A&p 1 Test 4

Front 1

34. Ribs XI and XII are referred to as
a. vertebrochondral ribs
b. vertebral ribs
c. floating ribs
d. Both B and C are correct.

Back 1

d. Both B and C are correct.

Front 2

39. Concerning concentration differences across the plasma membrane, there is
a. more K+ and Na+ outside the cell than inside.
b. more K+ and Na+ inside the cell than outside.
c. more K+ outside the cell than inside and more Na+ inside the cell than
outside.
d. more K+ inside the cell than outside and more Na+ outside the cell than
inside.

Back 2

d. more K+ inside the cell than outside and more Na+ outside the cell than
inside.

Front 3

40. Compared to the outside of the resting plasma membrane, the inside surface of
the membrane is
a. positively charged
b. negatively charged
c. electrically neutral
d. continuously reversing so that it is positive one second and negative the
next

Back 3

b. negatively charged

Front 4

41. If the permeability of the plasma membrane to Na+ increases, the membrane
potential _____________. This is called _____________.
a. increases, hyperpolarization
b. increases, depolarization
c. decreases, hyperpolarization
d. decreases, depolarization

Back 4

b. increases, depolarization

Front 5

42. Neurons that conduct sensory information into the central nervous system are
referred to as ________________.
a. afferent neurons
b. efferent neurons
c. interneurons
d. motor neurons

Back 5

a. afferent neurons

Front 6

43. Neurons that conduct signals out of the central nervous system to muscles or
glands in the periphery are referred to as ________________.
a. afferent neurons
b. efferent neurons
c. interneurons
d. sensory neurons

Back 6

b. efferent neurons

Front 7

44. At the synapse, synaptic vesicles are found in the
a. postsynaptic cell
b. presynaptic cell
c. synaptic cleft

Back 7

b. presynaptic cell

Front 8

45. After being released, neurotransmitters bind to receptors on the
a. postsynaptic membrane
b. axon
c. synaptic cleft
d. synaptic vesicle

Back 8

a. postsynaptic membrane

Front 9

46. If a neurotransmitter binds to receptor molecules that open K+ ion channels,
the result is
a. an excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP)
b. an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)
c. no change in membrane potential
d. an action potential

Back 9

b. an inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP)

Front 10

47. Kidney disorders or excessive tissue trauma can often result in hyperkalemia, a
condition characterized by higher than normal levels of potassium cations in the
blood and interstitial fluid. The resultant change in the K+ equilibrium potential
can upset the natural rhythm of the heart. Normally, the extracellular K+
concentration is about 5 mM and the K+ equilibrium potential is -88.6 mV. If
the intracellular K+ concentration remains unchanged at 150 mM (which is
usually the case), what would the K+ equilibrium potential be for a
hyperkalemic person with 7 mM extracellular K+?
a. –88.6 mV
b. –79.8 mV
c. +79.8 mV
d. -12.2 mV

Back 10

b. –79.8 mV

Front 11

48. In reference to the previous question, hyperkalemia would
a. affect only nerve cells because no other cells have membrane potentials.
b. have no effect on the resting membrane potential of cells.
c. have a depolarizing effect on cells.
d. have a hyperpolarizing effect on cells.

Back 11

c. have a depolarizing effect on cells.

Front 12

49. Generation of a nerve action potential (an electrical impulse that travels down
the axon of a nerve) requires that the membrane be depolarized to a minimum
threshold value. In a person with hyperkalemia, nerve cells would be:
a. more easily excited to threshold.
b. less easily excited to threshold.
c. unaffected by the excess extracellular K+.

Back 12

a. more easily excited to threshold.

Front 13

50. When gated channels for a specific ion open
a. the membrane conductance of that ion increases.
b. the resistance of the cell’s membrane to the flow of that ion decreases.
c. the membrane potential (Vm) of the cell will move closer to the equilibrium
potential for that ion.
d. All of the above.

Back 13

d. All of the above.

Front 14

51. The resting membrane potential of a typical cell is close to the K+ equilibrium
potential because:
a. In the resting cell, the membrane is only permeable to K+. There are no
open channels for Na+ or Cl-.
b. The intracellular concentration of Na+ is greater than the intracellular K+
concentration.
c. There are far more leakage channels for K+ than for Na+ or Cl-.
d. All of the above.

Back 14

c. There are far more leakage channels for K+ than for Na+ or Cl-.

Front 15

64. The axon membrane can create action potentials whereas dendrite membranes
can only create post synaptic (graded) potentials. This is because the axon
membrane:
a. has a more negative resting membrane potential
b. contains ligand-gated ion channels
c. contains voltage-gated ion channels
d. is myelinated

Back 15

c. contains voltage-gated ion channels

Front 16

65. Which glial cells produce myelin sheaths?
a. oligodendrocytes
b. Schwann cells
c. astrocytes
d. Both A and B are correct.

Back 16

d. Both A and B are correct.

Front 17

66. Which of the following statements concerning chemical synapses is false?
a. Chemical synapses produce graded potentials.
b. Chemical synapses can only be excitatory.
c. In a chemical synapse, neurotransmitter is released from the presynaptic
cell.
d. In a chemical synapse, receptors for the neurotransmitter are in the
membrane of the postsynaptic cell.

Back 17

b. Chemical synapses can only be excitatory.

Front 18

67. Place the events at a chemical synapse in the order in which they occur:
1. An action potential arrives at the presynaptic terminal bulb causing voltage-gated Ca2+
channels to open.
2. Synaptic vesicles fuse with the presynaptic neuron’s membrane.
3. Ions flow across the postsynaptic membrane causing a change in the postsynaptic membrane
potential.
4. Neurotransmitter binds to receptors on the postsynaptic membrane.
5. Neurotransmitter diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
a. 1,2,4,3,5
b. 3,1,2,5,4
c. 1,2,5,4,3
d. 1,3,2,5,4

Back 18

c. 1,2,5,4,3

Front 19

68. Which of the following statements regarding excitatory postsynaptic potentials
(EPSPs) is true?
a. An EPSP would result from an increase in the membrane conductance of Cl-.
b. EPSPs hyperpolarize the postsynaptic cell membrane.
c. An EPSP occurring near the axon hillock would be more effective at exciting
the neuron than one occurring on a dendrite further away.
d. Typically, a single EPSP is capable of causing the neuron to fire an action
potential.

Back 19

c. An EPSP occurring near the axon hillock would be more effective at exciting
the neuron than one occurring on a dendrite further away.

Front 20

69. Which of the following statements regarding inhibitory postsynaptic potentials
(IPSPs) is true?
a. During an IPSP, the inside of the postsynaptic cell becomes more positive.
b. An IPSP depolarizes the postsynaptic cell membrane.
c. An IPSP brings the postsynaptic cell’s membrane potential closer to
threshold.
d. Multiple IPSPs can sum both spatially and temporally to cause a larger
hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane.

Back 20

d. Multiple IPSPs can sum both spatially and temporally to cause a larger
hyperpolarization of the postsynaptic cell membrane.

Front 21

70. Which of the following statements about the axon hillock of a multipolar neuron
is true?
a. The axon hillock is the site where synaptic vesicles are stored.
b. The axon hillock is the site in the nerve cell that must be depolarized to
threshold to cause an action potential.
c. The axon hillock contains voltage-gated Ca2+ channels.
d. Axon hillock refers to the area of the axon between segments of
myelination.

Back 21

b. The axon hillock is the site in the nerve cell that must be depolarized to
threshold to cause an action potential.

Front 22

71. Which of the following statements about synapses is false?
a. The neurotransmitter of a chemical synapse is stored in small membraneenclosed
sacs called synaptic vesicles.
b. Some synapses have enzymes in the synaptic cleft which destroy
neurotransmitters.
c. Release of neurotransmitter into the synaptic cleft involves the influx of
Ca2+ ions to trigger the exocytosis of synaptic vesicles.
d. All synapses use neurotransmitters.

Back 22

d. All synapses use neurotransmitters.

Front 23

72. Which of the following statements regarding neurotransmitter is false?
a. In some synapses, neurotransmitter is removed from the synaptic cleft by
reuptake into the presynaptic neuron.
b. In some synapses, neurotransmitter in the synaptic cleft is destroyed by
enzymes located on the post synaptic membrane.
c. Removal of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft is necessary to
terminate the synaptic signal.
d. None of the above.

Back 23

d. None of the above.

Front 24

73. Where in the membrane of a nerve cell would you expect to find the highest
concentration of voltage-gated Na+ channels?
a. the cell body
b. the dendrites
c. the axon hillock
d. post synaptic membrane patches

Back 24

c. the axon hillock

Front 25

74. Which of the following would conduct an action potential with the SLOWEST
velocity?
a. a small diameter unmyelinated axon
b. a small diameter myelinated axon
c. a large diameter unmyelinated axon
d. a large diameter myelinated axon

Back 25

a. a small diameter unmyelinated axon

Front 26

75. Which word describes the propagation of the action potential down a
myelinated axon?
a. continuous
b. treppe
c. saltatory
d. migratory

Back 26

c. saltatory

Front 27

80. The repolarization phase of a nerve action potential is caused by:
a. an influx of Na+ into the cell
b. an efflux of K+ from the cell
c. the Na+/K+ pump (Na+/K+ ATPase)
d. active transport of Na+ out of the cell

Back 27

b. an efflux of K+ from the cell

Front 28

81. The depolarization phase of a nerve action potential is caused by:
a. an influx of Na+ into the cell
b. an efflux of K+ from the cell
c. the Na+/K+ pump
d. active transport of Na+ out of the cell

Back 28

a. an influx of Na+ into the cell

Front 29

82. Following the after-hyperpolarization of a nerve action potential, the membrane
potential returns to its resting value. This is caused by
a. an influx of Na+ into the cell
b. an efflux of K+ from the cell
c. an influx of Cl- into the cell
d. the Na+/K+ pump (Na+/K+ ATPase)

Back 29

d. the Na+/K+ pump (Na+/K+ ATPase)

Front 30

83. During the relative refractory period:
a. the nerve cell cannot be stimulated to fire another action potential no
matter what the strength of the excitatory stimulus.
b. the nerve cell can be stimulated to fire another action potential but requires
an above normal excitatory stimulus.
c. the membrane is depolarized above threshold.
d. the voltage-gated Na+ channels are all open.

Back 30

b. the nerve cell can be stimulated to fire another action potential but requires
an above normal excitatory stimulus.

Front 31

84. Which of the following statements regarding graded potentials is false?
a. EPSPs and IPSPs are graded potentials.
b. A graded membrane potential decreases as it spreads across the cell.
c. Graded membrane potentials can add spatially and temporally.
d. Graded membrane potentials are generated in the axon of neurons by
voltage-gated ion channels.

Back 31

d. Graded membrane potentials are generated in the axon of neurons by
voltage-gated ion channels.

Front 32

85. The threshold of a neuron is the
a. total amount of neurotransmitter it takes to cause an action potential.
b. membrane voltage that triggers activation of voltage-gated channels.
c. time between binding of the neurotransmitter and firing of an action
potential.
d. voltage across the resting cell membrane.

Back 32

b. membrane voltage that triggers activation of voltage-gated channels.

Front 33

86. If the permeability of the plasma membrane to K+ ions increases, the result is
a. depolarization of the plasma membrane
b. hyperpolarization of the plasma membrane
c. little, if any, change in the membrane potential

Back 33

b. hyperpolarization of the plasma membrane

Front 34

87. The depolarization phase of the action potential begins when
a. Na+ ions move into the cell.
b. K+ ions move into the cell.
c. Na+ ions move out of the cell.
d. K+ ions move out of the cell.

Back 34

a. Na+ ions move into the cell.

Front 35

88. The repolarization phase of the action potential occurs because
a. voltage-gated Na+ ion channels open.
b. voltage-gated K+ ion channels open.
c. voltage-gated Na+ ion channels close.
d. voltage-gated K+ ion channels close.

Back 35

b. voltage-gated K+ ion channels open.

Front 36

89. The neurotransmitter used by somatic motor neurons to excite skeletal muscle
is __________.
a. glutamate
b. GABA
c. acetylcholine
d. norepinephrine

Back 36

c. acetylcholine

Front 37

90. The major excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain is __________.
a. serotonin
b. dopamine
c. norepinephrine
d. glutamate

Back 37

d. glutamate

Front 38

1. In figure #1, the angle of the mandible is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. P
d. Q

Back 38

d. Q

Front 39

2. In figure #1, the ramus of the mandible is marked:
a. N
b. P
c. R
d. S

Back 39

c. R

Front 40

3. In figure #1, the body of the mandible is marked:
a. M
b. P
c. R
d. S

Back 40

b. P

Front 41

4. In figure #1, a coronoid process of the mandible is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. R
d. S

Back 41

b. N

Front 42

5. In figure #1, a condylar process of the mandible is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. O
d. S

Back 42

d. S

Front 43

6. In figure #1, the alveolar process of the mandible is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. O
d. S

Back 43

c. O

Front 44

7. In figure #1, a mandibular notch of the mandible is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. Q
d. S

Back 44

a. M

Front 45

8. The synovial joint shown in figure #2, is the ___________ joint.
a. temporomandibular
b. atlanto-axial
c. talocrural
d. sacroiliac

Back 45

a. temporomandibular

Front 46

9. The feature marked O in figure #2 is the ___________.
a. external auditory meatus
b. mastoid process
c. zygomatic arch
d. mentalis

Back 46

a. external auditory meatus

Front 47

10. The bone marked M in figure #2 is the ___________.
a. temporal bone
b. zygomatic bone
c. maxilla
d. mandible

Back 47

d. mandible

Front 48

11. The ligament marked N in figure #2 is
a. is an accessory ligament of the pictured synovial joint.
b. is the stylomandibular ligament.
c. extends inferiorly and anteriorly from the styloid process of the temporal
bone to the posterior border of the ramus of the mandible.
d. All of the above.

Back 48

d. All of the above.

Front 49

12. In figure #3, the fibula is marked
a. R
b. U
c. Y
d. X

Back 49

a. R

Front 50

13. In figure #3, the lateral collateral ligament is marked
a. T
b. V
c. W
d. Z

Back 50

a. T

Front 51

14. In figure #3, the medial meniscus is marked
a. S
b. W
c. V
d. X

Back 51

d. X

Front 52

15. In figure #3, the anterior cruciate ligament is marked
a. T
b. V
c. W
d. Z

Back 52

c. W

Front 53

16. Figure #3 shows the ___________ knee.
a. left
b. right

Back 53

b. right

Front 54

17. In figure #4, the anterior longitudinal ligament is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. O
d. Q

Back 54

d. Q

Front 55

18. In figure #4, the posterior longitudinal ligament is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. P
d. Q

Back 55

b. N

Front 56

19. In figure #4, a ligamentum flavum is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. O
d. P

Back 56

a. M

Front 57

20. In figure #4, the supraspinous ligament is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. P
d. Q

Back 57

c. P

Front 58

21. In figure #4, an interspinous ligament is marked:
a. M
b. N
c. O
d. P

Back 58

c. O

Front 59

22. What type of vertebrae are shown in figure #4?
a. cervical
b. thoracic
c. lumbar
d. sacral

Back 59

c. lumbar

Front 60

23. In figure #6, the bone labeled M is the
a. frontal bone
b. maxilla
c. zygomatic bone
d. sphenoid bone

Back 60

b. maxilla

Front 61

24. In figure #6, the bone labeled N is the
a. frontal bone
b. maxilla
c. zygomatic bone
d. sphenoid bone

Back 61

c. zygomatic bone

Front 62

25. In figure #6, the bone labeled O is the
a. frontal bone
b. parietal bone
c. temporal bone
d. sphenoid bone

Back 62

c. temporal bone

Front 63

26. In figure #6, the bone labeled P is the
a. temporal bone
b. occipital bone
c. parietal bone
d. sphenoid bone

Back 63

b. occipital bone

Front 64

27. In figure #6, the bone labeled Q is the
a. temporal bone
b. occipital bone
c. parietal bone
d. frontal bone

Back 64

c. parietal bone

Front 65

28. In figure #6, the bone labeled R is the
a. temporal bone
b. occipital bone
c. frontal bone
d. parietal bone

Back 65

c. frontal bone

Front 66

29. In figure #7, the ribs labeled R are collectively referred to as
a. the true ribs
b. the vertebrosternal ribs
c. the false ribs
d. Both A and B are correct.

Back 66

d. Both A and B are correct.

Front 67

30. In figure #7, the ribs labeled S are collectively referred to as
a. the true ribs
b. the false ribs
c. the vertebrochondral ribs
d. the floating ribs

Back 67

b. the false ribs

Front 68

31. In figure #7, the _____________ of the sternum is labeled T.
a. xiphoid process
b. body
c. base
d. manubrium

Back 68

d. manubrium

Front 69

32. In figure #7, the _____________ of the sternum is labeled U.
a. xiphoid process
b. body
c. base
d. manubrium

Back 69

b. body

Front 70

33. In figure #7, the vertebra labeled V is
a. T12
b. L1
c. L2
d. C1

Back 70

b. L1

Front 71

35. Which two rotator cuff muscles are clearly visible in figure #8?
a. subscapularis and teres minor
b. subscapularis and supraspinatus
c. infraspinatus and teres minor
d. supraspinatus and infraspinatus

Back 71

b. subscapularis and supraspinatus

Front 72

36. Which rotator cuff muscle in figure #9 is marked M?
a. teres minor
b. subscapularis
c. infraspinatus
d. supraspinatus

Back 72

a. teres minor

Front 73

37. Which rotator cuff muscle in figure #9 is marked N?
a. teres minor
b. subscapularis
c. infraspinatus
d. supraspinatus

Back 73

c. infraspinatus

Front 74

38. Which rotator cuff muscle in figure #9 is marked O?
a. teres minor
b. subscapularis
c. infraspinatus
d. supraspinatus

Back 74

d. supraspinatus

Front 75

52. Which point on the graph shown in figure #10 represents a membrane
depolarization?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Back 75

c. R

Front 76

53. Which point on the graph shown in figure #10 represents a membrane
hyperpolarization?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Back 76

b. Q

Front 77

54. Which point on the graph shown in figure #10 represents an action potential?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Back 77

d. S

Front 78

55. Which point on the graph shown in figure #10 represents the resting
membrane potential?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Back 78

a. P

Front 79

56. In figure #11, the presynaptic cell is marked
a. M
b. N

Back 79

a. M

Front 80

57. In figure #12, a Schwann cell is labeled:
a. O
b. P
c. Q
d. R

Back 80

c. Q

Front 81

58. In figure #12, a node of Ranvier is labeled:
a. M
b. P
c. Q
d. R

Back 81

b. P

Front 82

59. In figure #12, the axon hillock is labeled:
a. N
b. O
c. Q
d. R

Back 82

b. O

Front 83

60. In figure #12, the soma is labeled:
a. N
b. O
c. Q
d. R

Back 83

a. N

Front 84

61. In figure #12, a dendrite is labeled:
a. M
b. P
c. Q
d. R

Back 84

a. M

Front 85

62. In figure #12, the trigger zone is labeled:
a. M
b. N
c. O
d. R

Back 85

c. O

Front 86

63. In figure #12, a synaptic terminal (or synaptic button) is labeled:
a. M
b. N
c. Q
d. R

Back 86

d. R

Front 87

76. Which of the lines corresponds to the threshold depolarization?
a. T
b. U
c. V
d. W

Back 87

c. V

Front 88

77. Which point on the graph is within the relative refractory period?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Back 88

d. S

Front 89

78. At which point on the graph do voltage-gated Na+ channels close?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Back 89

b. Q

Front 90

79. The repolarization phase of the action potential is marked by which point?
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

Back 90

c. R