Reading...
Play button
Play button
Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;
Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;
H to show hint;
A reads text to speech;
98 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
|
1. A patient undergoing liver surgery has a venous air embolism, what is the most appropriate position to place them in: |
A
In event of VAE, put operative site (likely source of air entrainment) below the heart. In this case - abdo surgery: Operative site lower than heart = left lateral decubitus to trap air in RV so it doesn't go to lungs. During Neurosurgery, this would mean head-down. L lateral position not shown to be beneficial for improving hemodynamic performance in canine studies but no data in humans. Waltier. Diagnosis and treatment of vascular air embolism. Anesthesiology 2007; 106(1): 164-77. |
|
|
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of cyclosporine
a. Alopecia b. Hypertension c. Renal impairment d. Gum hyperplasia |
a
Renal impairment, GIT upset, gum hyperplasia, hirsutism, hyperK, HT, tremor A-Z Yentis |
|
|
What is the half life of clopidogrel
a. 6 hours b. 14 hours c. 24 hours d. 7 days |
a
MIMS |
|
|
When administering adrenaline and atropine via ETT dose compared with IV should be
a. Same dose b. Double c. Quadruple d. Six times |
b
Atropine 2-2.5x, adrenaline 3-10x ERC guidelines 2010- although not recommended because unreliable route |
|
|
What splitting ratio gives a 3% concentration of isoflurane
a. 1/5 b. 1/9 c. 1/13 d. 1/20 e. 1/23 |
c. 1:13
KB |
|
|
What transfusion related complication is the commonest cause of mortality
a. Bacterial infection b. TRALI c. ABO incompatibility |
b
TRALI is the most common cause of major morbidity and death after transfusion. It presents as an acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS) either during or within 6 h of transfusion. FDA 2007-2011 Maxwell. Complications of blood transfusion. CEACCP 2006; 6:225-229. |
|
|
Which of the following is not included in the CHADS2 AF thromboembolic risk scoring system
a. Age b. Gender c. Diabetes d. Heart failure e. Previous TIA |
b
CCF HT Age > 75 DM CVA/TIA = 2 |
|
|
What is the ratio of breaths to compressions in neonatal resuscitation
a. 1:3 b. 1:5 c. 2:15 d. 2:30 |
a
ARC guidelines |
|
|
Which nerves need to blocked to anaesthetise the hard palate?
A. Superior labial nerve and greater palatine nerve B. Greater palatine nerve and nasopalatine nerve C. Inferior orbital nerve and nasopalatine nerve D. Glossopharyngeal nerve and… E. Anterior ethmoidal nerve and… |
b
Ellis. Anatomy for Anesthetists 8th ed. p256. |
|
|
Which of the following is suggesting of an inhaled foreign body in a child on chest x ray
A. Opaque mass overlying the airway B. Hyper-expanded lung fields C. Unilateral pulmonary oedema D. Collapsed lung base E. Mediastinal shift |
All or b
http://emedicine.medscape.com/article/405994-overview http://www.wikiradiography.com/page/Chest+Radiography+for+Inhaled+Foreign+Body |
|
|
What is the distance from the lips to the carina in an 70kg adult male in cm
a. 21 b. 23 c. 25 d. 27 e. 29 |
D. 27cm
It is 29cm to end of DLT (2cm into L main bronchus!) Average male Incisors to vocal cords = 15cm Vocal cords to carina = 12cm |
|
|
What colour is the label for subcutaneously administered drugs
a. Pink b. Yellow c. Brown (beige) d. Red e. Blue |
c
a. Pink - antibiotics, miscellaneous b. Yellow – IV induction agents, nervous c. Brown (beige)- subcut d. Red – muscle relaxants, arterial e. Blue - opioids, venous |
|
|
How much air is the maximum to that should be used to inflate a 5 LMA classic cuff
a. 15 b. 20 c. 25 d. 40 e. 45 |
d
Dorsch. Anesthesia Equipment 5th ed. p469. |
|
|
Where should the tip of an IABP lie
a. 2cm distal to the left subclavian b. 2 cm proximal to the left subclavian c. 2cm proximal to the renal artery d. 2 cm distal to the renal artery |
a
Alaour. Intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsion. ATOTW 2011. p4. |
|
|
A 60kg female is given 50 mg of rocuronium, she is unable to be intubated, what dose of sugamadex is required to reverse the rocuronium
a. 240 b. 800 c. 960 |
c
2mg/kg for TOFC = 2 4mg/kg for PTC = 1-2 16mg/kg for immediate reversal MIMS |
|
|
In a penetrating chest injury what part of the heart is most likely to be injured
a. Left ventricle b. Right ventricle c. Right coronary artery d. Right atrium e. Sinus node |
b
|
|
|
What is the maximum recommended dose of intralipid in local anesthetic toxicity (ml/kg)
a. 6 b. 8 c. 10 d. 12 e. 14 |
d
AAGBI 2010- endorsed by ANZCA Westmead Anes says 8ml/kg |
|
|
What is a contraindication to an IABP
a. Aortic regurgitation b. Aortic stenosis |
a
Alaour. Intra-aortic balloon pump counterpulsion. ATOTW 2011. p2. |
|
|
An infant is born with meconium stained liquor and is apnoeic and floppy… your first step should be
a. Stimulate and dry b. Positive pressure ventilation c. Suction the trachea |
c
If child is vigorous- do not suction trachea If child is floppy- suction trachea www.neoresus.org There is insufficient evidence on which to recommen a change in current practice of performing ETT suctioning of non-vigorous infants who have been exposed to meconium stained fluid (Class B). If tracheal suction is performed- do before spontaneous or assisted respirations have commenced. Stimulation to breathe should not be provided beforehand. ARC guidelines 2010 |
|
|
What volume of FFP is required to increase fibrinogen level by 1g/L ?
a. 10-15ml/kg b. 30ml/kg c. 40ml/kg |
B
Chowdhury. Efficacy of standard dose and 30ml/kg FFP in correcting lab parameters in critically ill pts. BJH 2004; 125: 69-73. Massive transfusion protocol PLT < 50- 1 bag INR > 1.5- FFP 15ml/kg Fibrinogen < 1- cryo 3-4g Tranexamic acid- load dose 1g over 10min then 1g over 8h |
|
|
An epidural in a healthy individual causes all EXCEPT
a. Raised Co2 b. Bradycardia c. Vasodilation d. Dyspnea |
a
Increased rate of instrumental delivery No effect on LSCS Prolongs 2nd stage Maternal pyrexia |
|
|
In the Revised Trauma Score includes GCS, Blood pressure and what other parameter?
a. HR b. Saturation c. Respiratory rate d. Urine output |
c
Wikipedia |
|
|
Autologous transfusion results in less
a. Cost b. Blood waste c. Incompatible transfusion d. Unrequired transfusion |
c
Walunj. Autologous blood transfusion. CEACCP 2006; 6: 192-196. |
|
|
After an infusion of normal saline causing isovolumetric haemodilution what occurs?
a. Increased cardiac output b. Increase oxygen extraction c. Capillary vasodilatation |
a
CO increases during normovolaemic anaemia; the magnitude of this increase closely related to the reduction in blood viscosity. McLellan. Oxygen delivery and Hb. CEACCP 2004; 4: 123-126. |
|
|
Bleeding in trauma has been shown to be reduced by
a. Tranexamic acid b. Recombinant factor VIIa c. DDAVP d. Prothrombinex |
a
CRASH-2 trial. Lancet 2010. |
|
|
The time constant of the lung is calculated by
a. Compliance x resistance b. Compliance plus resistance c. Compliance /resistance d. Resistance/compliance |
a
A-Z Yentis. |
|
|
The commonest post operative complication in a patient with a # NOF is
a. UTI b. Pneumonia c. Delirium d. Myocardial infarction |
b
A national analysis of complications following hemiarthroplasty for hip # in older patients. |
|
|
In an infant the intercristine line is at the level of
a. L1-L2 b. L2-L3 c. L3-L4 d. L4-L5 e. L5-S1 |
e
Morton. Local and regional anaesthesia in children. CEACCP 2004; 4: 148-151. |
|
|
What is the commonest symptomatic cardiac condition in pregnancy
a. Mitral stenosis b. Aortic stenosis c. Eisenmengers d. Tetralogy of fallot |
a
States worldwide rheumatic MS most common valvular lesion in pregnancy. 40% MS pts will be symptomatic in pregnancy. Gelson. Valvular heart disease. BMJ 2007; 335: 1042-45. |
|
|
What is the ratio of MAC awake:MAC of sevoflurance
a. 0.2 b. 0.34 c. 0.5 |
b
Katoh. Cerebral awakening concentration of sevoflurane and isoflurane predicted during slow and fast alveolar washout. A+A 1993; 77: 1012-17. |
|
|
Pain from the uterus during labour is transmitted via
a. From the anterior roots of T10-L1 b. Parasympathetic fibres c. The inferior hypogastric plexus d. Via grey rami communicantes |
c
Roots T10-12 via sympathetic nervous system via hypogastric plexus Deakin. Clinical Notes for FRCA. |
|
|
Pierre robin syndrome is characterized by micrognathia and
A. Glossoptosis B. Craniosynostosis C. Macroglossia D. Microstomia |
A
Micrognathia with retrogenia and glossoptosis. Oval or cleft palate present 50% pts. Semjen. Anaesthesia 2008; 63: 147-50. |
|
|
A size C oxygen cylinder that reads 5000kpa contains approximately how many litres of oxygen
a. 100 b. 150 c. 200 d. 350 e. 600 |
b
(1/3 full, carries 450L usually therefore 1/3 of 15000 = 5000, 1/3 of 450 = 150L) |
|
|
A patient having a craniotomy has the CVP/arterial transducers at the level of the right atrium. The head is 13cm above the level of the heart. If the MAP is 80mmHg and the CVP is 5mmHg what is the cerebral perfusion pressure in mmHg
a. 60 b. 62 c. 65 d. 70 e. 75 |
D. 70mmHg
CPP = MAP - ICP or CVP whichever is greater. MAP at the head is 80 - (13 x 0.7) = 70 ICP at the head is not given, probably 0 if head is open during craniotomy. CVP at the head is 5 - (13 x 0.7) = negative 5 However, negative CVP causes collapse of the veins, rather than helping to "suck" blood into the cerebral circulation. So logically any CVP less than zero contributes ZERO to the CPP. Therefore answer is 70. |
|
|
After a procedure with an LMA in situ a patient complains of loss of sensation to the anterior part of the tongue. What nerve is likely damaged?
a. Facial b. Lingual c. Greater palatine d. Glossopharyngeal |
b
Anterior 2/3- somatic = lingual (V3); taste - chorda tympani (VII) Posterior = CN IX |
|
|
What statistical test would be best to evaluate the effects of 2 drugs in patients at 3 different points in time
a. ANOVA b. Mantel Hantzel c. Crusckall Wallis d. Students t test |
a
Unpaired data, >2 sample groups = ANOVA (Kruskal-Wallis if non-normally distributed) Paired data, > 2 sample groups = Rptd measures ANOVA (Friedman if non-normally distributed) McCluskey. Statistics III. CEACCP 2007; 7:167 |
|
|
What is the most accurate method of determining fetal heart rate in a neonate
a. Palpation of an umbilical vein pulse b. Auscultation with a stethoscope c. Palpation of femoral pulse d. Pulse oximetry |
d
Most accurate- pulse oximetry www.neoresus.org |
|
|
In acute liver injury what causes the highest risk of bleeding
a. Thrombocytopenia b. Coagulopathy c. Portal hypertension d. Platelet dysfunction |
? a
Correction of coagulopathy in liver failure not indicated unless bleeding. OHCA states thrombocytopenia likelier cause of bleeding in liver disease (not acute liver injury) |
|
|
A patient in recovery post op total hip replacement develops crushing central chest pain, ECG shows ST segment elevation. The most appropriate action is to give
a. Aspirin b. IV GTN c. IV heparin d. Calcium channel blocker e. T/L |
a
|
|
|
Stellate ganglion blockade causes
a. Conjunctival injection b. Dry eyes c. Decreased axillary sweating |
a
Okuda. Stellate ganglion block, cervical sympathetic block. EJA 1999; 16: 272-3. |
|
|
Features of ventricular tachycardia DO NOT include
a. Absence of p waves b. Monophasic waves c. Prominent R wave in V1 d. A-V dissociation |
a
|
|
|
An inpatient becomes hyponatraemic 48 hours post op and has a seizure. The most appropriate treatment is
a. Fluid restriction b. Normal saline c. Hypertonic saline d. Salt tables |
c
Acute symptomatic hypoNa (<48h)- raise Na by 2mmol/L/h until Sx resolve- infuse 3%NaCl 1.2-2.4ml/kg/h; for sz- 4-6ml/kg/h Chronic symptomatic hypoNa (>48h)- raise Na <0.5mmol/L/h for risk of CPM. Use 0.9% NaCl. OHCA |
|
|
A child with 10% dehydration is likely to have
a. Bradycardia b. Rapid deep breathing |
b
Tachycardic |
|
|
When stimulating the ulnar nerve with a nerve stimulator, which muscle do you see twitch?
A. opponens abducens B. abductor pollicis brevis C. adductor pollicis brevis D. extensor pollicis E. flexor pollicis brevis |
c
Westmead Anaesthesia |
|
|
Acromegaly due to excess of growth hormone. Why is it difficult to do a direct laryngoscopy?
A: Distorted facial anatomy B: Macroglossia C: Glottic stenosis D: Prognathe mandible E: Arthritis of the neck |
b
Macroglossia, macrognathia, expansion of upper airway soft tissues Menon. Anaesthesia and pituitary disease. CEACCP. 2011; 1: 133 |
|
|
Post CEA on ward, patient seizes. BP has been hard to control. What to do to prevent further seizures?
A: Add another antihypertensive B: Start antiplatelet drugs C: Start anticonvulsants D: Do angio and stent E: Nimodipine |
a
Preferably use labetalol or clonidine to avoid increasing CBF. Adhiyaman. Cerebral hyperperfusion syndrome following CEA. QJM 2007; 100: 239-244. |
|
|
Main heat loss in anaesthetic for neonate
A. vasodilatation B. radiation C. convection D. conduction E. evaporative |
b
|
|
|
Patient with aortic stenosis, the signs indicate poor prognosis
A. Palpitation B. Radiation to carotid arteries C. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnoea D. Angina E. Syncope |
c
Angina- 5 year survival Syncope- 3 year Heart failure- 2 year Exertional dyspnoea, orthopnoea, PND and pulmonary oedema tend to develop relatively late in AS and reflect worsening pulmonary venous HT. Brown. Aortic stenosis and non-cardia surgery. CEACCP 2005; 5: 1-4. |
|
|
Circuit disconnection during spontaneous breathing anaesthesia
A. will be reliably detected by a fall in end-tidal carbon dioxide concentration B. will be detected early by the low inspired oxygen alarm C. will be most reliably detected by spirometry with minute volume alarms D. may be detected by an unexpected drop in end-tidal volatile anaesthetic agent concentration E. can be prevented by using new, single-use tubing |
d
|
|
|
Fat: blood coefficient- N2O, Desflurane, Sevoflurane, Isoflurane
A. N2O ~ D > S > I B. N2O < D < S < I C. D > N2O > S > I D. N2O > D > S ~ I E . D > N2O > I > S |
None
N20 |
|
|
The average expected depth of insertion of an oral endotracheal tube, from the lip, in a normal newborn infant is
A. 7.5 cm B. 8.5 cm C. 9.5 cm D. 10.5 cm E. 11.5 cm |
c
Weight + 6 if < 1yo Age/2 + 12 if > 1yo |
|
|
Patient with severe rheumatoid arthritis. Has C1/C2 instability. Most likely C-spine X-ray finding would be
A. Anterior Atlantoodental interval >9 mm B. Increased sagittal diameter C. Posterior atlantodental interval >14 D. Midpart of C1 over C2 E. Tear drop sign of C2 |
A
|
|
|
Patient complains of numbness of the anterior third of his tongue following GA with LMA. Which nerve is involved?
A. Glossopharyngeal B. Facial nerve C. Superior vagus D Mandibular n. |
d
|
|
|
Increased risk of post-partum haemorrhage in:
A. Nulliparous patient B. Patient < 20 years old C. Factor V Leiden deficiency D. Oligohydramnios E. Prolonged labour |
e
Risk factors- pre-eclampsia, chorioamnionitis, obesity, induction/augmentation labor, twins, hydramnios, anemia, arrest of descent. Wetta. Risk factors for uterine atony/PPH requiring Rx after vaginal delivery. Am J Obstet Gynecol 2013. |
|
|
Which of the following are feature of Conn’s syndrome?
A. Normoglycaemia, hypernatremia , hypokalemia B. Hypoglycaemia, hypernatremia, hypokalemia C. Hyperglycaemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia D. Normoglycaemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia E. Hypoglycaemia, hyponatremia, hyperkalemia |
a
Excess aldosterone OHCA- impaired glucose tolerance in 50% |
|
|
Unequal consolidation on CXR can be caused by all except:
A. Pleural effusion B. Pulmonary infarction C. Pulmonary haemorrhage D. APO E. Pneumonia |
A
|
|
|
What is the mechanism of central sensitisation?
A. Increased intracellular magnesium B. Antagonism of the NMDA receptor C. Glycine is the major neurotransmitter involved D. Recurrent a-delta fibre activation E. Alteration in gene expression |
e
Power and Kam |
|
|
A home handyman leaves his electricity turned on whilst fiddling with wires [repairing a power outlet]. He has a RCD. What happens if he touches the neutral and ground wires?
A. Nothing will happen B. Receives macroshock C. Protected from macroshock by RCD D. Protected from microshock by domestic fuse E Receives microshock |
A
(C if it is active + neutral wires) |
|
|
If a patient experiences parasthesia in the little finger during supraclavicular brachial plexus block, the needle is in proximity to the
A. posterior cord B. middle trunk C. Ulnar nerve D. lower trunk E. medial cord |
d
|
|
|
What is the best predictor of severe bleeding in cirrhosis?
a. Thrombocytopaemia b. Hypofibrinogenaemia c. Prolonged PT d. Hypoalbuminaemia e. Pulmonary hypertension |
a
OHCA |
|
|
What is the oxygen concentration in a standard bottle of heliox?
a. 21% b. 25% c. 30% d. 33% |
a
Most are 28% 21% quote in CEACCP. Wigmore. A review of the use of heliox in the critically ill. CICM 2006; 8: 64-72. |
|
|
The pain of the first stage of labour is transmitted by:
A. Grey rami communicantes B. T10-L1 anterior roots C. The hypogastric plexus D. Inhibitory nerves to the internal vesical sphincter E. Parasympathetic nerves |
c
1st stage = uterine/cervical/hypogastric/aortic plexi- T10/L1 2nd stage = pudendal nerve- S2-4 |
|
|
You are asked by an Obstetrician to help relax a uterus in labour and deliver for manual removal of placenta. What is a safe and effective dose of IV GTN to be delivered?
a. 5 mcg b. 50 mcg c. 250 mcg d. 400 mcg e. 500 mcg |
b
|
|
|
Middle-aged male with severe MS having general anaesthesia for repair of fractured ulna / radius. 10 minutes into the case you notice a tachyarrythmia with his HR 130 and BP 70. He is normally in sinus. What do you do?
A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone C. Shock D. :Volume E. Metaraminol |
c
OHCA Arrhythmia algorithm |
|
|
A lady with a Fontan’s circulation for tricuspid atresia presents for caesarian section. What is the best way of maintaining her cardiac output?
a. Trendelenburg b. Epidural contraindicated c. Allow pCO2 to rise to 50 to vasodilate her d. Short inspiratory time e. Allow hypovolaemia |
d
Nayak. The fontan circulation. CEACCP 2008. |
|
|
During prolonged trendelenburg positioning there is:
a. No change in ICP b. No change in IOP c. Increased pulmonary compliance d. Increased myocardial work e. No increased pulmonary venous pressures |
d
|
|
|
Alcoholic patient undergoes unremarkable anaesthesia for explorative laparotomy for investigation of abdominal pain. No pathology is found. However, in recovery the following electrolyte disturbances found:
Na 140 K 5.0 CL 115 HCO 18 What is the most likely cause A. Acute renal failure B. Lactatic acidosis C. Methanol ingestion D. Chloride [N/saline resuscitation] E DKA |
?E
|
|
|
In a neonate the main resistance in a circle system with CO2 absorber
a. APL valve b. Expiratory and inspiratory unidirectional valves c. tubing d. ETT e. HME filter |
ETT
BJA 1999; 83 (1): 50-7 |
|
|
Blood flow across which of the following is used to estimate pulmonary artery pressures during echocardiography?
A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral Valve |
a
ATOTW June 2011 |
|
|
Which patient do you not put a left-sided Robert-Shaw DLT into?
A. Left main bronchus is to be clamped B. The left lung is to be collapsed C. There is a left main stem bronchus lesion D. There is a right sided broncho-pleural fistula E. The patient has a shunt greater than 10% |
C
|
|
|
You are asked by an Obstetrician to help relax a uterus in labour and deliver for manual removal of placenta. What is a safe and effective dose of IV GTN to be delivered?
5 mcg 50 mcg 250 mcg 400 mcg 500 mcg |
b
|
|
|
Middle-aged male with severe MS having general anaesthesia for repair of fractured ulna / radius. 10 minutes into the case you notice a tachyarrythmia with his HR 130 and BP 70. He is normally in sinus. What do you do?
A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone C. Shock D. :Volume E. Metaraminol |
c
|
|
|
A lady with a Fontan’s circulation for tricuspid atresia presents for caesarian section. What is the best way of maintaining her cardiac output?
Trendelenburg Epidural contraindicated Allow pCO2 to rise to 50 to vasodilate her Short inspiratory time Allow hypovolaemia |
d
|
|
|
What is the best way to measure neonatal heart rate during resus?
Palpate a femoral artery Palpate a carotid artery Auscultate the precordium Palpate the umbilical stump |
ausc
|
|
|
The Revise Trauma Score includes the first measures of GCS, BP and:
HR RR SpO2 Temp CVP |
RR
|
|
|
During prolonged trendelenburg positioning there is:
No change in ICP No change in IOP Increased pulmonary compliance Increased myocardial work No increased pulmonary venous pressures |
increase myocardial work
|
|
|
Alcoholic patient undergoes unremarkable anaesthesia for explorative laparotomy for investigation of abdominal pain. No pathology is found. However, in recovery the following electrolyte disturbances found:
Na 140 K 5.0 CL 115 HCO 18 What is the most likely cause A. Acute renal failure B. Lactatic acidosis C. Methanol ingestion D. Chloride [N/saline resuscitation] E DKA |
? DKA
|
|
|
In a neonate the main resistance in a circle system with CO2 absorber
APL valve Expiratory and inspiratory unidirectional valves tubing ETT HME filter |
ETT
|
|
|
Blood flow across which of the following is used to estimate pulmonary artery pressures during echocardiography?
A. Tricuspid valve B. Pulmonary valve C. Mitral Valve |
a
|
|
|
Which patient do you not put a left-sided Robert-Shaw DLT into?
A. Left pneumonectomy B. Left main bronchial lesion C. There is a right-sided broncho-pleural fistula D. The patient has s hunt > 10% E. The left lung is to be collapsed |
b
|
|
|
A machine with a soda lime absorber was left on overnight with oxygen running at 6 litres per minute. In the morning a desflurane vaporiser is connected. What toxic substance may be produced?
A. Substance A B. Carbon monoxide C. Carbon dioxide D. Calcium hydroxide E. Substance B |
b
Westmead Anaesthesia |
|
|
A post-op child being given 2.5%D + 1/2NS on the ward seizes, is intubated and ventilated and transferred to ICU. Sodium is 116. What do you do?
A. Give phenytoin B. Give hypertonic saline C. Give normal saline D. Give frusemide E. Give normal saline |
b
|
|
|
Which two nerves are most reliably blocked in a fascia iliaca block?
Various combinations of femoral, obturator, lateral cutaneous and sciatic |
Femoral
Lateral cutaneous |
|
|
Required for diagnosis of Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome. All except?
A. Diaphoresis B. ↑ CK C. Rigidity D. Hypertension E. ↑ HR |
D
Major criteria: fever, rigidity, elevated CK Minor: tachycardia, abnormal arterial pressure, tachypnoea, diaphoresis Adnet. NMS. BJA 2000; 85: 129-135. |
|
|
Atrial septal defect, where is the murmur heard the loadest?
A. PV B. MV C. ASD D. AV E. TV |
A
Low pitched diastolic tricuspid flow murmur and more often a pulmonary systolic ejection murmur. Talley and O'Connor |
|
|
Young infant with Failure to Thrive. Born on the 20th percentile now is on the 5th percentile. Found to have a systolic murmur, tachynpnea with weak femoral pulse. The most likely diagnosis is
a. Coarctation b. HOCM c. PDA d. AS |
a
Talley and O'Connor |
|
|
Myasthenia gravis, Eaton Lambert Syndrome. What happens with exercise?
a. MG better, EL worse b. EL better, MG worse c. Both EL and MG get worse d. Both EL and MG get better |
b
OHCA |
|
|
Cephalothin doesn't cover:
a. Proteus b. E coli c. Staph d. Strep e. Pseudomonas |
e
MIMS |
|
|
Regarding PS9 safe provision of anaesthesia for Colonoscopy:
A. Medical Practitioner to providing sedation with a skilled assistant who is not assisting the proceduralist. B. Medical practitioner alone C. Specialist Anaesthetist D. Skilled nurse with airway experience E. Skilled bogan |
a
|
|
|
You see a man in his 60s in clinic 1 week prior to laparoscopic cholecystectomy. He has dilated cardiomyopathy with an ejection fraction of 30%, but does not get dyspnoeic with normal activities of daily living. What is the most appropriate management of his heart failure?
a. Frusemide b. Amiodarone c. ACE d. Digoxin e. Biventricular pacemaker |
c
Kotze. Heart failure. CEACCP 2008; 8: 161 |
|
|
Young child with WPW undergoes general anaesthesia. Intra operatively developed tachycardia. HR 220, BP 80/40. Best drug to cardiovert
A. Adenosine B. Amiodarone |
? B
If narrow complex SVT- adenosine or DCC If AF or wide complex tachycardia- procainamide or DCC. Do not use digoxin, CCBs, adenosine or beta blockers as can lead to very fast ventricular rates due to rapid conduction down accessory pathway |
|
|
Finding on haemophilia A patient
A. Female haemarthrosis B. Male haemarthrosis C. Normal PT, abnormal APTT D. Abnormal PT, normal APTT |
C
OHCA |
|
|
32 yo male. Weakness distal and proximal muscles, infection 10 days ago, no sensory involvement, temp 37.8, facial weakness. Cause:
A. Guillian Barre B. Myasthenia Gravis D. Poliomyelitis E. Acute encephalitis F. Polymyositis |
a
|
|
|
What gestation to monitor uteroplacental flow
A 20 weeks B 24 weeks C 28 weeks D 32 weeks E 36 weeks |
b
Warrick- when it becomes clinically relevant (earlier than this poor uteroplacental flow usually results in fetal death in utero |
|
|
Endocarditis prophylaxis
A Bicuspid valve B Congenital repair > 12 months ago C Rheumatic heart valve D Uncorrected cyanotic heart disease E MVP + MR |
d
NICE guidelines |
|
|
Air bubble in arterial line. Causes decreased:
A Damping (increased) B Resonant freq of system |
a
|
|
|
Area burnt in adult male - upper half of upper limb, anterior abdo, whole left leg: |
B.
Half of upper limb = 4.5% Abdo = 9% (because whole of the front of chest&abdo is 18%) Whole leg is 18% TOTAL=32% |
|
|
An infant born at 32 weeks gestational age comes at 6 weeks for elective bilateral inguinal hernia repair. The parents expect to take him home that day. What do you tell them?
A. He cannot have surgery until he is 3 months old B. They can take him home that day C. They can take him home with apnoea monitoring overnight D. He needs to stay in hospital for apnoea monitoring |
D |
