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161 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Where in the nephron does most solute reabsorption occur?
a. proximal convoluted tubule b. distal convoluted tubule c. glomerulus d. collecting duct |
Proximal convoluted tubule
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Approximately 80% of the energy used for active transport is devoted to the reabsorption of __________.
a. potassium b. glucose c. sodium d. water |
Sodium
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What is the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
a. a system that regulates the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure b. a system for concentrating urine c. a system for diluting urine d. a system that protects the nephron from some chemicals found in blood |
A system that regulates the rate of filtrate formation and systemic blood pressure.
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Which of the following substances is not normally found in filtrate?
a. water and small solutes b. blood cells and large particles c. nitrogenous waste particles, such as urea d. ions, such as sodium and potassium |
Blood cells and large particles
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What is the primary driving force (pressure) that produces glomerular filtration?
a. hydrostatic pressure of blood (blood pressure) b. colloid osmotic pressure of blood c. gravity |
Hydrostatic pressure of blood (blood pressure)
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Which of the following would only be found in the glomerular filtrate if the glomerular membrane were damaged?
a. glucose b. chloride c. creatinine d. protein |
Protein
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If the osmotic pressure in the glomerular capillaries increased from 28 mm Hg to 35 mm Hg, would net filtration increase or decrease?
a. net filtration would not be altered b. net filtration would decrease c. net filtration would increase |
Net filtration would decrease
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Calculate the net filtration pressure if capillary hydrostatic pressure is 60 mm Hg, capillary osmotic pressure is 25 mm Hg, and capsular hydrostatic pressure is 10 mm Hg.
a. 35 mm Hg b. 25 mm Hg c. 60 mm Hg d. 50 mm Hg |
25 mm Hg
(Yes, 60 – (25 + 10) = 25 mm Hg. The two pressures that oppose filtration must be subtracted from the force favoring filtration.) |
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Most solutes that are reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule use which of the following pathways?
a. transcellular b. paracellular |
Transcellular
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During reabsorption of water in the proximal convoluted tubule, what causes water to diffuse from the lumen into the interstitial space?
a. a decrease in the osmolarity of the interstitium b. active transport of water c. an increase in the osmolarity of the interstitium |
An increase in the osmolarity of the interstitium
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The decreased intracellular concentration of sodium in tubular cells during active transport is caused by which of the following mechanisms?
a. the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in the luminal membrane b. sodium-glucose cotransporter c. the sodium-potassium ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane d. passive sodium channels |
The sodium-potassium ATPase pump in the basolateral membrane
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The active transport of which ion out of proximal convoluted tubule cells causes the reabsorption of both water and solutes?
a. chloride b. sodium c. potassium |
Sodium
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Which of the following transporters in the luminal membrane results in secretion?
a. Na+-glucose cotransporter b. Na+-H+ countertransport c. glucose carrier transporter d. potassium ion channel |
Na+-H+ countertransport
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What is the limiting factor for the reabsorption of most actively transported solutes in the proximal tubule?
a. number of transport carriers in the basolateral membrane b. number of transport carriers in the luminal membrane c. number of sodium-potassium ATPase pumps in the basolateral membrane |
Number of transport carriers in the luminal membrane
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Which of the following best describes glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
a. the volume of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries per minute b. the volume of filtrate created at the glomerulus per liter of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries c. the volume of urine leaving the kidneys per minute d. the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute |
The volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute
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GFR regulation mechanisms primarily affect which of the following?
a. capsular osmotic pressure (OPc) b. blood osmotic pressure (OPg) c. glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg) d. capsular hydrostatic pressure (HPc) |
Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg)
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Which of the following are mechanisms of intrinsic control of glomerular filtration (renal autoregulation)?
a. sympathetic nervous system control and the renin-angiotensin mechanism b. myogenic mechanism and sympathetic nervous system control c. tubuloglomerular feedback and the renin-angiotensin mechanism d. myogenic mechanism and tubuloglomerular feedback |
Myogenic mechanism and tubuloglomerular feedback
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Macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) regulate GFR through which intrinsic mechanism?
a. myogenic mechanism b. sympathetic nervous system control c. tubuloglomerular feedback d. renin-angiotensin mechanism |
Tubuloglomerular feedback
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The myogenic mechanism of renal autoregulation primarily involves smooth muscle in which blood vessels?
a. efferent arterioles b. systemic arterioles c. afferent arterioles d. glomeruli |
Afferent arterioles
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What does a high concentration of NaCl in the renal tubule at the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) most likely indicate?
a. insufficient NaCl reabsorption due to low GFR b. insufficient NaCl reabsorption due to high GFR c. excessive NaCl reabsorption due to high GFR d. excessive NaCl reabsorption due to low GFR |
Insufficient NaCl reabsorption due to high GFR
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Through the tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism, how would an increase in filtrate NaCl concentration affect afferent arteriole diameter?
a. Afferent arteriole diameter would increase. b. Afferent arteriole diameter would decrease. c. Afferent arteriole diameter would stay about the same. |
Afferent arteriole diameter would decrease.
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Granular cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus (JGA) regulate GFR through which mechanism?
a. myogenic mechanism b. sympathetic nervous system controls c. tubuloglomerular feedback mechanism d. renin-angiotensin mechanism |
Renin-angiotensin mechanism
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Which part of the brain controls the micturition reflex?
a. cerebrum b. pons c. hypothalamus d. medulla oblongata |
Pons
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The __________ keeps the urethra closed when urine is not being passed from the bladder and prevents leaking between voiding.
a. internal urethral sphincter b. external urethral sphincter c. prostatic urethra d. external urethral orifice |
Internal urethral sphincter
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Since most patients with renal failure produce little or no urine, hemodialysis often involves removal of water from the blood. However, side-effects may develop if too much fluid is removed from the blood. Which of the following is NOT one of the potential side-effects?
a. dizziness b. vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles c. low blood pressure d. muscle fatigue |
Vasoconstriction of afferent arterioles
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The frequency of cystitis in men is lower than in women because ______.
a. the external urethral sphincter in men is usually closed b. the internal urethral sphincter in men is usually closed c. the pH of a man's urine is usually more acidic than a woman's urine d. the male urethra is longer than the female urethra |
The male urethra is longer than the female urethra
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Urinary incontinence may occur if a person has ______.
a. an internal urethral sphincter that is too frequently relaxed b. an external urethral sphincter that is too frequently contracted c. an overactive detrusor muscle d. All of the listed responses are correct. |
An overactive detrusor muscle
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What two structures constitute the renal corpuscle?
a. glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule b. proximal convoluted tubule and nephron loop c. renal tubule and collecting duct d. glomerulus and renal tubule |
Glomerulus and glomerular (Bowman's) capsule
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Which capillary bed produces filtrate?
a. glomerulus b. vasa recta c. juxtaglomerular complex (JGC) d. peritubular capillaries |
Glomerulus
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What is the function of the macula densa cells of the juxtaglomerular complex (JGC)?
a. The macula densa cells pass regulatory signals between other cells of the juxtaglomerular complex. b. The macula densa cells produce filtrate. c. The macula densa cells monitor the NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule. d. The macula densa cells sense blood pressure in the afferent arteriole. |
The macula densa cells monitor The NaCl content of the filtrate entering the distal convoluted tubule.
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What vessel directly feeds into the glomerulus?
a. efferent arteriole b. vasa recta c. cortical radiate artery d. afferent arteriole |
Afferent arteriole
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The glomerulus differs from other capillaries in the body in that it ________.
a. is impermeable to most substances b. is drained by an efferent arteriole c. has a basement membrane d. has a blood pressure much lower than other organ systems |
Is drained by an efferent arteriole
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The fatty tissue surrounding the kidneys is important because it ________.
a. is necessary as a barrier between the adrenal glands and kidneys b. stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position c. ensures adequate energy for the adrenal glands to operate efficiently d. produces vitamin D and other chemicals needed by the kidney |
Stabilizes the position of the kidneys by holding them in their normal position
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Select the correct statement about the nephrons.
a. The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium. b. Podocytes are the branching epithelial cells that line the tubules of the nephron. c. Filtration slits are the pores that give fenestrated capillaries their name. d. The glomerulus is correctly described as the proximal end of the proximal convoluted tubule. |
The parietal layer of the glomerular capsule is simple squamous epithelium.
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What is the most direct function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
a. help regulate blood pressure and the rate of excretion by the kidneys b. help regulate urea absorption by the kidneys c. help regulate water and electrolyte excretion by the kidneys d. help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys |
Help regulate blood pressure and the rate of blood filtration by the kidneys
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T/F: The proximal convoluted tubule is the portion of the nephron that attaches to the collecting duct.
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False
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Calculate the net filtration pressure if blood pressure in the glomerulus is unusually high, around 68 mm Hg.
a. 15 mm Hg b. 113 mm Hg c. 83 mm Hg d. 23 mm Hg |
23 mm Hg
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T/F: Under normal conditions, the large renal arteries deliver one-fourth of the total cardiac output (about 1200 ml) to the kidneys each minute.
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True
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T/F: Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (HPg) is the chief force pushing water and solutes out of the blood and across the filtration membrane.
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True
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T/F: The leading cause of chronic renal disease is hypertension.
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False
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Reabsorption of high levels of glucose and amino acids in the filtrate is accomplished by ________.
a. passive transport b. facilitated diffusion c. countertransport d. secondary active transport |
Secondary active transport
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Alcohol acts as a diuretic because it ________.
a. is not reabsorbed by the tubule cells b. increases secretion of ADH c. inhibits the release of ADH d. increases the rate of glomerular filtration |
Inhibits the release of ADH
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If the Tm for a particular amino acid is 120 mg/100 ml and the concentration of that amino acid in the blood is 230 mg/100 ml, the amino acid will ________.
a. be completely reabsorbed by the tubule cells b. appear in the urine c. be actively secreted into the filtrate d. be completely reabsorbed by secondary active transport |
Appear in the urine
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Which of the following is an electrolyte?
a. phospholipid b. potassium c. glucose d. cholesterol |
Potassium
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What solute in body fluids determines most of their chemical and physical reactions?
a. glucose b. nonelectrolytes c. electrolytes d. water |
Electrolytes
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The fluid link between the external and internal environment is ________.
a. intracellular fluid b. cerebrospinal fluid c. plasma d. interstitial fluid |
Plasma
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The movement of fluids between cellular compartments ________.
a. is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces b. involves filtration c. requires active transport d. requires ATP for the transport to take place |
Is regulated by osmotic and hydrostatic forces
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T/F: Adipose tissue is one of the most hydrated of all tissues in the human body.
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False
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In a given day, what is the typical value for water intake?
a. 250 mL b. 2500 ml c. 750 ml d. 1500 ml |
2500 mL
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How much water is generated per day from cellular metabolism?
a. 1500 ml b. 750 ml c. 2500 ml d. 250 ml |
250 ml
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Which of the following is NOT involved in triggering the thirst mechanism?
a. osmoreceptors detect increased osmolality b. dry mouth c. increase in blood pressure d. decrease in blood volume |
Increase in blood pressure
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What receptors does the brain use to detect changes in osmolality?
a. chemoreceptors b. thermoreceptors c. baroreceptors d. osmoreceptors |
Osmoreceptors
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What hormone helps to maintain extracellular fluid (ECF) osmolality when concentrations become too high?
a. angiotensin II b. aldosterone c. antidiuretic hormone (ADH) d. parathyroid hormone (PTH) |
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH)
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What type of water imbalance increases the amount of fluid in all compartments?
a. edema b. dehydration c. hypotonic hydration d. inflammation |
Hypotonic hydration
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Which of the following conditions promotes edema?
a. hemorrhage b. hyponatremia c. diabetes mellitus d. hypoproteinemia |
Hypoproteinemia
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What is the hallmark of hypotonic hydration?
a. hypernatremia b. hypercalcemia c. hypoproteinemia d. hyponatremia |
Hypoatremia
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Under normal circumstances, most water is lost in __________.
a. feces b. insensible losses via skin and lungs c. urine d. sweat |
Urine
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The role of ADH is to __________.
a. decrease water reabsorption b. lower blood pressure c. increase water reabsorption d. produce dilute urine |
Increase water reabsorption
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What is the driving force for water intake?
a. ADH b. thirst c. aldosterone d. glucose concentration |
Thirst
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The body's water volume is closely tied to a powerful water "magnet." What magnet is referred to here?
a. water level in the intracellular compartment b. ionic potassium c. water level in the extracellular compartment d. ionic sodium |
Ionic sodium
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Which of the following hormones is important in stimulating water conservation in the kidneys?
a. atrial natriuretic peptide b. antidiuretic hormone c. aldosterone d. progesterone |
Antidiuretic hormone
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One of the major physiological factors that triggers thirst is ________.
a. drinking caffeinated beverages b. a rise in plasma osmolality c. a dry mouth from high temperatures d. becoming overly agitated |
A rise in plasma osmolality
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T/F: The thirst center in the brain is located in the hypothalamus.
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True
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T/F: Dehydration can be caused by endocrine disturbances such as diabetes mellitus or diabetes insipidus.
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True
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T/F: Water imbalance, in which output exceeds intake, causing an imbalance in body fluids, is termed dehydration.
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True
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What is the most important trigger for aldosterone release?
a. decreased sodium ion concentration in the extracellular fluids (ECF) b. decreased K+ concentration in the extracellular fluids (ECF) c. renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism d. increased osmolality of the extracellular fluids (ECF) |
Renin-angiotensin-aldosterone mechanism
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What results from increased levels of aldosterone?
a. increased K+ reabsorption b. increased Ca2+ reabsorption c. decreased Na+ reabsorption d. increased Na+ reabsorption |
Increased Na+ reabsorption
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PTH (parathyroid hormone) acts on the __________ to __________ Ca2+ reabsorption.
a. liver; decrease b. bones; decrease c. large intestine; increase d. DCT; increase |
DCT; increase
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T/F:Potassium balance is controlled mainly by renal mechanisms.
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True
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Which of the following is NOT a hormone involved in water and electrolyte balance?
a. ADH b. aldosterone c. atrial natriuretic peptide d. thyroxine |
Thyroxine
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A patient is discovered to have a strange craving for iron objects. To try to determine the cause, her physician decides to order tests to determine if this patient might have some type of ______.
a. hypothyroidism b. diabetes c. acidosis d. anemia |
Anemia
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Hypersecretion of aldosterone results in hypokalemia, which causes hyperpolarization of neurons; this in turn results in ______.
a. increased speed of sodium-potassium pump activity in order to compensate for the reduced concentration of potassium ions b. decreased plasma membrane permeability to potassium ions c. the need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential d. a craving for more salt in the diet |
The need for a stronger than normal stimulus in order to trigger an action potential
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Which of the following is the only logical explanation for why hypocalcemia increases neuromuscular excitability and causes muscle tetany?
a. Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the release of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. b. Low plasma calcium ion concentration decreases the rate of exocytosis of synaptic vesicles. c. Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated. d. Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the likelihood of acetic acid and choline being formed in the synaptic cleft when a neuron is stimulated to the threshold level. |
Low plasma calcium ion concentration increases the permeability of neuron membranes to sodium ions, thereby causing depolarization that in turn increases the likelihood of action potentials being generated.
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Hypermagnesemia
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Magnesium excess
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Hypocalcemia
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Calcium depletion
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Hypernatremia
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Sodium excess
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Hyperkalemia
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Potassium excess
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Hyponatremia
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Sodium depletion
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An atypical accumulation of fluid in the interstitial space.
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Edema
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Hypoproteinemia
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A condition of unusually low levels of plasma proteins resulting in tissue edema
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A disorder entailing deficient mineralocorticoid hormone production by the adrenal cortex
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Addison's Disease
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Regulates sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid
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Aldosterone
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A condition due to excessive water intake that results in net osmosis into tissue cells. This leads to severe metabolic disturbances.
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Hyponatremia
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Which of the following hormones is important in the regulation of sodium ion concentrations in the extracellular fluid?
a. erythropoietin b. renin c. aldosterone d. antidiuretic hormone |
Aldosterone
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Atrial natriuretic peptide is a hormone that is made in the atria of the heart. The influence of this hormone is to ________.
a. reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention b. enhance atrial contractions c. activate the renin-angiotensin mechanism d. prevent pH changes caused by organic acids |
Reduce blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting sodium and water retention
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The single most important factor influencing potassium ion secretion is ________.
a. the pH of the ICF b. potassium ion concentration in blood plasma c. intracellular sodium levels d. the potassium ion content in the renal tubule cell |
Potassium ion concentration in blood plasma
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What hormone reduces blood pressure and blood volume by inhibiting nearly all events that promote vasoconstriction and sodium ion and water retention?
a. ADH b. thyroxine c. atrial natriuretic peptide d. aldosterone |
Atrial natriuretic peptide
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Which of the following is not a trigger for juxtaglomerular granular cells to release renin?
a. increased extracellular fluid water levels b. sympathetic stimulation c. decreased filtrate NaCl concentration d. decreased stretch due to decreased blood pressure |
Increased extracellular fluid water levels
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This chemical equation shows the reaction of a strong acid and weak base in the bicarbonate buffer system. Provide the products of the following reaction. HCl + NaHCO3 -->
a. NaHCO3 + H2O b. H2CO3 + NaCl c. NaOH + NaH2PO4 d. NaH2PO4 + NaCl |
H2CO3 + NaCl
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Which chemical buffer system is the only important system in the extracellular fluid (ECF) that resists short-term changes in pH?
a. protein buffer system b. physiological buffering systems c. bicarbonate buffer system d. phosphate buffer system |
Bicarbonate buffer system
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In order to buffer a strong acid into a weak acid, which has a less dramatic effect on pH, what chemical should be used as the buffer?
a. weak base b. weak acid c. water d. salt |
Weak base
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A decrease in blood CO2 levels leads to __________.
a. an increase in carbonic acid b. an increase in blood pH c. a drop in blood pH d. an increased respiratory rate |
An increase in blood pH
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The most common cause of acid-base imbalance is __________.
a. metabolic acidosis b. metabolic alkalosis c. respiratory alkalosis d. respiratory acidosis |
Respiratory acidosis
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Which buffer system is the most abundant in the body?
a. hydrogen b. protein c. phosphate d. carbonic acid-bicarbonate |
Protein
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What is the effect of hyperventilation on pH?
a. respiratory acidosis b. metabolic acidosis c. metabolic alkalosis d. respiratory alkalosis |
Respiratory alkalosis
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The term alkaline reserve is used to describe the ________ buffer system.
a. protein b. bicarbonate c. phosphate d. hemoglobin |
Bicarbonate
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Which of the following is not a chemical buffer system?
a. protein b. nucleic acid c. bicarbonate d. phosphate |
Nucleic acid
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Sperm is produced in the __________ of the testes.
a. tunica vaginalis b. tunica albuginea c. myoid cells d. seminiferous tubules |
Seminiferous tubules
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Why are the male testes located in the scrotum outside the body?
a. Their external location is necessary for penile development. b. Immature sperm are temperature sensitive. c. It helps the male secondary sexual characteristics develop. d. The testes develop better outside the body. |
Immature sperm are temperature sensitive.
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The dartos and cremaster muscles are important to the integrity of the male reproductive system. Which of the following is true about the role they play?
a. They contract to push sperm along the ductus deferens. b They contract to allow ejaculation. c. They are responsible for penile erection. d. They regulate the temperature of the testes. |
They regulate the temperature of the testes.
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The most important risk for testicular cancer in young males is ________.
a. smoking b. a diet high in fat c. sexually transmitted infections d. undescended testes |
Undescended testes
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How do the testes respond to exposure to excessive body warmth?
a. They move close to the pelvic cavity. b. Excessive warmth is actually beneficial in that it speeds up the maturation of sperm. c. Excessive warmth has no effect on the testicles because of their location in the scrotum. d. They move away from the pelvic cavity. |
They move away from the pelvic cavity.
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Prostate cancer is _______.
a. the number-one cause of death in men b. often the result of a distortion of the urethra c. sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient d. most common in Asians |
Sometimes a slow-growing cancer that may never represent a threat to the patient
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Which of the following cells is returned to the basal lamina to continue the pool of dividing germ cells?
a. type B daughter cell b. type A daughter cell or spermatogonium c. secondary spermatocyte d. primary spermatocyte |
Type A daughter cell or spermatogonium
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Which of the following inhibits the release of FSH from the anterior pituitary and GnRH from the hypothalamus when the sperm count is high?
a. androgen-binding protein (ABP) b. estradiol c. luteinizing hormone (LH) d. inhibin |
Inhibin
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Which of the following keeps the concentration of testosterone in the vicinity of the spermatogenic cells high to stimulate spermatogenesis?
a. inhibin b. dihydrotestosterone (DHT) c. GnRH d. androgen-binding protein (ABP) |
Androgen-binding protein (ABP)
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Which of the following occurs during spermiogenesis?
a. spermatids are produced b. sustentacular cells are produced c. spermatogonia are produced d. sperm are produced |
Sperm are produced
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Enzymes that allow sperm to penetrate the egg are located in the __________ of the sperm cell.
a. mitochondria b. acrosome c. midpiece d. tail |
Acrosome
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The release of __________ encourages interstitial endocrine cells to release __________.
a. luteinizing hormone; testosterone b. inhibin; testosterone c. luteinizing hormone; androgen-binding protein d. follicle-stimulating hormone; androgen-binding protein |
Luteinizing hormone; testosterone
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The ability of a male to ejaculate is due to the action of ________.
a. parasympathetic nerves b. luteinizing hormone c. the bulbospongiosus muscles d. the dartos muscle |
The bulbospongiosus muscles
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Why is the blood testis barrier important?
a. because the barrier traps sex hormones, keeping them at a higher level than the blood. b. because spermatozoa and developing cells produce surface antigens that are recognized as foreign by the immune system c. because some blood contents are toxic to the spermatozoa d. because immature sperm cells lose their motility when they encounter any blood component |
Because spermatozoa and developing cells produce surface antigens that are recognized as foreign by the immune system
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Erection of the penis results from ________.
a. dilation of the veins in the penis b. a sympathetic reflex c. a parasympathetic reflex d. parasympathetic activation of the bulbo-urethral glands |
A parasympathetic reflex
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Which male hormone inhibits the secretion of FSH?
a. ICSH b. inhibin c. ACTH d. GnRH |
Inhibin
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A boy who has not passed through puberty sustains an injury to his anterior pituitary such that FSH is no longer released, but LH is normal. After he grows to maturity, one would expect that he would ________.
a. not develop secondary sex characteristics b. have impaired function of interstitial endocrine cells c. be impotent (unable to have an erection) d. be sterile |
Be sterile
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T/F: When a couple is having difficulty conceiving a child, it is necessary to investigate the sperm of the male.
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True
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Which wall of the uterus is made of smooth muscle?
a. endometrium b. mesometrium c. perimetrium d. myometrium |
Myometrium
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Which specific layer of the uterus is shed during menstruation, approximately every 28 days?
a. stratum functionalis of the endometrium b. mesometrium c. stratum basalis of the endometrium d. myometrium |
Stratum functionalis of the endometrium
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Which structure of the female's external genitalia has erectile tissue like the penis?
a. vulva b. mons pubis c. labia majora d. clitoris |
Clitoris
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Which of the following is FALSE regarding the vagina of an adult female?
a. The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline. b. The mucosa of the vagina is stratified squamous epithelium. c. The vaginal mucosa lacks glands. d. The vagina is also called the birth canal. |
The pH of the adult vagina is alkaline
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Which layer of the uterus is the site for implantation of a fertilized egg?
a. stratum functionalis of the endometrium b. stratum basalis of the endometrium c. perimetrium d. myometrium |
Stratus functionalis of the endometrium
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Which of the following conditions might contribute to an increased probability of having an ectopic pregnancy?
a. reduced blood flow to the ovaries b. decreased number of cilia in the uterine tubes c. reduced number of granulosa cells d. decreased rate of formation of vesicular follicles |
Decreased number of cilia in the uterine tubes
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Fertilization generally occurs in the ________.
a. ovary b. vagina c. uterine tubes d. uterus |
Uterine tubes
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Which of the following cells is released during ovulation?
a. ovum b. primary oocyte c. oogonium d. secondary oocyte |
Secondary oocyte
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How many functional gametes are produced by oogenesis?
a. one functional gamete b. two functional gametes c. three functional gametes d. four functional gametes |
One functional gamete
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What event occurs during the proliferative phase?
a. menstruation b. enrichment of the blood supply and glandular secretions prepare for reception of an embryo c. ovulation d. stratum functionalis is shed |
Ovulation
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What hormone promotes ovulation?
a. leptin b. progesterone c. luteinizing hormone (LH) d. inhibin |
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
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During the secretory phase of the uterine cycle __________.
a. the endometrium prepares for implantation b. the endometrium is shed c. ovulation occurs d. the functional layer of the endometrium regenerates |
The endometrium prepares for implantation
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Which of the following is an effect of estrogen in females?
a. promotes lactation b. promotes oogenesis c. suppresses the effect of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) d. promotes water loss (diuresis) |
Promotes oogenesis
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T/F: Oocytes only complete meiosis II if they are fertilized.
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True
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Why does only one egg, rather than four eggs, develop during oogenesis, given that spermatogenesis results in four sperm formed from one stem cell?
a. Actually, gametogenesis (oogenesis in the female and spermatogenesis in the male) produces four eggs and four sperm. b. The egg does not go through the meiotic division processes that the sperm undergo. c. The unequal cytoplasmic division that results in one egg and three polar bodies ensures that a fertilized egg has ample nutrients for its journey to the uterus. d. Only one egg can be fertilized at a time. |
The unequal cytoplasmic division that results in one egg and three polar bodies ensures that a fertilized egg has ample nutrients for its journey to the uterus.
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What is the role of the corpus luteum?
a. to stimulate the female sexual response b. to produce the primary oocytes c. to produce hormones that maintain the uterine lining during the first months of pregnancy d. ovulation |
To produce hormones that maintain the uterine lining during the first months of pregnancy
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Amenorrhea can occur in women engaged in extremely strenuous physical activity, and also occurs in women who ______.
a. are pregnant b. are overweight for a prolonged period of time c. participate in normal physical activity d. All of the listed responses are correct. |
Are pregnant
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In humans, separation of the cells at the two-cell state following fertilization may lead to the production of twins, which in this case would be ________.
a. fraternal b. of different sexes c. identical d. dizygotic |
Identical
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Select the correct statement about the uterine cycle.
a. If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo. b. The menstrual phase of the cycle is normally from day 1 to day 8. c. During the proliferative phase, levels of progesterone rise as the follicle begins to produce more hormone. d. During the secretory phase, estrogen levels are at their highest. |
If fertilization occurs, the corpus luteum is maintained by a hormone secreted by the developing embryo.
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The basic difference between spermatogenesis and oogenesis is that ________.
a. spermatogenesis involves mitosis and meiosis, but oogenesis involves meiosis only b. in oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell c. during spermatogenesis two more polar bodies are produced d. the mature ovum is n, while the sperm is 2n |
In oogenesis, one mature ovum is produced, and in spermatogenesis four mature sperm are produced from the parent cell
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All of the following statements referring to the uterine cycle are true except ________.
a. estrogen is secreted by the developing follicle in the follicular phase of the cycle b. the corpus luteum is formed from the ruptured follicle after ovulation c. a decrease in the levels of ovarian hormones signals menstruation d. FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium |
FSH and LH directly promote development of the uterine endometrium
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T/F: The corpus luteum secretes progesterone only.
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False
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The fertilized egg is known as the __________.
a. conceptus b. embryo c. zygote d. fetus |
Zygote
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T/F: In humans, zonal inhibiting proteins destroy sperm receptors, preventing polyspermy.
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True
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How long is the egg viable and capable of being fertilized after it is ovulated?
a. 24-36 hours b. 36-72 hours c. 12-24 hours d. a full week |
12-24 hours
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T/F: The period from fertilization through week eight is called the embryonic period.
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True
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Sperm freshly deposited in the female vagina are incapable of fertilizing an egg. What must happen first?
a. capacitation b. gestation c. cortical reaction d. acrosomal reaction |
Capacitation
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How much time passes after fertilization until implantation occurs?
a. 3 days b. 2 days c. 36 hours d. 7 days |
7 days
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What releases human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)?
a. inner cell mass b. trophoblast c. blastocyst d. morula |
Trophoblast
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What membrane does the trophoblast form after implantation?
a. amnion b. yolk sac c. chorion d. allantois |
Chorion
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Together, what do the decidua basalis and the chorionic villi form?
a. chorion b. placenta c. yolk sac d. amnion |
Placenta
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Which of the following is the primary germ layer that forms the basis for the digestive, respiratory, and urogenital systems, and for associated glands?
a. ectoderm b. endoderm c. gastroderm d. mesoderm |
Endoderm
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Which hormone maintains the viability of the corpus luteum?
a. estrogen b. human chorionic gonadotropin c. progesterone d. human placental lactogen |
Human chorionic gonadotropin
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The correct sequence of preembryonic structures is ________.
a. zygote, morula, blastocyst b. blastocyst, morula, zygote c. morula, zygote, blastocyst d. zygote, blastocyst, morula |
Zygote, morula, blastocyst
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What structure(s) ultimately form(s) the placenta?
a. decidua basalis and chorionic villi b. decidua capsularis and chorionic villi c. decidua basalis and amnion d. decidua capsularis and amnion |
Decidua basalis and chorionic villi
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T/F: A pregnancy test involves antibodies that detect GH levels in a woman's blood or urine.
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False
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What does the hormone relaxin promote?
a. Relaxin promotes the relaxation, widening, and increased flexibility of the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis. b. Relaxin imparts a purplish hue to the vagina. c. Relaxin promotes increased pigmentation of the facial skin of the nose and cheeks. d. Relaxin promotes enlargement of the breasts. |
Relaxin promotes the relaxation, widening, and increased flexibility of the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis.
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A dangerous complication of pregnancy called __________ results in an insufficient placental blood supply, which can starve a fetus of oxygen. The pregnant woman becomes edematous and hypertensive, and proteinuria occurs.
a. parturition b. dyspnea c. preeclampsia d. dystocia |
Preeclampsia
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T/F: While human chorionic gonadotropin levels spike and sharply decline to reach a low value by four months, estrogen and progesterone levels steadily increase over the course of the pregnancy.
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True
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Which body system of a pregnant woman shows the most dramatic physiological changes during pregnancy?
a. cardiovascular system b. respiratory system c. urinary system d. digestive system |
Cardiovascular system
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What role does oxytocin play in promoting labor?
a. Oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract. b. Oxytocin stimulates the myometrial cells of the uterus to form oxytocin receptors. c. Oxytocin antagonizes progesterone's quieting influence on uterine muscle. d. Oxytocin promotes the formation of gap junctions between the uterine smooth muscle cells. |
Oxytocin stimulates the uterus to contract
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Which of the following serves as the trigger to begin the vigorous, rhythmic contractions of true labor?
a. oxytocin b. progesterone c. relaxin d. prostaglandins |
Prostaglandins
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What is released from fetal lungs in the weeks before delivery to soften the cervix in preparation for labor?
a. estrogens b. prostaglandins c. surfactant protein A (SP-A) d. oxytocin |
Surfactant protein A (SP-A)
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How long does the expulsion stage typically last in a first birth?
a. 6-12 hours b. 20 minutes c. 2-3 minutes d. 50 minutes |
50 minutes
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T/F: An episiotomy is an incision made to widen the vaginal orifice, aiding fetal expulsion.
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True
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T/F: The placenta and its attached fetal membranes are collectively called the afterbirth.
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True
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