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642 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

groups of cells similar in structure that perform common or related function

tissues

study of tissues

histology

which tissue covers

epithelial

which tissue supports

connective

which tissue produces movement

muscle

which tissue controls

nerve

examples of nervous tissue

brain


spinal cord


nerves

________ muscle is attached to bones

skeletal

_________ muscles = heart

cardiac

__________ muscles are those on the walls on hollow organs

smooth

which tissue lines the digestive tract organs

epithelial

examples of connective tissue

bones


tendons


fat

what does staining do in terms of microscopy

enhances contrast

two main types of epithelial tissue by location

covering and lining


grandular

where is glandular epithelia located

secretory tissue in glands

functions of epithelial tissues

protection


absorption


filtration


excreting


secretion


sensory reception

5 characteristics of epithelial tissues

polarity


specialized contacts


supported by connective tissues


avascular


can regenerate

types of polarity in epithelial cells

apical surface


basal surface

upper, free tissue that is exposed to exterior or cavity

apical surface

lower, attached tissue (polarity)

basal surface

most _______ surfaces of epithelial tissue has microvilli

apical

apical tissue that has microvilli

brush border of intestinal lining

which apical tissue has cilia

lining of trachea

_______ - glycoprotein and collagen fibers that lie adjacent to basal surface

basal lamina

the ___________ has adhesive sheets and selective filters

basal lamina

________ produces scaffolding for cell migration in wound repair

basal lamina

what are the lateral contacts

tight junctions


desmosomes

_________ are specialized contacts that bind adjacent cells

lateral contacts

________ is deep to basal lamina, network of collagen fibers

reticular lamina

basal lamina + reticular lamina = ________

basement membrane

the __________ reinforces the epithelial sheet, and resists stretching and tearing

basement membrane

the _______ defines the epithelial boudary

basement membrane

there are no blood vessels in ________ tissue

epithelial

how is epithelial tissue nourished

by diffusion from underlying connective tissues

_______ tissue is supplied by nerve fibers

epithelial

regeneration of epithelial tissue is stimulated by __________ and ______

loss of apical-basal polarity


lateral contacts

how are epithelial cells damaged

exposed to friction


exposed to hostile substances

with adequate nutrients, epithelial cells can replace lost cells by _____

cell division

_______ epithelia = single layer of cells

simple

______ epithelia = two or more layers of cells

stratified

names to indicate cell shape in epithelium

squamous


cuboidal


columnar

epithelia is classified by cell shape in ______ layer

apical

________ cells are flattened and scale like, nucleus is flattened

squamous

______ cells are boxlike and have round nuclei

cuboidal

_______ cells are tall and column shaped, nucleus is elongated

colmnar

characteristics of simple epithelia

absorption


secretion


filtration


very thin

ex. of simple squamous epithelium

kidney , lungs

_________ epithelium function where rapid diffusion is priority

simple squamous

fxn of simple squamous

allows material to pass via diffusion


secretes lubricating substances

two special types of simple squamous

endothelium


mesothelium

endothelium is the lining of:

lymphatic vessels, blood vessels, and heart

the mesothelium is the epithelium of _________ int he ventral body cavity

serous membranes

single layer of cells used for secretion and absorption (epithelium)

simple cuboidal

_________ epithelia forms walls of smallest ducts of glands and many kidney tubules

simple cuboidal

single layers of tall closely packed cells used in absorption and secretion

simple columnar

location of simple columnar

digestive tract, galbladder, excretory ducts

epithelium that cells vary in height

pseudostratified columnar

function of pseudostratified

secrete substances such as mucus

location of pseudostratified

sperm


trachea

tissue that regenerates from below and has a major role of protection

stratified epithelial

cells that are farthest away from the ___________ are less viable due to nutrient deficiencies

basal layer

location of stratified squamous

lining esophagus, mouth, and vagina

location of stratified cuboidal epithelium

sweat and mammary glands

location of stratified columnar

pharynx, male urethra

_______ epithelium forms the lining of hollow urinary organs

transitional

______ epithelium has the ability to change shape with stretch

transitional

location of transitional epithelium

urinary bladder

_______: one or more cells that makes and secretes an aqueous fluid called a secretion

gland

glands are classified by:

- site of product release


-relative number of cells forming the gland

types of product release

endocrine


exocrine

______ glands - secretions not released into a duct

ductless

_______ glands secrete hormones by exocytosis that travel through lymph or blood to their specific target organs

ductless

_______ glands: secretions are released onto body surfaces or into body cavities

exocrine

exocrine glands secrete products into _____

ducts

examples of exocrine secretions

mucous, sweat, oil, and salivary glands

the important unicellular glands are _______ and ______ cells

mucous and goblet

the exocrine glands are found in:

epithelial lining of intestinal and respiratory tracts

exocrine glands produce ______

mucin

mucin dissolves water to form ______

mucus

slimy, protective, lubricating coating

mucus

multicellular exocrine glands are composed of a ______ and _________

duct


secretory unit

multicellular exocrine glands are usually surrounded by supportive ______

connective tissue

connective tissue supplies ______ and ______ to the glands

blood and nerve fibers

simple glands contain _____ ducts

unbranched

compound glands contain ______ ducts

branched

_________ - secrete product by exocytosis as produced

merocrine

_________ - accumulate products then rupture

holocrine

________ - accumulates products within but only apex ruptures

apocrine

ex of simple tubular structure

intestinal glands

example of simple branched tubular

stomach glands

example of compound tubular

deodenal glands

ex. of simple branched alveolar

sebaceous glands

ex. of compound alveolar

mammary glands

ex. of compound tubuloalveolar

salivary glands

four main classes of connective tissue

connective tissue proper


cartilage


bone


blood

subclasses of connective tissue prober

loose connective tissue


dense connective tissue

types of loose connective tissue

areolar


adipose


reticular

types of dense connective tissue

regular


irregular


elastic

types of cells found in connective tissue proper

fibroblasts


fibrocytes


defense cells


adipocytes

matrix of connective tissue

gel-like ground substance


types of fibers found in connective tissue proper

collager, reticular, elastic

______ functions in binding tissue and results in mechanical stress such as tension

connective tissue proper

types of cartilage

hyaline


elastic


fibrocartilage

types of cells found in cartilage

chondrocytes


chondroblasts

types of matrix in cartilage

gel like ground substance

types of fibers found in cartilage

collagen


elastic


_______ fxns to cushion and support body structures

cartilage

cartilage resists compression b/c:

large amounts of water held in the matrix

types of bone tissue

compact bone


spongy bone

types of cells in bone tissue

osteoblasts


osteocytes

type of matrix found in bone tissue

gel-like ground substance with calcified inorganic salts

types of fibers found in bone tissue

collagen

______ = hard tissue that resists both compression and tension

bone tissue

types of cells in blood tissue

erythrocytes (RBCs)


leukocytes (WBCs)


platelets

type of matrix in blood tissue

plasma

what type of fiber is found in blood tissue

none

______ = a fluid tissue

blood

________ tissue functions to carry oxygen and carbon dioxide

blood

functions of connective tissue

binding and support


protecting


insulating


storing reserve fuel


transporting substances (blood)

3 characteristics that make connective tissue different from other primary tissues

-have mesenchyme


-have varying degrees of vascularity


- have extracellular matrix

_________ = embryonic tissue in connective tissue

mesenchyme

three structural elements of connective tissue

ground substance


fibers


cells

________ = unstructured material that fills space between cells

ground substance

ground substance = medium through which solutes diffuse between _______ and ______

blood capillaries


cells

components of the ground substance

-interstitial fluid


-cell adhesion proteins


-proteoglycans

_________ are known as "glue" for attachment in the ground substance

cell adhesion proteins

__________: trap water in varying amounts and affect viscosity of the ground substance

proteoglycans

_______ strongest most abundant type of fiber that provides high tensile strength

collagen

_________: networks of long, thin elastin fibers that allow for stretch and recoil

elastic fibers

_______: short, fine highly branched collagenous fibers

reticular

_______ blasts cells = mitotically active and secrete ground substance and fibers

immature

examples of immature blasts cells

fibroblasts


chondroblasts


osteoblasts


hematopoietic stem cell


_______ blasts cells maintain matrix

mature

types of mature blasts cells

chondrocytes


osteocytes

________ cells store nutrients

fat

types of white blood cells

neutrophils


eosinophils


lymphocytes

______ cells: initiate local inflammatory response against foreign microorganisms they detect

mast cells

________ = phagocytic cells that eat dead cells and microorganisms

macrophages

when areolar connective tissue is inflamed it soaks up fluid, this process is called _______

edema

function of areolar connective

wraps and cushions organs


macrophages phagocytize bacteria


important role in inflammation


holds and conveys tissue fluid

cell of white fat

adipocyte

_______ tissue is similar to areolar but has greater nutrient storage

adipose

fxns of adipose tissue

shock absorption


insulation


energy storage

fxn of brown fat

use lipid fuels to heat bloodstream

location of adipose tissue

under skin


around kidneys


eyeballs


abdomen


breasts

reticular connective tissue has fibroblasts called _______ cells

reticular

fxn of reticular conn. tissue

supports free blood cells in lymph nodes, spleen and bone marrow

fxn of reticular connective

forms soft internal skeleton that supports white blood cells, macrophages, and mast cells

location of reticular tissue

lymph nodes


bone marrow


spleen

____________ tissue: great resistance to pulling, slightly wavy to stretch slightly; poorly vascularized

dense regular conn

dense reg conn fxn

attach muscles to bones/muscles


great tensile strength


location of dense reg conn

tendons, ligaments

dense irregular conn resists tension from:

dermis


fibrous joint capsules


fibrous coverings of some organs

dense irregular conn function

withstand tension


structural strength

dense irregular conn location

dermis


digestive tract


joints

location of elastic conn tissue

large arteries

elastic conn fxn

tissue recoil after stretching


blood flow through arteries


recoil of lungs after inspiration

location of elastic conn

walls of large arteries

cartilage is __________; has to receive nutrients from its membrane surrounding it

avascular

membrane that surrounds cartilage and provides nutrients

perichondrium

_________; lacks nerve fibers and is 80% water

cartilage

location of hyaline cartilage

ends of long bones, ribs, nose, trachea, and larynx

location of elastic cartilage

external ear


epiglottis

________ maintains the shape of the structure while allowing great flexibility

elastic cartilage

_______: tensile strength allows it to absorb compressive shock

fibrocartilage

location of fibrocartilage

intervertebral discs


discs in knee

bone is also called ________ tissue

osseous

________ synthesizes blood cells in cavities

bone

bone contains more ________ than cartilage

collagen

_________ produce the matrix in bone

osteoblasts

_________ maintain the matrix in bone

osteocytes

________ = structural units of bone

osteons

_________ is richly vascularized (conn tissue)

bone

fxn of bone tissue

provides levers for the muscles to act on


stores calcium and minerals


blood cell formation

_______ = blood cell formation

hematopoiesis

_______ tissue is highly vascularized and responsible for most types of movement

muscle

types of muscle tissue

skeletal


cardiac


smooth

describe cardiac muscle

branching


striated


intercalated discs

fxn of smooth muscle

propels objects along internal passageways


involuntary control

location of nervous tissue

brain


spinal cord


nerves

______ = specialized nerve cells that generate and conduct nerve impulses

neurons

________ = supporting cells that support, insulate, and protect neurons

neuroglia

three types of lining membranes

cutaneous


mucous


serous

ex. of cutaneous membrane

skin

epidermis is made up of _________ and is attached to the dermis which is made up of ______

keratinized stratified squamous epithelium


dense irregular connective tissue

______ membranes are dry

cutaneous

the _______ membrane covers the body surface

cutaneous

______ lines body cavities that are open to the exterior

mucosa

______ membranes are moist and bathed by secretions

mucous

epithelial sheet that lies over a layer of connective tissue is called _____

lamina propria

______ membranes are found in closed, ventral body cavity

serousa

serous membranes rest on _______ tissue

areolar connective

_______ serosae line internal body cavity walls

parietal

______ serosae cover internal organs

visceral

_______ fluid is found inbetween layers of serous membranes

serous fluid

types of serous membranes

plurae


pericardium


peritoneum

_______ membranes line body cavities that are closed to the exterior

serous

two ways of tissue repair

regeneration


fibrosis

in _______: the same kind of tissue replaces destroyed tissue; original fxn restored

regeneration

in ________: connective tissue replaces destroyed tissue; original fxn lost

fibrosis

what happens during inflammation

release of inflammatory chemicals


dilation of blood vessels


increase in vessel permeability


clotting occurs

step 1 of tissue repair

inflammation

steps of blood clotting

severed blood vessles bleed


inflammatory chemicals released


WBCs, fluid, clotting proteins come to injurd area


clotting occurs and forms scab

step 2 of tissue repair

organization restores blood supply

steps of restoration of blood supply

blood clot replaced with granulation tissue


epithelium beings to regenerate


fibroblasts produce collagen fibers to bridge the gap


debris is phagocytized

step 3 in tissue repair

regeneration and fibrosis

steps of regeneration and fibrosis

scab detaches


fibrous tissue matures;epithelium thickens


results in regenerated epithelium with underlying scar tissue

which tissues regenerate well

epithelial


bone


areolar connective


dense irregular conn


blood-forming tissue

which tissues have moderate regenerating capacity

smooth muscle


dense regular conn

which tissues have no regenerative capacity

cardiac muscle


nervous tissue of brain and spinal cord

name the primary germ layers

ectoderm


mesoderm


endoderm

which tissues arise from the ectoderm

nerve tissue

which tissues arise from the mesoderm

muscle and connective

which tissues are from all three germ layers

epithelial

when tissue repair is less efficient during aging, tissues being a process called _____

atrophy

atrophy can cause _________ which increase cancer risk

DNA mutations

______ cells are response to injury

white blood cells

two distinct regions of the skin

epidermis


dermis

_______ = subcutaneous layer under skin

hypodermis

the hypodermis anchors skin to ______

muscles

name the 5 distinct layers of the epidermis

stratum basale


spinosum


granulosum


lucidum


corneum

what layer of the epidermis is only present in thick skin

lucidum

what are the four cell types of the epidermis

keratinocytes


melanocytes


dendritic cells


tactile cells

dendritic or ______ cells

langerhans


tactile or ______ cells

merkel

superficial layer made up of dead cells

stratum corneum

s. corneum has flat membranous sacs filled will ________, and has _______ in the extracellular space

keratin


glycolipids

epidermis layer that is typically 5 layers of flattened cells

s. granulosum

stratum granulosum has a cytoplasm full of ______ and ______ granules

lamellar


keratohyaline

_______ granules release lipids

lamellar

s. spinosum has several layers of keratinocytes unified by ______

desmosomes

stratum spinosum cells contain thick bundels of ________ made up of pre-keratin

intermediate filaments

epithelial layer that contains actively mitotic stem cells

s. basale

keratinocytes produce __________

keratin

keratinocytes are tightly connected by _______

desmosomes

melanocytes produce the pigment ______

melanin

melanin is packaged into _____

melanosomes

_______ make up most cells of the epidermis

keratinocytes

_______ protects the apical surface of keratinocyte nucleus from UV damage

melanin

_______ cells arise from the bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis

dendritic

_________ cells in the epidermis ingest foreign substances and are key activators of our immune system

dendritic

__________ cells function as a sensory receptor for touch

tactile/merkel

S. basale or S. ________

germinativum

cell layer that is a single row of stem cells

basale

in S. basale, a stem cell produces two daughter cells following mitosis. Explain what happens to each

1. journeys from basal to surface


2. remains in the s. basale as a stem cell

how long does it take for a cell to move from s. basale to suraface

25-45 days

melanocytes compose ______% of s. basale

10-25%

how many cell layers in s. granulosum

4-6

in s. ________, keratinization begins

granulosum

cells accumulate lamellar granules b/c

their water resistant glycolipid slows water loss

cells accumulate ________ to help form keratin in upper layers

keratohyaline granules

why do cells above the s. granulosum die

too far from dermal capillaries

cell layer that is 20-30 rows of dead, flat, anucleate keratinized membranous sacs

s. corneum

functions of dead cells in the epidermis

-protect deeper cells from environment and water loss


-protect from abrasion and penetration


-barrier against biological and physical assaults

cell layer that makes up 3/4 of epidermis

s. corneum

cells change from s. basale to s. coreum by a process of ________

apoptosis

________ = controlled cellular suicide

apoptosis

we shed ~_________ cells every minute

50,000

cells in the dermis

fibroblasts


macrophages


mast cells


white blood cells


which part of the skin contains nerve fibers and blood/lymphatic vessels

dermis

_______ contains hair follicles, and oil/sweat glands

dermis

two layers of dermis

papillary


reticular


papillary layer is made up of:

areolar connective tissue


collagen/elastic fibers


blood vessels

why is the papillary layer loose tissue

phagocytes can patrol for microorganisms

_________ are superficial peglike projections in the dermis

dermal papillae

what do dermal papillae contain

capillary loops


meissners corpuscles (touch receptors)


free nerve endings (pain receptors)

_____________ are responsible as touch receptors in the skin

meissners corpuscles

in thick skin, dermal papillae can lie atop ________ that enhance gripping ability

friction ridges

friction ridges contribute to sense of _____

touch

layer of the dermis that makes up 80% of it

reticular

reticular layer of dermis is made up of what type of tissue

dense fibrous connective tissue

most collagen fibers produce ________ that are important to surgeons

cleavage lines

incisions that are parallel to __________, gap less and heal more quickly

cleavage lines

_________, provide strength and bind water in the dermis

collagen fibers

_________ are dermal folds at or near joints

flexure lines

flexure lines are visible on:

hands


wrists


fingers


soles


toes

flexure lines is where the dermis is tightly secured to _________

deeper structures

why do flexure lines create deep creases

skin cannot slide easily for joint movement

_______ are silvery-white scars

striae

striae are known as ________

stretch marks

_______ are caused by extreme stretching resulting in dermal tears

striae

________ form from acute, short-term trauma in the skin

blister

________ are fluid filled pockets that separates epidermal and dermal layers

blisters

three pigments that contribute to skin color

melanin


carotene


hemoglobin

only pigment made in the skin

melanin

_________ migrates to keratinocytes to form "pigment shields" for nuclei

melanin

freckels and moles are local accumulations of _____

melanin

___________ stimulates melanin prouction

sun exposure

sun spots are a ________, not related to melanin

fungal infection

yellow to orange pigment that is most obvious in palms and soles

carotene

carotene accumulates in the ____ and ___

s. corneum


hypodermis

carotene can be converted to _______ for vision and epidermal health

vitamin A

________ causes a pinkish hue in fair skin individuals

hemoglobin

________ = blue skin color

cyanosis

_______ is due to low oxygenation of hemoglobin

cyanosis

______ causes redness of the skin

erythema

erythema is due to:

fever


hypertension


inflammation


allergy

_______ is known as blanching

pallor (pale)

pallor is caused by:

anemia


low blood pressure


fear


anger

_______ is a yellow coloring of the skin

jaundice

jaundice is caused by a ______

liver disorder

bronzing in skin is caused by:

inadequate steroid hormones in addisons disease

bruises are due to:

clotted blood beneath the skin

derivatives of the epidermis

hair/hair follicles


nails


sweat/oil glands

_______ = dead keratinized cells of hard keratin

hair

hair is not located in:

palms


soles


lips


nipples


portions of external genitalia

functions of hair

warns of insects on skin


physical trauma


heat loss


sunlight

_________ is the hair pigment in red hair

trichosiderin

grey/white hair is caused by"

decreased melanin production


increased air bubbles in shaft

parts of the hair follicle

hair bulb


arrector pili


hair papilla

parts of the hair bulb

hair follicle receptor


sensory nerve endings


hair matrix

______ = smooth muscle attached to follicle that is responsible for goosebumps

arrector pili

_________ is the dermal tissue used for blood supply in hair follicles

hair papilla

_______ hair = pale, fine body hair of children and adult females

vellus

_________ hair = coarse, long hair of eyebrows and scalp

terminal

we lose _____ scalp hairs daily

90

______ and _____ affect hair growth

nutrition and hormones

hair follicles cycle between ____ and _____ phases

active


regressive

_______ = hair thinning after age 40

alopecia

baldness is determined by:

genetics


sex - influenced

male pattern baldness is called by follicular response to _____

DHT (dihydrotestosterone)

minoxidil and finasteride are treatments for ______

baldness

sweat glands or _______

sudoriferous

we have approx _______ sudoriferous glands

3 million

two types of sweat glands

eccrine


apocrine

sweat glands contain _______ cells that contract upon nervous system to force sweat into ducts

myoepithelial

_______ sweat glands are abundance on palms, soles, and forehead

eccrine

_______ ducts connect to pores

eccrine sweat glands

eccrine sweat glands function in _____

thermoregulation

eccrine sweat glands are regulated by ______ system

sympathetic nervous

sweat is composed of:

99% water


salts


vit C


antibodies


metabolic wastes

apocrine sweat glands are confined to _____ and _____ areas

axillary


anogenital

apocrine sweat is made up of ______ + _____ + ______

sweat, fatty substances, proteins

_______ sweat is milky or yellowish

apocrine

________ sweat glands ducts empty into hair follicles

apocrine

________ sweat glands begin functioning at puberty

apocrine

types of modified apocrine sweat glands

ceruminous


mammary

________ glands are the lining of the external ear canal and secrete ______

cerumen

cerumen = ____

ear wax

mammary glands secrete ____

milk

______ glands secrete into hair follicles and are inactive until puberty

sebaceous glands

sebaceous glands secrete ______

sebum

oil glands are stimulated by ______ especially ____

hormones


androgens

______ is a oily holocrine secretion

sebum

fxn of sebum

bactericidal


softens hair and skin

three types of protection barriers

chemical


physical


biological

what are the chemical barriers

skin secretions


melanin

how are skin secretions chemical barriers

slows bacterial multiplication


sebum and defensins kill bacteria

what are the physical barriers of the skin

flat, dead cells of the s corneum


keratin and glycolipids

what are the biological barriers

dendritic cells of epidermis


macrophages of dermis


DNA

______ and ______ present foreign antigens to WBCs

dendritic cells


macrophages

_________ electrons absorb UV radiation and converts it to heat

DNA

if body temp is normal, the routine is known as _________

insensible perspiration

if body temp rises, body routine switches to ______

sensible perspiration

what happens in sensible perspiration

dilation of dermal vessels


increased sweat gland activity

what happens in cold external environment

dermal blood vessels constrict


skin temp drops to slow passive heat loss

____________ sensory receptors detect temperature, touch, and pain

cutaneous

metabolic fxns of integumentary system

synthesis of vitamin D and collagenase


chemical conversions of carcinogens


activate hormones

skin holds up to _____% of bodys blood volume

5

integumentary system in excretion

nitrogenous wastes and salts in sweat

most skin tumors are ________ and do not _______

benign


metastasize

risk factors of skin cancer

overexposure to UV radiation


frequent irritation of skin

three major types of skin cancer

basal cell carcinoma


squamous cell carcinoma


melanoma

most common, least malignant skin cancer

basal cell carcinoma

squamous cell carcinoma involves _______ of s. spinosum

keratinocytes

squamous cell carcinoma are usually scaly, reddened papules on:

scalp, ears, lower lip and hands

________ = cancer of melanocytes

melanoma

_______ = most dangerous skin cancer and usually metastatic

melanoma

ABCD rule of detection of melanoma

Asymmetry


Border irregularity


Color


Diameter

what do burns do in the skin

denature proteins


kills cells

immediate threat of burns

dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

what does dehydration and electrolyte imbalance lead to

renal shutdown and circulatory shock

how are burns evaluated

rule of nines


________ estimate volume of fluid loss following a burn

rule of nines

partial thickness burns are which degree

first and second

______ degree burns are epidermal damage only

first

_______ degree burns are epidermal and upper dermal damage - blisters appear

second

full thickness burns are ______ degree

third

______ degree burns, the entire thickness of skin is involved

third

______ degree: skin grey-white, not painful or swollen

third degree

treatment of critical burns

debridement


antibiotics


temporary covering


skin grafts


________ = removal of burned skin

debridement

burns are critical if:

more than 25% of body has 2nd degree


more than 10% has third degree


face, hands, or feet bear third degree

ectoderm = _______

epidermis

mesoderm =

dermis + hypodermis

__________ = delicate hair in the 5th and 6th fetal month

lanugo coat

vernix caseosa protects _______

skin of fetus

vernix caseosa is a __________ secretion

sebaceous gland

aging skin becomes ___, ____, and ____

thin dry itchy

aging: subcutaneous fat and elasticity decrease leads to:

cold intolerance


wrinkes

aging skin: increased risk of cancer due to decreased numbers of ____ and ___

melanocytes


dendritic cells

to delay aging skin

UV protection


good nutrition


lots of fluids


good hygiene

_______ contains no blood vessels or nerves

cartilage

_______ surrounds skeletal cartilage - known as a dense connective tissue girdle

perichondrium

the perichondrium contains _____________ for nutrient delivery

blood vessels

all skeletal cartilages contain _______ and ________

chondrocytes


extracellular matrix

three types of skeletal cartilage

hyaline


elastic


fibrocartilage

______ cartilage contains ONLY collagen fibers

hyaline

_______ cartilage contains elastic fibers

elastic

_______ cartilage is seen in the external ear and epiglottis

elastic

_______ cartilage is seen in the respiratory tract and nasal cavity

hyaline

________ is made up of thick collagen fibers and has great tensile strength

fibrocartilage

_________ make up the menisci of the knee and vertebral discs

fibrocartilage

areas of hyaline cartilage

nose


ribs


elbow


wrist


hips


ankles


trachea

areas of elastic cartilage

ear and epiglottis

areas of fibrocartilage

pubic symphysis


menisci


intervertebral discs

________ growth = cells secrete matrix against external face of existing cartilage

appositional

_______ growth = chondrocytes divide and secrete new matrix, expanding cartilage from within

interstitial

_______ of cartilage occurs during normal bone growth, hardening of cartilage

calcification

ages that calcification of cartilage happens

youth


old age

_______ named bones in skeleton

206

the skeleton is divided into two groups ______ and _____

axial and appendicular

what makes up the axial skeleton

skull


vertebral column


rib cage

what makes up the appendicular skeleton

bones of upper and lower limbs

bones by shape (4)

long


short


flat


irregular

name the long bones

limb


wrist


ankle

________ bones are longer than they are wide

long

________ bones are cube shaped bones

short

cube shaped bones are found in the ______ and ______

wrist and ankle

________ bones are found within tendons

sesamoid

example of a sesamoid bone

patella

_______ bones vary in size and number in different individuals

short

flat bones are found in the:

sternum


scapulae


ribs


most skull bones

_______ bones are found in the vertebrae and coxal bones

irregular

seven important fxns of bones

support


protection


movement


mineral and growth factor storage


blood cell formation


triglyceride storage


hormone production

what minerals are made in the bone

calcium and phosphorus

________ = blood cell formation

hematopoiesis

blood cell formation happens in _________ cavities of certain bones

red marrow

hormone produced in bone

osteocalcin

osteocalcin protects against:

obesity


glucose intolerance


diabetes

bones are ________ that contain different types of tissues

organs

three levels of bone structure

gross anatomy


microscopic


chemical

name the bone textures

compact


spongy

compact bone characteristics

dense outer layer


smooth and solid

types of spongy bone

cancellous or trabecular

honeycomb of flat pieces of bone deep to compact bone are called _____

trabeculae

thin plates of spongy bone are covered by ___

compact bone

plates of spongy bone are sandwiched between two connective tissue membranes _____ and ____

periosteum and endosteum

bone marrow is seen throughout _____ bone

spongy

hyaline cartilage covers ______ surfaces

articular

structure of long bone contains _____ and ______

disphysis and epiphyses

_______ = a tubular shaft that forms long axis of long bones

diaphysis

diaphysis is a compact bone that surrounds the ______ cavity

medullary

epiphyses are seen at bone _____

ends

________ cartilage coveres epiphyses

articular

between epiphyses are _______ lines

epiphyseal

remnant of childhood bone growth is seen at the _______

epiphyseal plate

white, double-layered membrane that covers external surfaces

periosteum

periosteum makes up the outer ________ layer of dense irregular connective tissue

fibrous

________ fibers secure to bone matrix

sharpey's

_________ layer is adjacent bone

osteogenic

periosteum contains primitive cells called ______

osteogenic cells

_______ is used as an anchoring point for tendons and ligaments

periosteum

________ = delicate connective tissue membrane covering internal bone surface

endosteum

endosteum covers the ______ of spongy bone

trabeculae

________ lines canals that pass through compact bone

endosteum

________ is found within trabecular cavities of spongy bone

red marrow

red marrow is fond within the _______ of flat bones

diploe

_______ is found in the spongy bones of newborns

red marrow

long bones contain small amounts of marrow in the:

heads of femur and humerus

red marrow is most active in _____ and _____ bones

diploe and irregular

_______ marrow can convert to ____ marrow

yellow; red

bone markings can be seen in sites of ____, ______, and ______ attachment

muscle, ligament, and tendon

bone markings are conduits for _____ and ______

blood vessels and nerves

types of bone markings

projections


depressions


openings

________ = bone marking that indicates stresses caused by muscle pull or joint modifications

projections

_______ = large rounded projection that may be roughened

tuberosity

_______ = narrow ridge of bone, usually prominent

crest

______ = very large, blunt, irregularly shaped process

trochanter

ex. of a trochanter

femur

______ = narrow ridge of bone, less prominent than a crest

line

________ = small rounded projection or process

tubercle

_______ = raised area on or above a condyle

epicondyle

_______ = sharp, slender often pointed projection

spine

________ = any bone prominence

process

bone expansion carried on a narrow neck

head

smooth, nearly flat articular surface

facet

rounded articular projection

condyle

armlike bar of bone

ramus

________ = furrow

groove

________ = narrow, slitlike opening

fissure

______ = round or oval opening through a bone

foramen

_______ = indentation at the edge of a structure

notch

_______ = canal like passageway

meatus

______ = cavity within a bone filled with air and lined with mucous membrane

sinus

shallow, basinlike depression in a bone often serving as an articular surface

fossa

five major cell types of bone

osteogenic cells


osteoblasts


osteocytes


bone lining cells


osteroclasts

osteogenic cells are also called ________

osteoprogenitor cells

__________ = mitotically active stem cells in the periosteum and endosteum

osteogenic

when osteogenic cells are stimulated, they differentiate into ________ or _____

osteoblasts or bone lining cells

_______ are known as bone-forming cells

osteoblasts

osteoblasts secrete _______

osteoids

_______ = unmineralized bone matrix

osteoid

_______ makes up 90% of bone protein

collagen

osteoid includes collagen and ______

calcium-binding proteins

______ = mature bone cells in lacunae

osteocytes

_________ monitor and maintain bone matrix, and act as stress sensors

osteocytes

osteocytes respond to and communicate mechanial stimuli to ______ and _____ so bone remodeling can occur

osteoblasts


osteoclasts

_______ = cells that destroy bone

osteoclasts

______ = flat cells on bone surfaces believed to help maintain matrix

bone lining cells

bone lining cells on external bone is called ________

periosteal cells

bone lining cells on the internal surfaces are called _______

endosteal cells

-------- are derived from hematopoietic stem cells that become macrophages

osteoclasts

______ = giant, multinucleate cells for bone resorption

osteoclasts

when osteoclasts are active, they rest in ______ and have a ruffled border

resorption bay

ruffled border of osteoclasts fxns:

increases surface area for enzyme degradation of bone


seals off area from surrounding matrix

compact bone also called ______

lamellar bone

________ = structural unit of compact bone

osteon

hollow tubes of bone matrix =

lamellae

osteon is also known as _____

haversian system

________ = elongated cylinder parallel to long axis of bone

osteon

________ bone contains canals and canaliculi

compact

___________ runs through core of osteon

central canal

central canal also known as _______

haversian

perforating canal is also known as ______

volkmann

___________ = canals lined with endoseum at right angles to central canal

perforating canal

_______ connect blood vessels and nerves of periosteum, medulalry cavity, and central canal

perforating canals

________ = small cavities that contain osteocytes

lacunae

_______ = hairlike canals that connect lacunae to each other and central canal

canaliculi

_______ form when matrix hardens and cells are trapped

canaliculi

fxn of canaliculi

allows communication


permits nutrients and wastes to be relayed from one osteocyte to another throughout osteon

_________ lamellae = incomplete, not part of complete osteon

interstitial

fxn of interstitial lamellae

fill gaps between forming osteons


remnants of osteons cut by bone remodeling

__________ lamellae extend around surface of diaphyis, resist twisting of long bone

circumferential

characteristics of spongy bone

align along lines of stress to resist


no osteons


trabeculae


_______ = 1/3 of bone matrix secreted by osteoblasts

osteoid

resilience of bone is due to __________ in or between the collagen molecules

sacrificial bonds

_________ stretch and break easily on impact to dissipate energy and prevent fracture of bones

sacrifical bones

hydroxyapatites = _________ of bones

mineral salts

HYDROXYAPATITES = tiny __________ crystals in and around collagen fibers

calcium phosphate

chemical in bone responsible for hardness and resistance to compression

hydroxyapatites

bone can display _________ = lines in bones that are a proof of illness when bones stop growing so nutrients can prevent disease

growth arrest lines

_________ or osteogeneisis

ossification

_______ = process of bone tissue formation

ossification

________ = formation of bony skeleton

ossification

ossification begins in the _______ of development

2nd month

postnatal bone growth lasts until

early adulthood

two types of ossification

endochondral


intramembranous

_______ ossification = bone forms by replacing hyaline cartilage

endochondral

bones formed by endochondral ossification are called _______

cartilage bones

________ ossification = bone develops from fibrous membrane

intramembranous

bones formed by intramembranous ossification are called _______ bones

membrane

intramembranous ossification forms flat bones such as:

clavicles and cranial bones

endochrondral ossification beings at _________ in center of shaft

primary ossification center

explain endochondral ossification

bone collar forms around diaphysis of cartilage


central cartilage calcifies and develops cavities


periosteal bud invades those cavities


leads to formation of spongy bone


diaphysis elongates and medullary cavity forms


epiphyses ossify

intramembranous ossification location

frontal


parietal


occipital


temporal


clavicles

explain intramembranous ossification

fibrous connective tissue membranes formed by mesenchymal cells


ossification centers appear


osteoid is secreted


woven bone and periosteum form


lamellar bone replaces woven bone and red marrow appears

fibrous connective tissue membranes are formed by ______ cells

mesenchymal

______ growth = increase in length of long bones

interstitial

______ growth = increase in bone thickness

appositional

five zones caused by interstital growth

resting


proliferation


hypertrophic


calcification


ossification

interstitial growth requires presence of _______ cartilage

epiphyseal

what happens in resting zone

cartilage on epiphseal side of epiphyseal plate, inactive

what happens in proliferation zone

cartilage on diaphysis side of epiphyseal plate is rapidly dividing and pushing epihysis away from diaphysis = lengthening

what is the hypertrophic zone

older chondrocytes closer to diaphysis and their lacunae enlarge and erode creating interconnecting spaces

what happens in calcification zone

surrounding cartilage matrix calcifies, chondrocytes die and deteriorate

what happens in ossification zone

chondrocyte deterioration leaves long spicules of calficied cartilage that are erroded by osteoclases


then covered with new bone by osteoclasts


ultimately replaced with spongy bone

___________ = term for bone lengthening ceasing

epiphyseal plate closure

age for females/males of epiphyseal plate closure

females - 18


males 21

what fuses during epiphyseal plate closure

bone of epiphysis and diaphysis

explain appositional growth

osteoblasts beneath periosteum secrete bone matrix on external bone


osteoclasts remove bone on endosteal surfaec


*occurs throughout life

________ hormone = stimulates epiphyseal plate activity in infancy and childhood

growth

________ hormone - modulates activity of growth hormone, ensures proper proportions

thyroid

______ and _______ promote growth spurts and end growth by inducing epiphyseal plate closure

testosterone


estrogen

we recycle 5-7% of bone each _____

week

spongy bone is replaced every ___ years

3-4

compact bone is replaced every _____ years

10

older bones become more brittle due to:

calcium salts crystalizing

bone homeostasis consists of _______ and _____

bone remodeling and repair

bone remodeling consists of ___ and ____

bone deposit and resorption

bone remodeling occurs at both __ and ___

periosteum and endosteum

what are the remodeling units of bone

adjacent osteoblasts and osteoclasts

_______ are in charge of bone resorption

osteoclasts

function of osteoclasts

dig depreassions or grooves to break down matrix


secrete lysosomal enzymes that digest matrix and protons


acidity converts calcium salts to soluble forms

_________ phagocytize demineralized matrix and dead osteocytes

osteoclasts

_______ allows osteoclasts to release into interstitial fluid and then into blood

transcytosis

once resorption is complete, osteoclasts undergo _____

apoptosis

osteoclast activation involves ____ and _____ secreted proteins

PTH and T cell

bone remodeling is regulated by:

negative feedback hormonal loop for calcium homeostasis


responses to mechanical and gravitational forces

calcium fxns in:

nerve impulse transmission


muscle contraction


blood coagulation


secretion by glands and nerve cells


cell division

99% of calcium in the body is used as _______

bone minerals

intestinal absorption of calcium requires ______ metabolites

vitamin D

_________ hormone produced by the parathyroid glands that removes calcium from the bone

parathyroid

_________ hormone in the blood that lowers blood calcium levels temporarily

calcitonin

explain the Calcium feeback loop

blood calcium levels down, PTH release, stimulates osteoclasts to degrade bone matrix that releases calcium, blood calcium levels rise, PTH release ends

neuromuscular problems when calcium levels are too high/too low

too low - hyperexcitability


too high - nonresponsiveness

_________ = sustained high blood calcium levels

hypercalcemia

what happens during hypercalcemia

deposits of calcium salts in blood vessels, interfere with kidney function

_______ = hormone released by adipose tissue - role in bone density regulation

leptin

_______ inhibits osteoblasts in animals

leptin

_______ = neurotransmitter regulating mood and sleep

serotonin

serotonin is mostly made in the ______ and then secreted into ____ after eating

gut


blood

serotonin interferes with ____ activity

osteoblast

serotonin reuptake inhibitors cause:

lower bone density

ex. of serotonin reuptake inhibitor

prozac

__________ = bones grow or remodel in response to demands placed on it

Wolff's Law

______ controls determine whether and when remodling occurs to changing blood calcium levels

hormonal

_________ determines where remodeling occurs

mechanical stress

bone fractures are most seen in _____ and ____ (age)

youth - trauma


old age - weakness from bone thinning

fracture classifications depend on:

position of bone ends after fracture


completeness of break


whether skin is penetrated

position of bone ends after fracture is either ____ and _____

nondisplaced - normal position


displaced - out of normal alignment

completeness of break is either ____ or ____

complete - broken all the way through


incomplete - not broken all the way through

fracture in which the skin is penetrated or not is known as ____ or ___

open (compound) - skin is penetrated


closed (simple) - skin not penetrated

________ = bone fragments into three or more pieces

comminuted

________ fracture where bone is crushed

compression

______ = fracture where ragged break occurs when excessive twisting forces are applied to a bone

spiral

________ fracture = common sports fracture

spiral

_________ fracture = when epiphysis separates from the diaphysis along the epiphyseal plate

epiphyseal

_______ fracture = when broken bone is pressed inward

depressed

depressed fractures are common in which bone

depressed

_______ fracture = bone breaks incompletely - one side breaks, other side bends

greenstick

treatments of fracture repair

reduction


immobilization

_______ reduction = physician manipulates to correct position

closed

______ reduction = surgical pins or wires secure ends

open

________ = by cast or traction for healing

immobilization

stages of bone repair when a hematoma forms

torn blood vessels hemorrhage


clot forms


site = swollen, painful, and inflamed

explain fibrocartilagenous callus formation

capillaries grow into hematoma


phagocytic cells clear debris


fibroblasts sercrete collagen fibers to connect broken ends


fibroblasts, cartilage, and osteogenic cells begin reconstruction of bone

name the stages of bone repair

1. hematoma forms


2. fibrocartilaginous callus forms


3. bony callus forms


4. bone remodeling occurs

explain the stage of bone repair where bony callus forms

within 1 week, new trabeculae appear in fibrocartilaginous callus


callus converted to bony callus of spongy bone


~2 months later firm union forms

________ = condition where bones are poorly mineralized and calcium salts are not adequate

osteomalacia

_______ = osteomalacia of children

rickets

______ causes bowed legs and bone deformities

rickets

rickets is caused by ______ deficiency or insufficient dietary calcium

vitamin D

_________ = bone resorption outpaces deposit

osteoporosis

_____ and ____ is most susceptible to osteoporosis

spongy bone of spine and neck of femur

risk factors for osteoporosis

petite body form


insufficient exercise


diet poor in calcium or protein


smoking


hormone - hyperthyroidism, diabetes


immobility

traditional treatments for treating osteoporosis

calcium


vitamin D supplements


weight bearing exercises


hormone replacement therapy

_________ = decrease osteoclast activity

bisphosphonates

new drugs for osteoporosis treatment

bisphosphonates


selective estrogen receptor modulators


statins


denosumab

______ = mimic estrogen without targeting breast and uterus

selective estrogen receptor modulators

_______ = used for lowering cholesterol but also increase bone mineral density

statins

________ = monoclonal antibody that reduces fractures in men with prostate cancer

denosumab

prevent osteoporosis by:

plenty of calcium in early adulthood


reduce carbonated beverage and alcohol consumption


plenty of weight bearing exercise

__________ = disease where excessive and haphazard bone deposit and resorption happen

pagets

__________ causes very high ratio of spongy to compact bone and reduced mineralization

pagets disease

______ bone = bone made fast and poorly

pagetic

treatment for pagets diease

calcitonin and biphosphonates

most long bones ossify by ___ weeks

8

at age ____ all bones are completely ossified and skeletal growth ceases

25

in children and adolescents: bone formation exceeds bone ____

resorption

bone mass, mineralization and healing ability decrease with age beginning by age _____

40

bone loss is greater in:

white


females