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288 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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"Nearer to head or toward the head" |
Superior (cranial) |
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"Nearer to feet or toward the tailbone (coccyx)" |
Inferior (caudal) |
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"Nearer to front (belly); before" |
Anterior (Ventral) |
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"Nearer to back; behind" |
Posterior (Dorsal) |
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"Nearer to median plane" |
Medial |
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"Farther from median plane" |
Lateral |
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"A plane that divided the body into equal left and right halves" |
Median plane (Midline)
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"Nearer to the trunk or origin of structure" |
Proximal |
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"Farther from the trunk or origin of structure" |
Distal
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"Nearer or toward the center" |
Central |
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"Farther or away from the center" |
Peripheral |
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"In a direction toward the mouth" |
Orad
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"In a direction away from the mouth" |
Aborad |
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"Nearer to or on the surface" |
Superficial |
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"Farther from or away from the surface" |
Deep |
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What is another term for superior? |
Cranial
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What is another term for inferior" |
Caudal |
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What is another term for anterior? |
Ventral |
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What is another term for posterior? |
Dorsal
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What type of plane divides the whole body or sub-volume of the body into left and right portions? |
Sagittal plane
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What is another name for the median plane? |
Midsaggital plane |
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What type of plane divides the whole body or sub-volume of the body into anterior and posterior portions? |
Frontal plane (Coronal plane) |
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What is another name for the frontal plane? |
Coronal plane |
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What type of plane divides the whole body or sub-volume of the body into superior and inferior portions? |
Horizontal plane |
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What plane is, in most cases, the same as the transverse or cross-sectional plane? |
Horizontal plane |
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What plane always cuts perpendicular to the long axis of the body? |
Transverse (cross-sectional) plane |
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What type of plane is not parallel to any standard anatomical plane? |
Oblique plane |
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What type of (parasagittal) planes pass through the middle point of the clavicles and the middle inguinal region? |
Left & right midclavicular planes |
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What type of (horizontal) plane passes through the inferior margin of the 10th rib? (hint: what word means "rib?") |
Subcostal plane |
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What type of (horizontal) plane passes through the highest point of the iliac crests on the pelvis? |
Supracristal plane |
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What are the two primary body cavities? |
The ventral and the dorsal |
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What two cavities make up the Ventral body cavity? |
Thoracic cavity and Abdominopelvic cavity |
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All subdivisions of the (ventral/dorsal) body cavity are lined by serous membranes |
Ventral |
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What three cavities does the thoracic cavity contain? |
Mediastinum ( contains pericardial cavity), right pleural cavity, left pleural cavity |
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What two cavities does the abdominopelvic cavity contain? |
Abdominal and pelvic cavities |
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What body cavities make up the Dorsal body cavity? |
The cranial cavity and the spinal cavity |
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What body cavity protects the central nervous system? |
Dorsal body cavity |
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What are the trunk wall layers from superficial to deep? |
Skin, superficial fascia (hypodermis/subcutaneous), deep investing fascia of skeletal muscle tissues, skeletal muscle, internal fascia (subserosa fascia), parietal layer of serous membrane |
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What body cavity contains the peritoneal sac? |
Abdominopelvic cavity |
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What type of tissue covers surfaces; lines insides of organs and body cavities? |
Epithelial tissue |
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What type of tissue protects, binds together, and supports organs? |
Connective tissue |
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What type of tissue facilitates movement of skeleton or organ walls? |
Muscle tissue |
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What type of tissue controls activities, processes information, and supports/protects neurons? |
Nervous tissue |
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What is located in between bones/at joints? |
Cartilage
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What connects bones at joints? |
Ligaments |
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What is osteoid? What are some characteristics? |
Newly formed organic bone matrix prior to calcification-- "liquid bone," about 90% collagen. Rubbery/flexible |
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What are osteocytes? |
Mature bone cells; act as command centers to maintain bone quality |
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What do osteoblasts do? |
Build/deposit new bone by secreting osteoid |
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What do osteoclasts do? |
Destroy/reabsorb old bone |
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What are osteoblasts that become trapped in osteoid and reside in small spaces called lacunae? |
Osteocytes |
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What three types of cells work together in basic multicellular units (BMUs)? |
Osteocytes, osteoblasts, and osteoclasts |
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What does calcitonin promote? How does it relate to bone density? |
Production of new bone. Higher bone density |
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What does PTH promote? How does it relate to bone density? |
Destruction of bone. Lower bone density |
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What type of bone tissue is dense, arranged in concentric sheets, and forms the outer layer of all bones and is also found within Haversian systems? |
Cortical bone |
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What type of bone tissue is very porous and is found inside bones and on the ends of long bones in lattice-like systems? |
Spongy bone |
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What type of bones are all limb bones? |
Long bones |
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What is the shaft of a long bone called? What type of bone is it? |
Diaphysis. Mainly compact bone |
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What is the flared region of a long bone called? |
Metaphysis |
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What are the proximal and distal ends of long bones called? These contain spongy bones in adults |
Proximal and distal epiphysis |
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What is the periosteum? |
The outer covering of bone cortex. Made up of two layers: fibrous for support, and cellular for growth |
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What is the endosteum? |
The inner lining of hollow bones. Cellular function-- osteoclasts |
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What does red marrow do? Where is it found? |
Produces blood cells. Found in spongy bone of adult |
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What does yellow marrow do? Where is it found? |
Stores lipids (fats). It is found only in long bones of adults, inside the marrow cavity |
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What are the openings in the cortex for blood vessels called? |
Nutrient foramen |
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What is the outer covering of long bone cortex called? |
Periosteum |
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What type of bone is spongy bone sandwiched between two layers of cortical bone? |
Flat bones |
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The skull bones, the ribs, and the sternum (breast bone) are all examples of what type of bone? |
Flat bone |
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What type of bone is boxlike and is a shell of cortical bone surrounding spongy bone? |
Short bones |
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The wrist bones (carpals) and the ankle bones (tarsals) are examples of what type of bone? |
Short bones |
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What type of bones develop within a muscle tendon and are generally variable in number? |
Sesamoid bones |
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The patella and misc bones in the wrist and feet are examples of what type of bone? |
Sesamoid bones |
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Vertebrae and facial bones are examples of what type of bone? |
Irregular bones |
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What are islands of bone that develop within cranial sutures? (These are variable) |
Wormian or Sutural bones |
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What is osteogenesis? |
Production of new bone |
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What is the process of deposition and hardening calcium salts in bone and teeth? |
Calcification |
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What is the replacement of cartilage or mesenchymal tissue with bone? |
Ossification |
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What type of ossification replaces mesenchyme? |
Intramembranous |
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What type of ossification replaces cartilage? |
Endochondral |
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Where does intramembranous ossification take place? What type of bone forms? |
The skull. Flat bones |
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Where does endochondral ossification take place? What type of bone forms |
Outside of the skull. Most of the bones in the body! |
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When is long bone growth complete? |
When each epiphyseal plate has ossified and the epiphyseal line has formed. |
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Where do primary ossification centers form during endochondral ossification? |
In the diaphysis |
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Where do secondary ossification centers form during endochondral ossification? |
Epiphyses |
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When in fetal development do primary ossification centers begin to show up? How many are there at the 11th fetal week? How many are there at birth? |
8th week. 806 at 11th fetal week, 450 at birth |
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When do secondary ossification centers form? |
After birth. 2 months-18 years |
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What is the E in EHAKWS? What is it's age range of epiphyseal union? |
Elbow. 14-18 years |
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What is the H in EHAKWS? What is it's age range of epiphyseal union? |
Hip. 14-18 years |
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What is the A in EHAWKS? What is it's age range of epiphyseal union? |
Ankle. 16-20 years |
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What is the K in EHAKWS? What is it's age range of epiphyseal union? |
Knee. 17-20 years |
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What is the W in EHAKWS? What is it's age range of epiphyseal union? |
Wrist. 18-20 years |
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What is the S in EHAKWS? What is it's age range of epiphyseal union? |
Shoulder. 14-20 years |
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What bone is the final epiphyses to close? By how many years old? |
Medial clavicle. 30 years |
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Why is the "pattern" of fusion of primary & secondary centers important? |
Allows physical anthropologists to age juvenile skeletons precisely |
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True or false: Females mature skeletally 1-2 years before males. |
True |
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What is the term for the microscopic, functional units of bone? |
Osteons or Haversian systems |
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What is the continuous process of "turning over bone" throughout lifetime? |
Bone remodeling |
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Osteoclasts ____ (destroy/make) ____ (new/old) bone |
Destroy, old |
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Osteoblasts ____ (destroy/make) ____ (new/old) bone |
Make, new |
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What is the life span of an average osteon? |
15 years |
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True or false: Osteons do NOT grow in phases |
False-- Osteons DO grow in phases |
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About how long would it take a 45 year old man to form a new osteon? |
100 days |
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Where does bone growth (in length) occur? |
At the epiphyseal plates |
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How do bones increase in length? |
Cartilage is replaced by bone at each end of the bony shaft, which results in a longer shaft. |
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At what age does bone growth in length stop? |
Around 18-20 years old |
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What is appositional bone growth? |
Bone growth in diameter |
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What happens at the periosteum during appositional bone growth? |
Osteoblasts deposit new bone |
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What happens at the endosteum during appositional bone growth? |
Osteoclasts destroy bone |
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At what age does appositional bone growth stop? |
Around 20-25 years old |
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What is the age-related decrease of bone density called? |
Osteopenia |
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What is the pathological decrease in bone density called? |
Osteoporosis |
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Give 3 possible reasons for the development of osteoporosis. |
1. Genetics 2. Insufficient dietary intake of calcium and vitamin D 3. Insufficient weight-bearing physical activity (except swimming) |
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What is normal bone density, bone density in osteopenia, and bone density in osteoporosis? |
Normal: Within 1 SD of mean bone mineral density of a 25 year old female Osteopenia: Between 1 & 2.5 SD lower than mean Osteoporosis: Greater than 2.5 SD lower than mean |
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Label steps in correct sequence: A. Bony (hard) callous formation B. Bleeding then fracture hematoma formation C. Bone is remodeled; callus swelling eventually disappears D. Fibrocarilaginous (soft) callus formation |
B, D, A, C |
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What is the function of bony projections/processes ("bumps")? |
They are attachment sites for tendons and ligaments |
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What is the name for a large, rough projection? |
Trochanter |
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What is the name for a smaller, rough projection? |
Tuberosity |
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What is the name for a small, rounded projection? |
Tubercle |
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What is the name for a pointed projection? |
Spine |
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What is the name for a low ridge? |
Line |
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What is the name for a prominent ridge? |
Crest |
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The following is the function of what bone feature(s): "Allow the passage of vessels and nerves." |
Bone openings |
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The following is the function of what bone feature(s): "Various functions, e.g. house a structure like the pituitary gland, allow a full range of motion at a joint like the olecranon fossa of the elbow." |
Bone depressions |
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What is the term for a hole which transmits vessels or nerves? |
Foramen |
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What is the term for a shallow, rounded depression where something sits or projects into? |
Fossa |
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What is the term for a long, narrow depression? |
Groove/sulcus |
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What is the term for a longer enclosed passageway through a bone which transmits vessels or nerves? |
Canal |
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What is the term for the socket into which a tooth fits (found only in the maxilla and mandible)? |
Alveolus |
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What are articular features? |
Bony features associated with joints |
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What is the term for a small, flat articular surface? |
Facet |
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What is the term for a smooth, rounded articular process? |
Condyle |
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What is the term for an expanded articular region of bone? |
Head |
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What is the term for a constricted region that separates the head from the major portion of the bone? |
Neck |
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True or false: A joint CAN be both very stable and very mobile. |
False. A joint CAN NOT be both very stable and very mobile |
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What is joint FUNCTIONAL classification based on? |
Mobility-- how much movement is allowed |
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What type of joints have no mobility, are very stable and strong, are held close to one another, and whose space is filled by cartilage or fibrous connective tissue (CT)? What are some examples of this type of joint? |
Synarthrodial joints. Cranial sutures and the joint between the epiphysis and diaphysis of growing bone |
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What type of joints have limited mobility? What are some examples of this type of joint? |
Amphiarthodial joints. Pubic symphysis and intervertebral disc joint. |
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What type of joints are highly mobile? What are some examples of this type of joint? |
Diarthrodial joints. All major joints-- shoulder, elbow, wrist, hip, knee, ankle |
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What is joint STRUCTURAL classification based on? |
How the bones are held together |
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Fibrous joints (STRUCTURAL) are mostly what FUNCTIONAL type of joint? |
Synarthrodial (no movement) |
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What are fibrous joints held together by? |
Fibrous connective tissue (CT) |
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Cranial sutures are an example of what STRUCTURAL type of joints? Where are cranial sutures located? |
Fibrous joints. Between bones of the skull |
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Syndesmoses are examples of what STRUCTURAL type of joints? What are syndesmoses? Examples? |
Fibrous joints. Tight ligaments that hold together bone. Interosseous membrane b/t radius & ulna, b/t tibia & fibia |
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Gomphoses are examples of what STRUCTURAL type of joint? Where are gomphoses located? |
Fibrous joint. B/t tooth and its socket |
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What is the STRUCTURAL type of joint in which bones are held together by cartilage? What FUNCTIONAL type of joints are these? |
Structural: Cartilaginous joints Functional: Synarthrodial & amphiarthrodial |
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Primary cartilaginous joints are ___ (synarthrodial/amphiarthrodial). |
Synarthrodial |
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Secondary cartilaginous joints are ___ (synarthrodial/amphiarthrodial). |
Amphiarthrodial |
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What FUNCTIONAL type of joints are synovial joints? |
Diarthrodial |
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What are the three features that all synovial joints have in common? |
1. Joint capsule 2. Joint (synovial) cavity 3. Articular cartilage |
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What is the outer portion of the joint capsule that is made of dense connective tissue that connects the opposing bones together? |
Fibrous capsule |
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Which part of the joint capsule is extensively innervated with sensory nerves, which are the same nerves that supply the muscle that move the joint? |
Fibrous capsule |
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What is the synovial membrane (synovium)? What are its functions? |
Membrane that lines the inside of the fibrous capsule and secretes synovial fluid. Functions: Lubrication of joint space (decrease friction), nourishment of cartilage cells, and shock absorption |
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What is the joint cavity of a synovial joint? What purpose does it serve? Does it contain synovial fluid? |
The space contained within the joint capsule. Allows joint to be freely moveable. Yes, it contains synovial fluid |
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What is articular cartilage? What is its purpose? |
The layer of cartilage that covers the ends of the articulating bones of synovial joints. Prevents articulating bones from rubbing against one another. |
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What connects bones to bones? |
Ligaments |
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What are ligaments that are separate from the outside of the joint capsule? |
Extrinsic ligaments |
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What are ligaments that are localized thickenings of the fibrous joint capsule? |
Intrinsic ligaments |
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What are articular discs/mensici? What are their function? |
Fibrocartilage pads. Complete discs or partial discs. Function: cushioning, stability, increase range of motion |
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What are fluid-filled synovial sacs? What is their function? Where are they found? |
Bursa. Protects structures from excessive friction. Found where tendons glide over a bone |
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True or false: In communicating bursa, the joint and bursa SHARE synovial fluid |
True |
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What is a bursa-like structure that completely encloses a tendon? |
Tendon sheath |
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What is a tendon? |
Connective tissue that connects muscle to bone. These transmit the force of a skeletal muscle contraction to the bone, causing the bone to move |
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Accessory ligaments, articular discs/menisci, bursae, and tendons are all associated features of what type of joints? Are they always present? |
Synovial joints. They are not always present |
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What is the degeneration of the articular cartilage with bony overgrowth and is the most common form of arthritis? |
Osteoarthritis |
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What are the common sites of osteoarthritis? |
Thumb, synovial joints of the spine, and joints that support the body weight (hips, knees) |
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What is the chronic, autoimmune, systemic, inflammatory disorder that attacks synovial membranes? |
Rheuamtoid arthritis |
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What are the common sites of rheumatoid arthritis? |
Small joints of the hands and feet-- not the weight-bearing joints |
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What are the 8 cranial bones? How many of each? |
Frontal (1), Parietals (2), Occipital (1), Temporal (2), Sphenoid (1), and Ethmoid (1) |
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What are the 14 facial bones? How many of each? |
Maxillae (2), Mandible (1), Zygomatic (2), Nasal (2), Lacrimal (2), Vomer (1), Inferior nasal concha (2), and Palatine (2) |
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What are the 7 associated bones? How many of each? |
Auditory ossicles (6), and the Hyoid bone (1) |
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What 3 cranial bones come together to makeup the calvarium or "skull cap?" |
Frontal, parietals, and occipital bones |
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What does ACF stand for? |
Anterior cranial fossa |
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What does MCF stand for? |
Middle cranial fossa |
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What does PCF stand for? |
Posterior cranial fossa |
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What is the function of the cranial fossae? |
"Support" the brain |
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In what bone is the supraorbital notch/foramen? What is its contents? |
Frontal bone. Supraorbital nerves |
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In what bone is the foramen magnum? What is its contents? |
Occipital bone. Spinal cord |
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In what bone is the jugular foramen? What is its contents? |
Occipital bone. Internal jugular vein |
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In what bone is the carotid canal? What is its contents? |
Temporal bone. Internal carotid artery |
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In what bone is the foramen spinosum? What is its contents? |
Sphenoid bone. Middle menengeal artery |
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What 7 bones make up the eye orbit? |
Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla, zygomatic, lacrimal, and palatine |
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What bones contain paranasal sinuses? |
Frontal, sphenoid, ethmoid, maxilla |
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List what bones the following suture is between: Coronal |
Frontal and parietal |
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List what bones the following suture is between: Sagittal |
Right and left parietals |
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List what bones the following suture is between: Squamosal |
Parietal and temporal |
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List what bones the following suture is between: Lambdoidal |
Parietals and occipital |
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What 4 bones come together at the pterion? |
Frontal, parietal, sphenoid, and temporal |
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How many cervical vertebrae are there? |
7. C1-C7 |
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How many thoracic vertebrae are there? |
12. T1-T12 |
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How many lumbar vertebrae are there? |
5. L1-L5 |
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How many bones are fused to form the sacrum? |
5. S1-S5 |
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How many bones are fused to form the coccyx? |
4-5. Co1-Co5 |
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From superior to inferior, what is the order of vertebrae in the vertebral column? |
Cervical, thoracic, lumbar, sacrum, coccyx |
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What are the primary vertebral curves? Are they concave anteriorly or posteriorly? |
Thoracic and sacral. Concave anteriorly |
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What are the secondary vertebral curves? Are they concave anteriorly or posteriorly? |
Cervical and lumbar. Concave posteriorly |
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Kyphosis or "hunchback" affects what region of the vertebral column? |
Thoracic |
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Lordosis or "swayback" affects what region of the vertebral column? |
Lumbar |
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True or false: The vertebrae INCREASE in size from superior to inferior |
True |
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What bony vertebral process is unpaired and projects posteriorly from the midline? |
Spinous process |
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What bony vertebral processes are paired and project laterally from the junction of the pedicle and lamina? |
Transverse processes |
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What bony vertebral process is paired and projects superiorly from the junction of the lamina and pedicle? |
Superior articulating process (SAP) |
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What bony vertebral process is paired and projects inferiorly from the junction of the lamina and pedicle? |
Inferior articulating process (IAP) |
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What is the sum total of all foramina from the vertebra? |
Vertebral canal |
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What forms the intervertebral foramen located between adjacent vertebrae? What does this allow the passage of? |
The superior vertebral notch and inferior vertebral notch. Allows the passage of spinal nerves |
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What type of vertebrae does this describe: Bodies are small and cup-shaped, they have a relatively large vertebral foramen in proportion to their size, C2-C6 have short, bifid (split) spinous processes. |
Cervical vertebrae |
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What type of vertebra's transverse processes have openings called transverse foramina? What passes through here? |
Cervical. Vertebral artery (supplies brain) |
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What do SAP and IAPs allow for? |
Flexion and extension |
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What does the following describe: Ring-shaped, does not have a body or a spinous process. Articulates with the occipital condyles to form the atlanto-occipital joint |
The Atlas (C1) |
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What two bones articulate to form the atlanto-occipital joint? |
The atlas and the occipital condyles of the skull |
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What does the following describe: The dens is part of this, which projects superiorly and articulates with the anterior arch of C1 |
The Axis (C2) |
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What forms the median atlanto-axial joint? |
The axis |
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What spinous process is very large and can be felt in the median furrow of the neck? |
The axis (C2) |
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What vertebrae has the longest spinous process of all the cervical vertebrae that can be felt as a PROMINENT bump at the base of the neck-midline? |
C7 |
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C7 closely resembles ____ (T1/T12) |
T1 |
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What vertebrae have larger, heart shaped bodies with facets and transverse processes for articulation with ribs? |
Thoracic vertebrae |
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What type of vertebrae generally looks like a giraffe because of its long and inferiorly sloping spinous processes? |
Thoracic vertebrae |
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What type of vertebrae have very large, kidney bean shaped bodies, with broad & blunt spinous process which point posteriorly, and short transverse processes? |
Lumbar vertebrae |
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What type of vertebrae generally looks like a moose? |
Lumbar vertebrae |
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The SAP and IAPs of thoracic vertebrae allow for what type of movement? |
Rotation |
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The SAP and IAPs of cervical vertebrae allow for what type of movement? |
Flexion/extension |
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The SAP and IAPs of lumbar vertebrae allow for what type of movement? |
Flexion/extension |
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What does the sacrum articulate with? |
The ilium of the hip bones |
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What bone is considered the "tailbone?" |
The coccyx |
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What type of joint is the atlanto-occipital joint? What type of movement does it permit? |
Synovial joint. Flexion/extension |
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What type of joint is the MEDIAN atlanto-axial joint? Where is it located? |
Synovial/pivot joints. Between C1 and C2 |
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What type of joints are the two LATERAL atlanto-axial joints? Where are they located? |
Zygapophyseal/synovial/gliding joints. Between articular facets of IAP of C1 and the articular facets of SAP of C2 |
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Where is the first IV disc joint found? |
Between C2 and C3 |
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Where is the last IV disc joint found? |
Between L5 and the sacrum |
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Anterior longitudinal ligaments (ALL) prevents neck ___ (hyperextension/hyperflexion) |
Hyperextension |
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Posterior longitudinal ligaments (PLL) prevents neck ___ (hyperextension/hyperflexion) |
Hyperflexion |
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What is the inner part of and IV disc called? Outer part? |
Inner: nucleus pulposus Outer: Annulus fibrosus |
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What bones make up the thoracic cage? |
T1-T12 vertebrae, 24 ribs (12 pairs) and the sternum |
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Which ribs are the true ribs that attach to the sternum by individual costal cartilages? |
1-7 |
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What ribs are the false ribs that attach to the costal cartilage of a superior rib? |
8-10 |
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What ribs are the floating ribs that have no anterior attachment? |
11 & 12 |
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What are the three parts of the sternum? |
1. Manubrium, 2. Body of the sternum, 3. Xiphoid process |
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What is the important palpable clinical landmark (ridge) that lies anterior to the T4/T5 IV disc? Where is it located? |
Sternal angle (of Louis). Location of aortic arch and trachea bifurcation |
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The atlanto-occipital joint articulates which two bones? |
C1 superior facets and the occipital condyles |
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What type of joints stabilize the vertebral column? |
Zygopophyseal (synovial, gliding joints) |
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What vertebral body does the head of the rib articulate with? |
Thoracic |
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What joints are found between the head of a rib and a vertebral body? These are gliding-type, synovial joints |
Costovertebral joints |
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What joints are found between the tubercle of a rib and the transverse process of a thoracic vertebra? These are gliding-type, synovial joints |
Costotransverse joints |
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True or false: Floating ribs (11 & 12) do not have costotransverse joints |
True |
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What joint is found between the sternal end of the costal cartilage and the sternum? This is a gliding-type, synovial joint. |
Sternocostal joint |
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True or false: Ribs 1-7 are sternocostal joints |
True |
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What joint is found between the manubrium and the body of the sternum at the sternal angle? This allows hinge-like movements |
Manubriosternal joint |
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What is the location where each rib attaches to its costal cartilage called? |
Costochondral junction |
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Where does rib dislocation occur? What is the joint? |
Between the sternum and the costal cartilage. Sternocostal joints |
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Do axial skeletal muscles play a role in movement or stabilization of the pectoral or pelvic girdles or the limbs? |
NO! |
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About what percentage of the skeletal muscles in the body are axial muscles? |
60% |
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Ipsilateral rotation is ____ (same/opposite) side rotation |
Same |
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Contralateral rotation is ___ (same/opposite) side rotation |
Opposite |
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What is the bilateral contraction of the sternocleidomastoid? |
Neck and head flexion |
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The sternocleidomastoid is ___ (superficial/deep) to large vessels/nerves of the neck |
Superficial |
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What is the unilateral contraction of the sternocleidomastoid? |
Produces opposite side rotation and same side flexion |
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Where are extrinsic muscles found? What do they help move? |
Found on the back, move the upper limb |
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What muscles are the "true" back muscles? What do they help move? |
The intrinsic muscles, move the vertebral column and head |
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What type of muscles are all innervated segmentally by dorsal primary rami of spinal nerves? |
Intrinsic muscles |
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What are the 3 layers of intrinsic back muscle? |
Superficial- Splenius Intermediate- Erector Spinae Deep- Transversospinalis |
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What group(s) of intrinsic back muscle travels superior-laterally from spinous processes to transverse processes? |
Splenius group and the lateral 2 of 3 erector spinae |
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What group of intrinsic back muscle travels superior-medially from transverse processes to spinous processes? |
Transversospinalis |
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What is the bilateral contraction of the splenius muscles? |
Extends head and neck |
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What is the unilateral contraction of the splenius muscles? |
Produces same side rotation and same side flexion of head |
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What are the three vertical columns of muscle that make up the Erector Spinae muscle group? (hint: "I love spaghetti") |
Iliocostalis, Longissimus, Spinalis (lateral-->medial) |
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What muscle group is made up of semispinalis, multifidus, and rotatores? |
Transversospinalis group |
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What is the attachment of each layer of the transversospinalis group? |
Inferior transverse processes --> Superior spinous processes |
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Which 4 muscles actions increases intraabdominal pressure? |
Rectus abdominus, extrnal abdominal oblique, internal abdominal oblique, transversus abdominus |
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What muscle is covered by the rectus sheath? |
Rectus abdominus |
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What muscle has a "hands in pocket" fiber direction? |
External abdominal oblique |
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What muscle has a "up and in" fiber direction? |
Internal abdominal oblique |
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What is the superficial layer of the abdominal wall? |
External abdominal oblique |
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What is the middle layer of the abdominal wall? |
Internal abdominal oblique |
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What is the deepest layer of the abdominal wall? |
Transversus abdominus |
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What is the name of the white line that runs vertically down the middle of the abdomen? |
Linea alba |
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What muscle is the "6 pack?" |
Rectus abdominus |
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List the abdominal muscles from deepest to most superficial |
Transversus abdominus, internal abdominal oblique, rectus abdominus (???) external abdominal oblique, skin |
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Which muscle group runs down the vertebral column? |
Transversospinalis |
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What is the top portion of the transversospinalis? |
Semispinalis |
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What is the bottom portion of the transversospinalis? |
Multifidus |
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The primary spinal curves are concave ____ (anteriorly/posteriorly) |
Anteriorly (think "cave out" towards the front) |
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The secondary spinal curves are concave ____ (anteriorly/posteriorly) |
Posteriorly (think "cave out" towards the back) |
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The hypochondriac regions are the ___ (upper/lower) abdominopelvic regions |
Upper |
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The iliac (inguinal) regions are the ___ (upper/lower) abdominopelvic regions |
Lower |
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The lumbar regions are the ___ (upper/lower/middle) abdominopelvic regions |
Middle |
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The epigastric region is ___ (superior/inferior) to the umbilical region |
Superior |
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The hypogastric region is ___ (superior/inferior) to the umbilical region |
Inferior |
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What transversospinalis muscle group spans 2-4 vertebrae? |
Multifidus |
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What transversospinalis muscle group spans 4-6 vertebrae? |
Semispinalis |
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What transversospinalis muscle group spans 1-2 vertebrae? |
Rotatores |
