens



may occur after tranfusion of mismatched blood

mechanism of immune-complex type III hypersensitivity and know examples-

large numbers of antigens cannot be cleared from particular area


-intense inflammation occurs and kills neutrophils and damages tissues



ex. farmers lung - inhaling moldy hay


glomerulonephritis caused by lupus

mechanism of delayed hypersensitivity type IV and know example

caused by T cells -> inflammation and tissue damage result from action of cytokine-activated macrophages and T(c) cells



ex. allergic contact dermititis (poison ivy, chemicals) diffuse through skin and attach to self proteins and the immune system perceives as foreign

what is T3

triiodothyronine

what is T4

thyroxine

______ is released when triglycerides are added to adipocytes, and reduces appitite

leptin

where is epinephrine and norepinephrine released from

sympathetic nervous system

acinar cells secrete

digestive juices

erythropoeitin stiumulus, target and response

low oxygen, hypoxia


red bone marrow


red blood cells

_______ very often causes osteoporosis

hyperparathyroidism

what is largest lymphoid organ

spleen

_______ and ________ are released by the sympathetic nervous system

epi and norepi

ANP _________ blood pressure

lowers

three ways insulin reduces blood glucose levels

-enhance membrane transport of glucose into body cells


-inhibit glycogenolysis


-inhibit conversion of amino acids and fat into glucose

CCK secreted by, targets and response

secreted by intestines



pancreas- release digestive juices


galbladder - release bile


______ causes a release of insulin and inhibits glucagon release

GIP

cholecalciferol is changed into _______

vitamin D (calcitrol)

calcitrol also know as ______, regulates:

Vit D


Ca2+ reabsorption from food

______ causes WBC's to slow down

margination

why are monocytes the last to arrive during phagocyte mobilization

takes time to differentiate into macrophages

______ cause water to enter the cell and eventually causes cell lysis

MAC

fever is triggered by ______ in the hypothalamus

pyrogens

_______ antibody contributes to agglutination

IgM

interleukins secreted by B cells

IL4 and IL5

disease that destroys schwann cells

myasthenia gravis

draw negative feedback of GH

DRAW

draw negative feedback of TSH

DRAW

draw negative feedback of PTH

DRAW

draw negative feedback of Aldosterone

DRAW

draw chart that shows stress mechanism

DRAW

draw the insulin and glucagon negative feedback

DRAW

conversion of glycogen to glucose

glycogenolysisc

synthesis of glucose

gluconeogenisis

________ collects lymph from lumbar trunks that drain lower limbs and digestive

cisterna chyli

explain the circulation in lymph nodes

-lymph enters convex side through afferent lymph vessels


-subcapsular sinus branches from cortex to medulla


-medullary sinuses


-exits node at the hilum on concave side via efferent lymph vessels

types of innate defenses

surface barriers


interna;

types of adaptive defenses

humoral


cellular

humoral = _____ cells

B

cellular = ____ cells

T

what happens when arterioles dilate

-local hyperemia (increased blood flow to area)


- heat and redness


- local increase in metabolic rate - promotes healing

what happens with increased capillary permeability

- leak fluid into tissues - exudate


-pain and swelling

cells produce _________ to bind to viruses and block their reproduction

interferons

_____ antibody contributes to neutralization

IgG

______ antibody protects mucosal barriers

IgA

MHC ____ is displayed by ALL cells

I

MHC ____ is displayed only by APC's

II

MHC ____ is intracellular

I

MHC ____ is extracellular

II

MHC _____ is recognized by CD8 and Tc cells

I

MHC ____ is recognized by CD4 and Th cells

II

antigens must bind to ___________ before they can clone

costimulatory molecules

_________ = interferons and interleukins

cytokines

_______ is released by macrophages to stimulate T=cells

IL1

Humoral pathway and Th

Th binds to B cell containing MHC II on surgace


Th releases interleukins as costimulatory to complete B cell activation

cellular pathway and Th

Th binds to dendritic cells


causes release of costimulatory (IL1 and IL2) which allows dendritic cell with IL2 can activate CD8

dendritic cells cannot activate CD8 without the help of ______

IL2

explain hypersensitivity starting with antigen enters

-antigen enters


-plasma cell produces IgE antibodies


-antibodies attach to mast cells


- antigen combines with mast cell & antibody complex


-degranulation and release of histamine


-causes blood vessel dilation and leaky capillaries

compare the structure of T3 and T4

both are two linked tyrosine amino acids


T4 has 4 bound iodine atoms


T3 has 3

TGF-Beta stimulates (2):

Treg and Th17 development

the ______ pituitary ONLY stores hormones

posterior

name an organ with both neural and endocrine functions

hypothalamus

list the major endocrine glands

pituitary


thyroid


parathyroid


pineal


adrenal

two organs that produce both hormones and exocrine products

pancreas


gonads

name three major catecholamines

epi


norepi


dopamine

what does cAMP do?

activates protein kinases

name 4 ways hormones are removed from the blood

enzymes


kidneys


liver


halflife

give an example of antagonism

insulin and glucose

protein receptors for which hormones are located on the plasma membrane

peptides


catecholamines

name 6 tissues/organs that produce hormones

adipose tissue


thymus gland


small intestine


stomach


kidneys


heart

all amino hormones are derived from:

tyrosine

3 types of steroid hormones

gonadal


adrenocortical


placental

name the tropic hormones

TSH


ACTH


FSH


LH

two types of amine hormones

thyroid


catecholamines

composes 60% of plasma proteins

albumin

a localized region on the surface of an antigen that is chemically recognized by antibodies; also called antigenic determinant

epitope

buffy coat and erythrocytes make up _____% of blood

45

__________ and platelets initiate clot formation

plasma proteins

pH of blood is about ____

7.3-7.4

material in plasma

gas


hormones


nutrients


waste

stem cells that give rise to all of the formed elements of blood

hemocytoblast

% of blood that is plasma

55

defective amino acid in hemoglobin that causes sickle cell

valene

temerature of blood in celcius and farenheight

38


100.4

megakaryocytes live in _____

bone marrow

most plasma proteins are produced by the ____

liver

items needed to produce hemoglobin

folic acid


iron


protein


vitamin B12

FEVER is also know as

pyrexia

% of water in plasma

90%

phagocytes are found within the ____

lymph nodes

reticular connective tissue makes up most of what three things

lymph nodes


spleen


bone marrow

major duct of the lymphatic system

thoracic

______ extend from the LN cortex and contain Bcells, Tcells, and plasma cells

medullary cords

space between groups of lymphatic tissues that contain a network of fibers and macrophage cells

lymph sinuses

connective tissue strands that extend in to divide the lymph node into compartments

trabeculae

painless progressive enlargement of lymph nodes, spleen, and lymphoid tissue

Hodgkin disease

an enlarged pouch on the thoracic duct that serves as a storage area for lymph

cisterna chyli