Aopt: Cdc Unit One Review

Front 1

1. (401) Which is not a responsibility of an inside observer?

a. Handle chamber reactors.
b. Monitor all chamber flight demonstrations.
c. Ensure students are in their assigned seat numbers.
d. Advise chamber operator of ascent and descent rates.

Back 1

x

Front 2

2. (401) What chamber crew position is in charge of the altitude chamber flight?

a. Lecturer.
b. Inside observer 1.
c. Inside observer 3.
d. Aerospace Physiology Officer.

Back 2

x

Front 3

3. (401) Inside observer 3 is usually occupied by whom?

a. Officers only.
b. Senior ranking inside observer.
c. Inside observer with most experience.
d. Inside observer with most time on station.

Back 3

x

Front 4

4. (401) Which chamber position is responsible for ensuring all crew positions are occupied before
the chamber flight?

a. Lecturer.
b. Crew Chief.
c. Lock Operator.
d. Chamber Operator.

Back 4

x

Front 5

5. (401) The crew chief is responsible for

a. advising the chamber operator of ascent and descent rates.
b. ensuring students are in their assigned seating position.
c. operating and monitoring vacuum, oxygen, compressor, and electrical systems.
d. descending the chamber in case of an emergency.

Back 5

x

Front 6

6. (401) Which of the following may not authorize the chamber operator to deviate from normal
ascent or descent rates?\

a. Lecturer.
b. Flight Profile.
c. Flight Surgeon.
d. Aerospace Physiology Officer.

Back 6

x

Front 7

7. (401) When performing a bounce, what is the normal altitude increase and rate?

a. 2,000 feet at 5,000 fpm.
b. 2,500 feet at 5,000 fpm.
c. 2,000 feet at maximum vacuum.
d. 2,500 feet at maximum vacuum.

Back 7

x

Front 8

8. (401) When is the only time the chamber operator may leave his or her position while the chamber
is at altitude?

a. When replaced by a fully trained member.
b. Leave at anytime as long as the chamber is leveled.
c. When you are needed to perform your primary duties.
d. Cannot relinquish responsibility to anyone once you start the flight.

Back 8

xx

Front 9

9. (401) What is the normal ascent and descent rate for the lock compartment?

a. Not to exceed 5,000 fpm.
b. Not to exceed 5,000 fps.
c. There is no normal rate.
d. At least 5,000 fpm.

Back 9

x

Front 10

10. (401) What should the air pressure reading be in order to fire a rapid decompression?

a. 20 to 60 psi.
b. 40 to 60 psi.
c. 50 to 120 psi.
d. 400 to 450 psi.

Back 10

x

Front 11

11. (401) Within how many seconds does it take the chamber and the lock to equalize when
performing the Air Force and Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) rapid decompression?

a. AF 2 to 3, FAA 12 to15.
b. AF 1 to 2, FAA 12 to 16.
c. AF 1 to 3, FAA 12 to 16.
d. AF 1 to 3, FAA 12 to 20.

Back 11

x

Front 12

12. (401) How does the lock operator know when to fire the rapid decompression?

a. Immediately when the lock is at 8,000 feet.
b. By a predetermined verbal signal with inside observer 3.
c. Only when the Aerospace Physiology Officer (APO) gives permission.
d. The rapid decompression can be fired anytime the lock operator is ready.

Back 12

xx

Front 13

13. (401) Which item of information does the recorder not keep?

a. Flight data.
b. Exposure data.
c. Pump running time.
d. Reactor information.

Back 13

x

Front 14

14. (401) Who ensures that all students are in their assigned seating positions?

a. Lecturer.
b. Recorder.
c. Inside observer 3.
d. Aerospace Physiology Officer (APO).

Back 14

x

Front 15

15. (401) After completing the chamber flight, who should receive the flight information?

a. Aerospace Physiology Officer (APO).
b. Commander, Aerospace Physiology.
c. Administration Section.
d. Maintenance Section.

Back 15

x

Front 16

16. (401) Your first chamber flight lecture will normally be given to which type of class?

a. HALO.
b. Original.
c. Refresher.
d. Passenger.

Back 16

xx

Front 17

17. (401) Who has overall responsibility for the safe operation of all altitude chamber flights?

a. Aerospace Physiology Officer (APO).
b. Inside Observer 1.
c. Inside Observer 3.
d. Lecturer.

Back 17

x

Front 18

18. (401) To which crewmembers can the Aerospace Physiology Officer (APO) give guidance and
directions?

a. Lecturer only.
b. Inside Observers only.
c. Chamber operator only.
d. The appropriate crewmembers.

Back 18

x

Front 19

19. (401) For which type of chamber flights are flight surgeons needed?

a. Research flights.
b. Make-up chamber flights.
c. Medical evaluation flights.
d. Flights with original students.

Back 19

x

Front 20

20. (401) During a severe reaction, who performs the flight surgeon’s duties until he or she arrives?

a. Aerospace Physiology Officer (APO).
b. Inside Observer 3.
c. Chamber operator.
d. Lecturer.

Back 20

x

Front 21

21. (402) If a fire breaks out in the altitude chamber, the crew chief must

a. initiate the fire alarm, and assist the firefighters into the chamber.
b. contact the flight surgeon, initiate the fire alarm, and stand by for further direction.
c. initiate the fire alarm, stand by the chamber with the fire extinguisher ready to assist.
d. initiate the fire alarm and await further instructions from the Aerospace Physiology Officer
(APO).

Back 21

x

Front 22

22. (402) What are the inside observer’s responsibilities if there is a leak in the air-conditioning
system and a Freon loss into the chamber?

a. No special action is necessary.
b. Ensure students are on normal oxygen.
c. Ensure students are on 100 percent oxygen.
d. Ensure all students are in the gang load position.

Back 22

xx

Front 23

23. (402) In the event of oxygen loss, to what altitude is the chamber descended, and who determines
the descent rate?

a. Ground Level, Flight Surgeon.
b. 10,000 feet or below, flight surgeon.
c. Ground Level, Aerospace Physiology Officer.
d. 10,000 feet or below, Aerospace Physiology Officer.

Back 23

x

Front 24

24. (403) What should the pressure gauge at the lock operator station read after the compressor
reaches its working pressure?

a. 40 to 60 psi.
b. 70 to 90 psi.
c. 50 to 120 psi.
d. 125 to 150 psi.

Back 24

x

Front 25

25. (403) What setting should the altimeter be in during the daily instrument inspection?

a. 14.75 in Hg.
b. 28.75 in Hg.
c. 29.92 in Hg.
d. 31.50 in Hg.

Back 25

x

Front 26

26. (403) There is a need to purge a MA–1 portable oxygen assembly if the cylinder falls

a. to 0 psi for more than 2 hours.
b. below 50 psi for more than 2 hours.
c. below 50 psi for more than 1.5hours.
d. below 100 psi for more than 2 hours.

Back 26

xx

Front 27

27. (404) What is the ascent rate during the altitude flight chamber’s pressure reduction test?

a. 1,000 fpm.
b. 4,000 fpm.
c. 5,000 fpm.
d. Maximum vacuum.

Back 27

x

Front 28

28. (404) During a leak test of the altitude chamber, if the chamber is leveled off at 41,500 feet, the
chamber should not leak down to

a. 28,000 feet after ½ hour.
b. 29,000 feet after ½ hour.
c. 28,000 feet after 1 hour.
d. 29,000 feet after 1 hour.

Back 28

x

Front 29

29. (404) The adjustable range for the pointer on the rate of climb indicator is at least

a. 800 fpm ascent only.
b. 1,000 fpm descent only.
c. 800 fpm ascent or descent.
d. 1,000 fpm ascent or descent.

Back 29

x

Front 30

30. (405) Special inspections become due every

a. second daily.
b. second special
c. 12 months only.
d. second periodic or 12 months.

Back 30

x

Front 31

31. (405) An aerospace physiology technician may not

a. replace chamber windows.
b. replace intercom controls.
c. replace chamber instruments.
d. add and change vacuum pump oil.

Back 31

x

Front 32

32. (405) Who has the primary responsibility for major maintenance and overhaul of the altitude
chamber?

a. Unit maintenance section.
b. Civil engineering (AFMC).
c. Chief, Aerospace Physiology.
d. Ogden Air Logistics Center (OALC).

Back 32

x

Front 33

33. (406) How many minutes does it take for the vacuum pump to warm up?

a. 5.
b. 10.
c. 15.
d. 20.

Back 33

x

Front 34

34. (406) When testing the tension on new vacuum pump v-belts, using the spring scale, how many
pounds of tension are placed on the belt?

a. 12 to 16.
b. 12 to 20.
c. 16 to 18.
d. 18 to 20.

Back 34

x

Front 35

35. (406) On the 850 series pump, how often are used v-belts inspected?

a. 125 hours and every 250 hours thereafter.
b. 175 hours and every 500 hours thereafter.
c. 250 hours and every 500 hours thereafter.
d. 500 hours and every 250 hours thereafter.

Back 35

x

Front 36

36. (406) Which valve allows controlled amounts of air to enter the compression side of the piston
within the vacuum pump?

a. Air.
b. Isolation.
c. Oil return.
d. Gas ballast.

Back 36

x

Front 37

37. (407) The desired line pressure for the oxygen within the altitude chamber, and the lowest
pressure it should fall to is

a. 120 psi and 50 psi.
b. 300 psi and 200 psi.
c. 450 psi and 100 psi.
d. 300 psi and 100 psi.

Back 37

x

Front 38

38. (407) Steel fittings are not used on oxygen systems because they

a. are a fire hazard.
b. cannot hold pressure.
c. are susceptible to corrosion.
d. do not integrate well with other metals.

Back 38

x

Front 39

39. (407) What are the specifications for high-pressure distribution lines?

a. Type K copper tubing, 3/16” outside diameter by 0.032 wall thickness.
b. Type K copper tubing, 5/16” outside diameter by 0.035 wall thickness.
c. Type K aluminum alloy tubing, 3/16” outside diameter by 0.032 wall thickness.
d. Type K aluminum alloy tubing, 5/16” outside diameter by 0.035 wall thickness.

Back 39

x

Front 40

40. (408) Which device on the oxygen manifold reduces the pressure from the oxygen cylinders to the
main oxygen lines?

a. C–1 regulator.
b. MD–1 regulator.
c. Low pressure valve.
d. High pressure valve.

Back 40

x

Front 41

41. (408) The pressure setting on the stand-by bank on the oxygen manifold is set at

a. 100 psi.
b. 200 psi.
c. 300 psi.
d. 400 psi.

Back 41

xx

Front 42

42. (408) The stand-by bank of oxygen takes over on the oxygen manifold when the

a. in-use bank drops to 200 psi.
b. in-use bank drops to 300 psi.
c. stand-by bank reaches 200 psi.
d. stand-by bank reaches 300 psi.

Back 42

x

Front 43

43. (409) When removing students from the main chamber, which intercom channel allows the inside
observer and student to communicate without disturbing communications in the main chamber?

a. CALL.
b. LOCK.
c. COMM.
d. HOT MIC.

Back 43

x

Front 44

44. (409) Which channel is only accessible to chamber crewmembers?

a. OPER.
b. LOCK.
c. COMM.
d. AUX LISTEN.

Back 44

x

Front 45

45. (409) Which channel on altitude chamber intercoms is used as an emergency override to all other channels?

a. CALL.
b. LOCK.
c. INTER.
d. HOT MIC.

Back 45

x

Front 46

46. (410) Which instrument measures atmospheric pressure at any given altitude and interprets this
pressure as height above sea level?

a. Rectifier.
b. Altimeter.
c. Rate-of-climb indicator.
d. Vertical velocity indicator.

Back 46

x

Front 47

47. (410) What does the short pointer on the altimeter indicate?

a. 10s of feet.
b. 100s of feet.
c. 1,000s of feet.
d. 10,000s of feet.

Back 47

xx

Front 48

48. (410) The altimeter’s low altitude-warning symbol is present at

a. 2,000 feet to 10,000 feet.
b. 2,000 feet to 16,500 feet.
c. ground level to 10,000 feet.
d. ground level to 16,500 feet.

Back 48

x

Front 49

49. (410) What is the altitude reading on the inner scale of the absolute pressure instrument?

a. 0 to 16,500 feet.
b. 0 to 18,000 feet.
c. 18,000 to 250,000 feet.
d. 16,500 to 250,000 feet.

Back 49

x

Front 50

50. (410) Within how many seconds does it take the pressure to equalize within the rate of climb
indicator (RCI)?

a. 6 to 9.
b. 7 to 12.
c. 10 to15.
d. 12 to 20.

Back 50

x

Front 51

51. (410) What is the range of measurement, in feet per minute, of the rate of climb indicator (RCI)?

a. 0 to 12,000.
b. 0 to 15,000.
c. 1 to 12,000.
d. 1 to 15,000.

Back 51

x

Front 52

52. (411) Which would warrant the need to annotate the AFTO form 95?

a. Replaced intercom.
b. Replaced regulator.
c. Replaced student seat.
d. Completion of a trainer repair parts package (TRPP).

Back 52

x

Front 53

53. (411) What should be placed in the ACCEPTANCE DATE block of the AFTO form 95 if the date
is not known?

a. Unknown.
b. Current date.
c. Date the form is filled out.
d. Must have the actual date of acceptance.

Back 53

x

Front 54

54. (412) The AFTO form 245 is a continuation of what Part of the AFTO form 244?

a. III.
b. IV.
c. V.
d. VI.

Back 54

x

Front 55

55. (412) The symbol that is placed in Part V of the AF form 244 that shows that the equipment is
unsafe and unfit for use is a red

a. X.
b. Slash.
c. Dash.
d. Diagonal.

Back 55

x

Front 56

56. (412) Which symbol, placed in Part V of the AFTO form 244, shows an unsatisfactory condition
exists on a particular trainer, but still allows for the use of the equipment?

a. Red X.
b. Red dash.
c. Red diagonal.
d. No symbol is required.

Back 56

x