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172 Cards in this Set
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In general, how many days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats? a. 5-7 days b. 1-3 days c. 48-72 hours d. 28 days |
In general (a) 5-7 days should be allowed for diet changes in dogs and cats This limits digestive upset by allowing for a slow change and adjustment |
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As a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for a. increase in calories b. decrease in fat, increase in fiber c. addition of table scraps d. decrease in fiber |
AS a dog or cat transitions from immature to mature, the recommended diet change is for a (B) decrease in fat, increase in fiber Fewer calories are required once growth is complete and fiber is beneficial for GI function |
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Which of the following is/are antioxidants a. lipoic acids, vitamin E, vitamin C b. l-carnitine c. vitamin K d. Krebs cycles |
(A) Lipoic acids, vitamin E, vitamin C are antioxidants |
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On average, an adult horse consumes approximately how many gallons of water per day? a. 10-15 b. 5-7 c. 25 d. 1 |
On average, an adult horse consumes approximately (a) 10-15 gallons of water per day |
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Puppies, kittens, and nursing mothers require a. similar levels of protein in their diet b. vitamin supplementation c. high levels of fiber for energy d. few calories |
Puppies, kittens, and nursing mothers require (a) similar levels of protein in their diet High-protein diets are necessary for lactation and growth |
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What ratio is compromised by feeding a diet high in bran to horses? a. Na/Cl b. Ca/P c. Vitamins A/D d. Mg/CO2 |
The following ratio is compromised by feeding a diet high in bran to horses (b) Ca/P Bran is high in phosphorous |
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Oversupplementation of vegetable oils can result in
a. increase in serum nitrogen b. decrease in absorption of vitamins A,D, E, and K c. Greasy Coat d. Predisposition to autoimmune disease |
OVersupplementation of vegetable oils can result in (b) decrease in absorption of vitamins A, D, E, and K
Fat-soluble vitamins |
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Psyllium is a source of a. fat b. protein c. fiber d. carbohydrates |
psyllium is a source of (c) fiber husks are a fermentable, gel-forming source and a common ingredient in fiber supplements |
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a factor included in body condition score of dogs and cats is
a. age b. visible waist c. weight d. palpation of ribs |
a factor included in body condition score of dogs and cats is (b) visible waist Should show an hourglass profile when viewed from above |
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Chondroitin sulfates are an example of a. flavor enhancement b. a nutraceutical c. FDA-approved treatment d. parenteral medicaiton |
Chondroitin sulfates are an example of (a nutraceutical A coined phrase from nutrition and pharmaceutical |
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FAilure to decrease the grain intake for a horse that transitions from training/work to an idle status may cause a. polydipsia b. azoturia c. anorexia d. pyrexia |
FAilure to decrease the grain intake for a horse that transitions from training/work to an idle status may cause (b) azoturia buildup of waste products leading to a diseased state of renal function |
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Which of the following vitamins is/are water soluble?
a. vitamins A and D b. vitamin E c. vitamin B12 d. Vitamin K |
(C) vitamin b12 is water soluble B vitamins are water-soluable |
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hypoallergenic diets oftentimes contain a. soybean b. corn c. rice d. ethoxyquin |
hypoallergenic diets oftentimes contain (c) rice protein source with low allergic potential |
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which of the following is most often associated with cancer patients? a. cachexia b. obesity c. polyphagia d. increased appetite |
(A) cachexia is most often associated with cancer patients
cachexia is a weakness and wasting of the body due to severe chronic illness. cancer patients often lose weight even if their intake of food does not diminish |
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When feeding horses, it is recommended to measure feed a. by volume, not weight b. as per-day ration c. by weight, not volume d. according to supplementation |
When feeding horses, it is recommended to measure feed (a) by volume, not weight The horse stomach can hold approximately 5# at a time |
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Flaxseed is an especially good source of a. B vitamins b. vitamin C c. omega-3 and six vitamins d. vitamin D |
Flaxseed is an especially good source of (c) omega-3 and sex vitamins |
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Horses are generally fed grain to meet what need? a. appetite b. energy c. digestion d. vitamin |
Horses are generally fed grain to meet their (b) energy need generally inadequate with forage diet only |
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Oversupplementation of which of the following can be detrimental? a. vitamin C b. vitamin K c. selenium d. biotin |
Oversupplementaiton of (c) selenium can be detrimental Signs of selenium toxicity include nervousness, anorexia, and ataxia |
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which of the following is a normal urine pH for a cat? a. 6.2 b. 6.0 c. 7.0 d. 7.5 |
(A) 6.2 is a normal urine pH for a cat The normal urine pH range for cats is 6.2 to 6.6 |
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AAFCO a. oversees pet food advertising b. substantiates nutrition claims by implementing procedures for animal feeding tests c. differentiates between soy- and meat-based diets d. sets parameters for pet food prices |
AAFCO (B) substantiates nutrition claims by implementing procedures for animal feeding tests AAFCO is the association of american feed control officials |
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WHen a product is labeled as flavored, it must contain at least what percent of said ingredient? a. 10% b. 28% c. 3% d. 12% |
When a product is labeled as flavored it must contain at least 3% of said ingredient PEr AAFCO guidelines |
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Alfalfa is a palatable source of protein for herbivores. In what macromineral is alfalfa also abundant? a. cobalt b. calcium c. zinc d. iron |
Alfalfa is a palatable source of protein for herbivores. Alfalfa is also abudant in the macromineral (b) calcium Cobalt, zinc, and iron are microminerals |
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Protein that is not used by the body is converted to energy and the waste a. is stored as fat for energy b. is excreted by the kidneys c. is filtered by the liver d. is reabsorbed as amino acids |
Protein that is not used by the body is converted to energy and the waste (b) is excreted by the kidneys Feeding excess protein is expensive, and it goes to waste |
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Which of the following animals can easily become hyperthermic if chased? a. hogs and sheep b. goats and sheep c. goats and hogs d. cattle and goats |
(A) hogs and sheep can easily become hyperthermic if chased The hog's insulating layer of fat and the sheep's thick wool will contribute to overheating if these animals are chased or handled for long periods |
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What is the best method to encourage a goat to stand still? a. lift up the head and chin b. cover an eye c. hold up a front leg d. tie to a fence |
The best method to encourage a goat to stand still is (c) hold up a front leg
Most goats, large or small, will calmly stand in one place if a front leg is lifted |
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To judge whether a dog is being aggressive, observe its body language. An aggressive dog a. looks from side to side b. holds its head low between the shoulders c. wags its tail d. has eyes that dart from one thing to another |
To judge whether a dog is being aggressive, observe its body language. An aggressive dog (b) holds its head low between the shoulders head held low is the classic stance of an aggressive dog |
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To judge whether a dog is nervous, observe its body language. A nervous dog usually
a. holds its head low between the shoulders b. stares straight at you c. remains in a "sit" position d. has eyes that dart from one thing to another |
To judge whether a dog is nervous, observe its body language. A nervous dog usually (d) has eyes that dart from one thing to another
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To protect yourself when attacked by a dog you should a. run b. kick or hit at it c. roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms d. stand still and call for help |
To protect yourself when attacked by a dog you should (c) roll yourself into a ball and protect your neck and face with your arms This position will protect you and prevent further stimulation of the dog |
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When restraining a rooster, be most careful of the a beak b. spurs c. wings d. feet |
When restraining a rooster, be most careful of the (B) spurs the spurs on a rooster's feet are sharp and can cause injury |
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of domestic fowl, which poses the least threat to a handler? a. ducks b. geese c. turkeys d. chickens |
of domestic fowl (A) ducks pose the least threat to a handler a duck's bill is blunt and can pinch but will not break the skin. also ducks are small; consequently their wings do not cause painful bruises |
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of the caged birds listed, which one has the least tolerance for handling? a. cockatiels b. canaries c. parrots d. conures |
of the caged birds listed, the one that has the least tolerance for handling is (B) canaries
the canary is typically the most affected by handling, although the other birds can also have an adverse reaction to rough treatment |
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what restraint equipment is most useful when moving pigs from one place to another? a. a bucket b. small fences c. a portable barrier d. a dog |
(c) a portable barrier is the most useful restraint equipment when moving pigs from one place to another A hurdle or a barrier made of a solid piece of plastic or fiberglass placed in the path of a pig will turn it in the desired direction |
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it is acceptable and humane to lift a newborn pig by the a. tail b. ear c. front leg d. back leg |
it is acceptable and humane to lift a newborn pig by the (d) back leg lifting by any of the other body parts may cause injuries |
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what breed is usually worked in stanchions or headlocks? a. holstein cow b. simmental bull c. angus heifer d. jersey bull |
(A) a holstein cow usually works in stachions or headlocks dairy cows are worked in stachions or headlocks |
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which is a dairy breed? a. simmental b. charolais c. hereford d. guernsey |
(d) a guernsey is a dairy breed |
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what is an example of a soluble carbohydrate? a. lignin b. glucose c. cellulose d. pectin |
(b) glucose is a soluble carbohydrate lignin, cellulose and pectin are all dietary fiber or insoluble carbohydrates |
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fats are required for absorption, transportation, and storage of what vitamins? a. A,D, E, & K b. A, B complex, C, & D c. B complex, D, E, & K d. B complex and C |
fats are required for absorption, transportation, and storage of vitamins A, D, E & K Vitamin B complex and vitamin C are both water soluble |
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a dishwasher and a good quality detergent can be used for disinfecting nondisposable food and water bowls. the recommended temperature to kill most organisms is a. 100 degrees F b. 180 degrees F c. 212 degrees F d. 220 degrees F |
a dishwasher and a good quality detergent can be used for disinfecting nondisposable food and water bowls. the recommended temperature to kill most organisms is (b) 180 degrees F |
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what nutrient is sometimes referred to as ash? a. vitamins b. carbohydrates c. proteins d. minerals |
(d) minerals are sometimes referred to as ash |
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what mineral is considered to be a trace mineral? a. calcium b. potassium c. iodine d. sodium |
(c) iodine is considered to be a trace mineral calcium, potassium, and sodium are all macrominerals |
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orphaned kittens no longer need stimulation for urination and defecation at what age? a. kittens do not need external stimulation for urination and defecation b. 4 to 7 days c. 10 to 14 days d. 16 to 21 days |
orphaned kittens no longer need stimulation for urination and defecation when they are (D) 16 to 21 days old |
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at what age is a kitten fully able to control its body temperature? a. 61 days b. 45 days c. 28 days d. 12 days |
at (C) 28 days old a kitten is fully able to control its body temperature at 28 days, kittens are no longer dependent on the ambient temperature and are able to control their body temperature. at this time they begin to explore their surroundings and become more independent |
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cow's milk should not be given to puppies or kittens as a milk replacer because of its
a. low protein and fat levels b. high fat and protein levels c. low fat and higher protein levels d. high fat and lower protein levels |
cow's milk should not be given to puppies or kittens as a milk replacer because of its (a) low protein and fat levels puppies and kittens require a significantly higher level of fat and protein in their milk formulas than cow milk provides |
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what is the normal body temperature of a kitten during the first 2 weeks of its life? a. 102 degrees F b. 100 degrees F c. 95 degrees F d. 104 degrees F |
the normal body temperature of a kitten during the first 2 weeks of its life is (c) 95 degrees F kittens lack the shiver response and are able to raise their body temperature only 12 degrees F higher than the ambient temperature |
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at what core temperature does a newborn kitten's digestive tract become less functional? a. 90 degrees F b. 95 degrees F c. 100 degrees F d. 103 degrees F |
at (a) 90 degrees F a newborn kitten's digestive tract becomes less functional the digestive tract becomes nonfunctional and the kitten should not be fed until the core temperature is greater than 90 degrees F |
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which of these species is an omnivore? a. chinchilla b. hamster c. rabbit d. gerbil |
(b) a hamster is an omnivore hamsters, like rats and mice, are omnivores. chinchillas, rabbits, and gerbils are herbivores |
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calcium in the diet must be carefully regulated for what species? a. chinchilla b. hamster c. rabbit d. guinea pig |
calcium in the diet must be carefully regulated for (c) rabbits rabbits have an unusual metabolism of calcium. excessive amounts can lead to uroliths; deficiencies can cause osteodystrophy |
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rabbits should have an unlimited amount of a. alfalfa hay b. alfalfa pellets c. grass hay d. fresh fruit and vegetables |
rabbits should have an unlimited amount of (C) grass hay alfalfa hay is high in calcium; too much can lead to uroliths. alfalfa pellets can cause obesity, heart, liver, and kidney disease if given in excessive amounts. too many fresh fruits and vegetables can cause digestive upset |
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which is not true about rabbit cecel pellets? a. also known as "day droppings" b. are eaten by the rabbit c. are soft, are dark in color, have a strong odor, and are coated in mucus d. are formed int he cecum and are rich in nutrients |
regarding rabbit cecel pellets, they are eaten by the rabbit; are softe, are dark in color, have strong odor, and are coated in mucus; are formed in the cecum and are rich in nutrients. but it is not true that rabbit cecl pellets (A) are known as "Day droppings" cecel pellets are also known as "night droppings" |
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the vitamin C levels in guinea pig food decline after how many months of storage? a. 3 months b. 6 months c. 9 months d. 12 months |
the vitamin C levels in guinea pig food decline after (a) 3 months of storage |
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what species is not nocturnal? a. hamster b. gerbil c. hedgehog d. sugar glider |
hamsters, hedgehogs, and sugar gliders are nocturnal but (b) gerbils are not the gerbil and mouse are diurnal |
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which statement about housing rabbits is accurate? a. rabbits should be housed in a warm and humid environment b. two female rabbits housed together will fight c. two male rabbits housed together will fight d. solid-walled cages with wire mesh flooring are the best |
regarding housing rabbits, two male rabbits housed together will fight. rabbits need a cool but dry environment. the cage should have good circulation with a solid floor area for resting and to prevent sore hocks |
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what species is not a social animal and should be housed alone? a. chinchilla b. hamster c. gerbil d. guinea pig |
(b) hamsters are not social animals and should be housed alone hamsters are solitary in nature |
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parvovirus causes what disease in cats? a. panleukopenia b. rhinotracheitis c. infectious peritonitis d. infectious anemia |
parvovirus causes (a) panleukopenia in cats coronavirus causes feline infectoius peritonitis and a rickettsial parasite causes feline infectious anemia |
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feline distemper is caused by the same type of organism as what canine disease? a. canine distemper b. canine parvovirus c. parainfluenza d. adenovirus type 2 |
feline distemper is caused by the same type of organism as (b) parvovirus feline distemper (feline panleukopenia) is caused by a parvovirus similar to the canine parvovirus |
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what disease is not characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration? a. feline infectious enteritis b. feline infectious peritonitis c. feline panleukopenia d. feline distemper |
feline infectious enteritis, feline panleukopenia, and feline distemper are characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydration but (b) feline infectious peritonitis is not characterized by diarrhea, vomiting, and dehydraiton
feline infectious peritonitis is characterized by abdominal distention resulting from ascites
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a dog has a history of not eating for 2 days and has lost 10% of its body weight. this weight loss is most likely due to a loss of
a. lean body mass b. fat c. glycogen d. water |
a dog has a history of not eating for 2 days and has lost 10% of its body weight. this weight loss is most likely due to a loss of (D) water acute weight loss is typically due to water loss |
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the most important factor in assuring weight loss in an obese cat is a. proper diet b. a healthy cat c. diet pills d. owner compliance |
the most important factor in assuring weight loss in an obese cat is (d) owner compliance getting the owner (And the rest of the family) to feed only the prescribed amount of food is the primary problem in getting pets to lose weight |
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scent glands in the male goat are located a. around the tail base b. around the horn base c. in the groin area d. in the axial area |
scent glands in the male goat are located (b) around the horn base scent glands in male goats are located around the horn base and may be destroyed at dehorning |
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what disinfectant should not be used around cats or other felines? a. quaternary ammonium compounds b. phenolics c. halogens d. alcohols |
(b) phenolic should not be used around cats or other felines cats, birds, and some reptiles are more sensitive to phenol toxicity than other species |
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a product that destroys 100% of bacteria is classified as a. sterilant b. disinfectant c. sanitizer d. germicide |
a product that destroys 100% of bacteria is classified as (b) disinfectant disinfectants are products that destroy pathogens such as bacteria |
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chelating agents in cleaners remove a. oil and grease b. hard water minerals c. urine scale d. blood and serum |
chelating agents in cleaners remove (b) hard water minerals chelating agents bind minerals |
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for a disinfectant cleaner to be registered by EPA as hospital strength, it must be effective at its recommended dilution in killing ____ of the targeted pathogens. a. 75% b. 90% c. 100% d. 95% |
for a disinfectant cleaner to be registered by EPA as hospital strength, it must be effective at its recommended dilution in killing (C) 100% of the targeted pathogens |
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when hypochlorite solution comes in contact with formaldehyde, the gas produced is a very a. effective disinfectant b. dangerous carcinogen c. pleasant deodorant d. weak antiseptic |
when hypochlorite solution comes in contact with formaldehyde, the gas produced is a very (b) dangerous carcinogen |
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when disinfecting using two products, the rule is to a. use one disinfectant at a time b. mix the disinfectants together c. dilute each disinfecant by half d. select one bactericidal and one bacteriostatic disinfectant |
when disinfecting using two products, the rule is to (A) use one disinfectant at a time using disinfectants in sequence will maximize efficacy and minimize the risk of producing toxic mixes of compounds |
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selection of a disinfectant ideally depends on the a. result required b. purchase price c. ease of application d. product stability |
selection of a disinfectant ideally depends on the (a) result required |
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ultrasonic cleaners are used to a. sanitize instruments b. disinfect instruments c. sterilize instruments d. lubricate instruments |
ultrasonic cleaners are used to (a) sanitize instruments |
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ultrasonic cleaners work through creating a. steam under pressure b. high-frequency sound waves c. mechanical scrubbing d. radiation |
ultrasonic cleaners work through creating (b) high-frequency sound waves |
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in hand-cleaning equipment after surgery the degree of cleanliness is most influenced by the a. contact time with the cleaner b. degree of mechanical friction c. thoroughness of subsequent rinsing d. temperature of thw ash water |
in hand-cleaning equipment after surgery the degree of cleanliness is most influenced by the (b) degree of mechanical friction instruments must be wiped or scrubbed for optimal cleaning |
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floors are cleaned best using a a. wet vacuum b. dry vacuum[ c. wet mop d. dry mop |
floors are cleaned best using a (a) wet accum |
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during busy days in surgery, the area in the suite most likely to need decontamination is the a. doorway to the operating room b. cabinets holding surgical packs c. scrub sink floor and walls d. air condition and heating ducts |
during busy days in surgery, the area in the suite most likely to need decontamination is the (c) scrub sink floor and walls |
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when washing hands, it is important to remember that the highest density of bacteria occurs a. under the nails b. over the knuckles c. between the digits d. on the palm |
when washing hands, it is important to remember that the highest density of bacteria occurs (a) under the nails |
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nursing mares and foals should not be put into pastures that were grazed the previous year by a. stallions b. mares c. foals d. yearlings |
nursing mares and foals should not be put into pastures that were grazed the previous year by (c) foals avoiding putting foals in the same pasture eyar after year will help reduce parasite levels in foals |
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pastures should be free of a. rocks b. ponds c. trees d. fences |
pastures should be free of (b) ponds ponds may serve as a reservoir of pathogens |
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if stabling horses on clay floors, you should ____ once a year a. apply sealant to the clay floor b. soak the floor with disinfectant c. replace the clay surface d. culture the clay for microbes |
if stabling horses on clay floors, you should (c) replace the clay surface once a year clay surfaces may become uneven with wear and soak with urine and should be replaced periodically |
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for effective sanitation, lights in the surgical suite should be a. recessed intot he ceiling b. close to the air inlet c. fitted with fluorescent bulbs d. activated by entry of personnel |
for effective sanitation, lights in the surgical suite should be (a) recessed intot he ceiling these are not the surgery lights but the ligths used to illuminate the room |
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soap for hand washing is most likely to harbor microbes if it is in a. a pressurized dispensing pump b. solid bar form c. an aerosol canister d. a sponge-brush combination |
soap for hand washing is most likely to harbor microbes if it is in (B) solid bar form handling bar soap may contaminate it |
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before it is taken into the surgery room, portable equipment should be a. wiped with a dry sterile cloth b. fumigated with formaldehyde gas c. damp dusted with a disinfectant d. scrubbed with a sanitizer |
before it is taken into the surgery room, portable equipment should be (c) damp dusted with a disinfectant items taken into the surgery should be clean and dust-free but scrubbing is not necessary |
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a healthy adult horse can drink up to ___ of water a day a. 5 gallons b. 12 gallons c. 25 quarts d. 10 quarts |
a healthy adult horse can drink up to (b) 12 gallons of water a day |
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what animal would you expect to have the highest water intake? a. heifer b. bull c. lactating cow d. dry cow |
(c) a lactating cow would have the highest water intake a lactating cow has to replace the body fluids used to produce milk |
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the ____ hay, if processed correctly, has the highest nutriontal value when compared to other hays a. alfalfa b. bluegrass c. oat d. timothy |
the (a) alfalfa hay, if processed correctly, has the highest nutritional value when compared ot other hays |
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because of their bellows-like breathing, what species should be held loosely if grasped aroudn the thorax a. birds b. ferrets c. cats d. hamsters |
because of their bellows-like breathing (A) birds should be held loosely if grasped around the thorax the lugns of birds cannot inflate if the thorax is grasped tightly |
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if a bird is presented to you in a cage that contains toys, perches, and water and food dishes, what is the best procedure for capturing the bird?
a. throw a towel over the bird and grasp it b. turn the lights down and reach in behind the bird c. talk gently and coax the bird to stand on your finger d. remove all of the parahernalia from the cage and then reach in behind the bird |
if a bird is presented to you in a cage that contains toys, perches, and water and food dishes, the best procedure for capturing the bird is (D) remove all of the paraphernalia from the cage and then reach in behind the bird removing all of the paraphernalia reduces the chance that the bird will injure itself in attempts to escape |
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of the following steps to place a cat in a cat bag, which should be first a. close the zipper b. place the bag on the table c. hook the bag around the cat's neck d. place the cat in the center of the bag |
the first step for putting a cat in a cat bag should be (b) place the bag on the table
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in prolonged attempts to capture a sheep or pig in a paddock or pen, it is extremely easy to cause a. an abortion b. hyperthermia c. a limb facture d. death from shock |
in prolonged attempts to capture a sheep or pig in a paddock or pen, it is extremely easy to cause (b) hyperthermia the insulation of a sheep's heavy wool coat and a pig's layer of body fat can lead to overheating if the animal is chased excessively |
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when applying a chain twitch to a horse, you should a. place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure b. place it on the upper lip and tighten as much as possible c. place it on the ear and tighten with intermittent pressure d. place it on the lower lip and tighten as much as possible |
when applying a chain twitch to a horse, you should (a) place it on the upper lip and tighten with intermittent pressure the twitch is palced on the upper lip with pressure applied intermittently to keep with the horse's attention ot he twitch and at the same time preserve circulation to the lip |
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what piece of restraint equipment is most commonly used on horses? a. twitch b. hobbles c. cradle d. halter |
the (D) halter is the restraint equpiment most commonly used on horses |
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when disturbed by attempts at physical restraint, a horse's initial response is usually to a. kick b. bite c. run d. rear |
when disturbed by attempts at physical restraint, a horse's initial response is usually to (c) run running is a horse's first instinct when threatened. if it cannot run it will fight |
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when restraining a foal for treatment or diagnostic procedures you should
a. lead the mare out of sight of the foal b. keep the mare nearby within sight of the foal c. leave hte mare with the foal but heavily sedate the mare d. pick the foal up off hte ground so it cannot run away |
when restraining a foal for treatment or diagnostic procedures you should (b) keep the mare nearby within sight of the foal the foal and mare should remain within eyesight of each other. if not, both will fret and struggle to be reunited |
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what piece of restraint equipment usually remains permanently attached to bulls used for breeding?
a. halter b. nose lead c. bull staff d. nose ring |
(d) nose rings are permanently inserted through the nasal septum of bulls
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what animals have the strongest instinct to remain in a group when threatened? a. sheep b. goats c. pigs d. chickens |
(a) sheep have the strongest instinct to remain in a group when threatened |
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the knot or hitch used to tie together two ropes of different sizes is a a. bowline b. sheet bend c. halter tie d. clove hitch |
the knot or hitch used to tie together two ropes of different sizes is a (b) sheet bend when this knot is tied in the middle of a long rope, it forms a nonslip noose that can go around the animal's neck. the long ends can be wrapped aroudn the rear legs and secured so the mare cannot kick |
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the knot or hitch that can be used for breeding hobbles is a a. bowline on a bight b. clove hitch c. halter tie d. reefer |
the knot or hitch that can be used for breeding hobbles is a (A) bowline on a bight the quick-release knot should be the only knot used ot tie a lead rope to a stationary object |
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the knot or hitch used to secure a rope to a vertical bar wihtout slippage is the a. clove hitch b. halter tie c. half hitch d. bowline |
the knot or hitch used to secure a rope to a vertical bar wihtout slippage is the (a) clove hitch a clove hitch will not sleep, even when one end is pulled |
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when "Tail jacking" a cow, grasp the tail a. by the end and pull it to one side as far as possible b. at the base and elevate it dorsally and to the right b. by the end and elevate it dorsally and to the left d. at the base and elevate it dorsally and directly in the midline |
when "Tail jacking" a cow, grasp the tail (d) at the base and elevate it dorsally and directly in the midline the tail should be grasped at the base and elevated straight up. moving the tail toward one side or holding the tail by the end can damage the tail |
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after securing a mouse by its tail, the head and body can be restrained by a. twirling the mouse until it is dizzy and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck b. placing hte mouse on a smooth surface pulling caudally on its tail and quickly grasping the scruff of its neck c. grasping the loose skin along its back d. placing the mouse on a grate, pulling back on its tail, and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck |
after securing a mouse by its tail, the head and body can be restrained by (d) placing the mouse on a grate, pulling back on its tail , and then quickly grasping the scruff of its neck a mouse will instinctively grasp a grate with its forefeet. you can then quickly grasp it by the scruff of the neck |
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the apparatus usually used to restrain beef cattle is the a. halter b. stock c. squeeze shute d. noze ring |
the apparatus usually used to restrain beef cattle is the (c) squeeze chute a squeeze chute is usually used to restrain beef cattle. dairy cattle are usually restrained in stanchions |
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the aparatus used to restrain horses is the a. stock b. squeeze chute c. stanchion d. tilt table |
the aparatus used to restrain horses is the (a) stock stocks are used to protect the veterinarian or technician while working on a horse |
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the apparatus used to restrain adult pigs is the a. snare b. squeeze chute c. V-trough d. hobbles |
the apparatus used to restrain adult pigs is the (a) snare adult pigs are routinely restrained using a snare around the snout |
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the aparatus ideal for restraining a bull to facilitate hoof trimming is the a. stock b. squeeze chute c. tilt table d. alley way |
the aparatus ideal for restraining a bull to facilitate hoof trimming is the (c) tilt table a tilt table is ideal for trimming cattle hooves |
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what is the best time of day to restrain sheep in the summer? a. midafternoon b. afternoon c. early morning d. midmorning |
the best time of day to restrain sheep in the summer is (c) early morning early morning is the coolest time and allows the owner to observe the flock for signs of distress throughout the rest of the day |
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the vitamin needed by dogs in heavy training to facilitate development of eryhtrocytes to carry oxygen from lungs to the muscles is a. vitamin e b. vitamin K c.vitamin B1 d. vitamin B12 |
the vitamin needed by dogs in heavy training to facilitate development of eryhtrocytes to carry oxygen from lungs to the muscles is (d) vitamin b12 |
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the vitamin that is very important in reproduction is a biologic antioxidant and is considered necessary for several bodily functions is a. vitamin E b. vitamin K c. vitamin B1 d. vitamin B12 |
the vitamin that is very important in reproduction is a biologic antioxidant and is considered necessary for several bodily functions is (a) vitamin E |
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what vitamin is also known as thiamine? a. vitamin E b. vitamin K c. vitamin B1 d. vitamin B12 |
(c) vitamin B1 is also known as thiamine |
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the major consideration in evaluating a dog's diet is a. maintenance requirements b. reproduction and lactation c. carbohydrate content d. digestibility |
the major consideration in evaluating a dog's diet is (d) digestiblity |
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what term refers to the quantities of nutrients necessary to maintain a constant body weight in mature dogs at rest? a. maintenance requirements b. reproduciton and lactaiton c. palatability d. digestiblity |
(a) maintenance requirements refers to the quantities of nutrients necessary to maintain a constant body weight in mature dogs at rest maintenance includes basic nutrient requirements only |
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what nutrient makes up the greatest part of most dog rations and supplies energy? a. protein b. fat c. carbohydrates d. vitamins and minerals |
(c) carbohydrates make up the greatest part of most dog rations and supplies energy carbohydrates supply most of the energy in the diet |
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during lactation, the feed intake of queens typically a. stays the same b. increase about 1.5 times c. increases about 2 to 3 times d. increases about 50% |
during lactation, the feed intake of queens typically (c) increases about 2 to 3 times |
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in home cooked diets for dogs and cats, what are the most common deficits? a. protein and fat b. water and magnesium c. vitamin A and copper d. salt and protein |
in home cooked diets for dogs and cats the most common deficits are (C) vitamin A and copper |
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because of their high fiber content and bulky nature dry dog food should not be fed to dogs with a. diarrhea b. ascites c. anemia d. pancreatitis |
because of their high fiber content and bulky nature dry dog food should not be fed to dogs with (a) diarrhea |
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in waht conditon should dietary ash be reduced and 5 g of NaCl per pound of food be added to stimulate water intake and thus achieve moderate diuresis? a. diarrhea b. ascites c. pancreatitis d. crystalluria |
in cases of crystalluria dietary ash be reduced and 5 g of NaCl per pound of food be added to stimulate water intake and thus achieve moderate diuresis increased urine production may help prevent crystalluria from developing into urolithiasis |
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newborn piglets raised in confinement must be supplemented with a. zinc b. iron c. copper d. manganese |
newborn piglets raised in confinement must be supplemented with (b) iron piglets raised outdoors obtain iron from dirt lots, whereas piglets raised in confinement are generally given iron injections |
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why do piglets need an iron supplement? a. the calcium obtained from nursing binds the mineral and makes it useless b. they are born without any and must have it to survive c. they are born with low levels in their tissue and do not have an adequate dietary source while nursing d. it is depleted during digestion |
piglets need an iron supplement because (c) they are born with low levels in their tissue and do not have an adequate dietary source while nursing piglets are born with very low iron reserves and do not obtain much iron while nursing the sow |
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swine must have access to drinking water at all times. if deprived of water for an extended period they may
a. develop sodium chloride toxicity b. become hyperactive c. begin to bite the tail of other pigs in the same pen d. develop potassium deficiency |
swine must have access to drinking water at all times. if deprived of water for an extended period they may (a) develop sodium chloride toxicity with water deprivation, sodium accumulation can lead to convulsions and death. affected pigs should be rehydrated slowly over a period of several hours |
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goose-stepping in swine (excessive lifting of the rear legs during walking) is most likely to be caused by a deficiency of a. copper b. vitamin D c. zinc d. pantothenic acid |
goose-stepping in swine (excessive lifting of the rear legs during walking) is most likely to be caused by a deficiency of (d) pantothenic acid a deficiency of pantothenic acid in the diet leads to deterioration of the sciatic nerve, affected pigs exhibit an abnormal gait |
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soybean meal is often a basic component of swine diets. what does this ingredient provide? a. fat b. protein c. minerals d. vitamins |
soybean meal is often a basic component of swine diets. this ingredient provides protein soybean meal provides a readily available source of protein (44 to 48.5%) and satisfies the amino acid requirements of pigs |
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a nursery pig is presented for necropsy. the history states that it was healthy yesterday afternoon and was found dead this morning. necropsy reveals "mulberry heart disease." what dietary deficiency is the most likely cause of this pig's sudden demise? a. vitamin E b. vitamin C c. vitamin K d. Vitamin B2 |
a nursery pig is presented for necropsy. the history states that it was healthy yesterday afternoon and was found dead this morning. necropsy reveals "mulberry heart disease." this was most likely caused by a deficiency of (a) vitamin E mulberry heart disease is a classic finding pin pigs that suffer from vitamin E deficiency; it is characterized by degernation of cardiac muscle |
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a diet high in vegetable protein will cause the animal to produce ____ urine a. cloudly b. clear c. alkaline d. acidic |
a diet high in vegetable protein will cause the animal to produce (c) alkaline urine |
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sows often develop constipation during late gestation and early lacation. what should the producer do to minimize this problem and keep them in optimal health? a. increase the daily ration b. add fiber to the ration c. confine the animals to prevent exercise d. decrease the daily ration |
sows often develop constipation during late gestation and early lactation. (b) add fiber to the ration sows are limit-fed to prevent obesity. more fiber adds bulk to their diet without increasing calories |
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finely ground hog feed (particle size 600 to 800 microns) can increase the incidence of a. gastric ulcers b. reproductive problems c. respiratory infections d. lameness |
finely ground hog feed (particle size 600 to 800 microns) can increase the incidence of (a) gastric ulcers studies show that the production of digestive acids increases when the pig ingests finely ground particles of feed |
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antibacterial drugs are routinely added to hog feed to increase performance and feed efficiency. what groupd of animals benefits the most from this practie? a. breeding boards b. breeding sows c. finishing hogs d. nursery and grower pigs |
antibacterial drugs are routinely added to hog feed to increase performance and feed efficiency. (d) nursery and grower pigs young pigs grow rapidly and addition of antibacterial drugs to the diet increases feed efficiency and the rate of gain during this period of the pig's life |
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what ingredient can be added to the diet of the hogs to provide increased energy and reduce dust in the feed? a. fat b. water c. soybean meal d. silage |
(a) fat can be added to the diet of hogs to provide increased energy and reduce dust in the feed fats or oils provide a readily available source of energy to the diet, with the added benefit of reducing the level of dustiness of the feed |
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bleach diluted ___ has consistently been found to be a good disinfectant for both routine use and for use during a disease outbreak a. 1:12 with alcohol b. 1:50 with alcohol c. 1:2 with water d. 1:32 with water |
bleach diluted (D) 1:32 with water has consistently been found to be a good disinfectant for both routine use and for use during a disease outbreak if bleach is not properly diluted it can be irritating to mucous membranes. there should be no bleach odor detectable with the proper dilution |
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what is a trichobezoar? a. hariball b. laceration c. abscess on the body surface d. any ingested metal foreign body |
a trichobezoar is a hairball |
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during the first week of life, orphaned puppies and kittens should be reared in an environmental temperature of a. 32.2 degrees C (90 degrees F) b.26.7 degrees C (80 degrees F) c. 21.1 degrees C (70 degrees F) d. 15.6 degrees C (60 degrees F) |
during the first week of life, orphaned puppies and kittens should be reared in an environmental temperature of (b) 26.7 degrees C (80 degrees F) neonatal puppies and kittens usuallys tay right next to their dams, in an environment nearing body temperature. orphaned neonates require a similar environment |
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to keep animals germ free inside a barrier unite, the air pressure inside comapred witht hat outside must be a. higher b. lower c. equal d. much lower |
to keep animals germ free inside a barrier unite, the air pressure inside comapred witht hat outside must be (a) higher higher pressure inside will prevent the entry of outside contamineants when the door is opened |
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in an isolation unit where sick animals are housed, the air pressure in the unti compared with that in the quarters housing healthy animals must be a. higher b. lower c. equal d. much higher |
in an isolation unit where sick animals are housed, the air pressure in the unti compared with that in the quarters housing healthy animals must be (b) lower this will prevent air from travelling from sick-animals areas to well-animal areas |
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very low humidity in a colony of rats may precipitate as problem known as a. stud tail b. wet tail c. fan tail d. ring tail |
very low humidity in a colony of rats may precipitate as problem known as (D) ring tial low humidity and overabsorbent bedding may predispose rats to ringtail or tail necrosis |
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a roll-bar in a farrowing crate keeps the sow from concentrating the pen wall she lies down; the function of the roll bar is to prevent a. injuring the teats b. upsetting the food c. crushing the young d. breaking the pen wall |
a roll-bar in a farrowing crate keeps the sow from concentrating the pen wall she lies down; the function of the roll bar is to prevent (c) crushing the young this kind of housing typical for preventing injuries to piglets |
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the squeeze-back is desirable feature in cage housing for a. cats b. rats c. dogs d. monkeys |
the squeeze-back is desirable feature in cage housing for (d) monkeys primates may be difficult to handle, so it is important to have a way to restrain them without requiring direct contact between the handler and the animal |
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adult males of what species should not be group-housed? a. rats b. mice c. guinea pigs d. gerbils |
adult male (b) mice should not be group-housed male mice hosued together will frequently display aggressive behavior |
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ducks and geese that eat moldy feed frequently succumb to a. dermatophytosis b. aspergillosis c. pediculosis d. actinobacillosis |
ducks and geese that eat moldy feed frequently succumb to (b) aspergillosis |
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filter caps on rodent shoebox cages reduce the a. ammonia levels b. horizontal transmission of pathogens c. cage temperatures d. litter sizes of pregnant females |
filter caps on rodent shoebox cages reduce the (b) horizontal transmission of pathogens filters on the only opening in shoebox-type housing will filter out small particles, such as pathogens |
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the most common health problem encounter in cattle that have been recently shipped is a. pneumonia b. diarrhea c. lameness d. pinkeye |
the most common health problem encounter in cattle that have been recently shipped is (a) pneumonia cattle that undergo transport stress are at increased risk for pneumonia also called shipping fever |
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which of the following is not required of a well-built doghouse? a. windproof against drafts b. raised off the ground c. insulated against cold d. spacious and roomy inside |
requirements of a well-built doghouse includes they are windproof against drafts, raised off the ground, insulated against the cold but it is not required that they are (D) spacious and roomy inside a doghouse need only be big enough for the dog to stand and turn around but the other items are required |
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which of these is not a common strategy for managing heat stress in dairy cattle? a. feeding early in the day b. placing fans over housing areas c. sprinkling or misting cows with water d. cooling the holding pen near the milking parlor |
common strategies for managing heat stress in dairy cattle include placing fans over the housing areas, sprinkling or misting cows with water, cooling the holding pen near the milking parlor but not (A) feeding early int he day typically all farms feed early all of the time plus it is imperative that cows have feed in front of them at all times |
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the best type of feeding bowl for dogs is one made of a. plastic b. steel c. enamel d. ceramic |
the best type of feeding bowl for dogs is one made of (B) steel steel bowls are nonporous for thorough cleaning and not susceptible to breaking |
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although there is good serologic evidence that animals in shelters are exposed to many of the same pathogens, not all shelters experience a disease problem. the difference can best be explained by variance in the a. degrees of pathogenic virulence b. standards of management practice c. prevailing weather conditions d. genetic makeup of the animals |
although there is good serologic evidence that animals in shelters are exposed to many of the same pathogens, not all shelters experience a disease problem. the difference can best be explained by variance in the (b) standards of management practice proper husbandry helps animals maintain good immune function for resistance to disease |
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when young livestock are exposed to poor ventilation or cold stress, what outbreaks often occur? a. pinkeye b. dermatophilosis c. pneumonia d. polioencephalomalcia |
when young livestock are exposed to poor ventilation or cold stress, (c) pneumonia outbreaks often occur cold stress and poor ventilation decrease imune resistance to the pathogens that cause pneumonia |
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if you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, in what order should you view or examine the animals? a. cows, weaned heifers or steers, calves b. weaned heifers or steers, calves, cows c. calves, cows, weaned heifers or steers d. calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows |
if you are visiting all of the housing areas on a farm, the order you should view the animals in the following order (d) calves, weaned heifers or steers, cows the risk of spreading disease is reduced by visiting the stock in order from youngest to oldest |
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the height of a nipple watering device must be adjusted according tot he size of the pigs in the pen. it should be set at a level that is a. even with the elbow of the pigs b. just above the shoulder of the pigs c. halfway between the shoulder and the elbow of the pigs d. comfortably reachable when the pigs are lying down |
the height of a nipple watering device must be adjusted according tot he size of the pigs in the pen. it should be set at a level that is (b) just above te shoulder of the pigs the pig should have to reach up slightly to drink from a nipple watering device to minimize waste. in addition, the pigs are less likely to come into contact witht he nipple which could cause damage to themselves or to the device |
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the number of nipple watering devices in groupd pens varies according to the size and number of animals involved. a group of 20 pigs should have a minimum of a. 1 nipple per pen b. 2 nipples per pen c. 3 nipples per pen d. 4 nipples per pen |
the number of nipple watering devices in groupd pens varies according to the size and number of animals involved. a group of 20 pigs should have a minimum of (b) 2 nipples per pen providing two nipples in a pen of 20 pigs allows all of the animals access to water. genearlly swine producers are encouraged to install a minimum of two watering devices per pen |
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what is a newborn piglet's lower critical temperature? a. 70 to 75 degrees F b. 65 to 70 degrees F c. 110 to 115 degrees F d. 90 to 95 degrees F |
a newborn piglet's lower critical temperature is (d) 90 to 95 degrees F newborn piglets do not have thea bility to regulate their body temperature and supplemental heat must be provided to near adult body tempearture |
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what does it mean when piglets lie in a pile with some on top of others? a. they are well fed b. they are well socialized c. theya re hungry d. they are cold |
when piglets lie in a pile with some on top of others (d) they are cold piling of piglets is a sign of cold stress |
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what can a producer do to provide an acceptable environment for a lactating sow and her offspring? a. keep the sow comfortable, and let the piglets huddle against her for warmth b. heat the entire farrowing area to a comfortable level for the piglets, and let the sow cool herself through perspiration c. keep the overall area comfortable for the sow and provide zones for supplemental heat for the piglets d. set the room temeparture at a level halfway between the two extremes |
to provide an acceptable environment for a lactating sow and her offspring (C) keept he overall area comfortable for the sow and provide zones of supplemental heat for the piglets if a sow is too warm, milk production decreases, resulting in smaller pigs. in addition an uncomfortable sow changes positions often and could crush her pigs. keeping her comfortable is, therefore to the advantage of the piglets. they should be provided with a source of heat well away from the sow |
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fences and dividers between groups of pigs should be constructed so that a. the slats are positioned horizontally b. the slats are positioned vertically c. the top of the fencce is no higher than the largest pig's back d. the bottom of the fence is at least 8 inches above the floor of the pen |
fences and dividers between groups of pigs should be constructed so that (b) the slats are positioned vertically vertical slats prevent the pigs from climbing the fence |
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in goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin a. B b. K c.D d. A |
in goats, night blindness, poor appetite, weight loss, unthrifty appearance with a poor hair coat, and a thick nasal discharge have resulted from a lack of vitamin (d) A |
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lack of what vitamin in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (White muscle disease)? a. E b. B c. D d. A |
lack of (a) vitamin E in goats can cause nutritional muscular dystrophy (whtie muscle disease) |
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lack of what nutrients can cause retarded growth and rickets in goat kids? a. vitamin B and magnesium b. vitamin E and C c. vitamin C and calcium d. vitamins A and B |
lack of vitamins (c) C and calcium can cause retarded growth and rickets in goat kids |
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most scent glands in male goats can be destroyed at the time of a. birth b. weaning c. foot trimming d. dehorning |
most scent glands in male goats can be destroyed at the time of (d) dehorning most scent glands are located around the base of the horn buds and can be destroyed during electric dehorning |
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goats are most at risk for developing the metabolic condition termed ketosis during a. middle of gestation b. late lactation c. early gestation d. late gestation |
goats are most at risk for developing the metabolic condition termed ketosis during (d) late gestation the disease is also termed pregnancy toxemia and occurs when energy demands in the doe exceed intake |
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ruminants that consume excessive concentrates may be predisposed to a. ketosis b. rumen acidosis c. rumen alkalosis d. parturient paresis |
ruminants that consume excessive concentrates may be predisposed to (b) rumen acidosis fermentation of carbohydrates acidifies the contents of the rumen |
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consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grian or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridia in the small intestine and production of epsilon toxin. this syndrome is called a. parturient paresis b. urolithiasis c. posthitis d. entertoxemia |
consumption of unaccustomed quantities of grian or of lush pasture when first turned out in the spring by goats or sheep can lead to incomplete digestion, overgrowth of clostridia in the small intestine and production of epsilon toxin. this syndrome is called (d) enterotoxemia
enterotoxemia due to clostridial overgrowth is also called overeating disease. sheep and goats are commonly vaccinated against the disease |
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llamas, like true ruminants, can break down what feed constituent into short-chained fatty acids with the assistance of bacteria and protozoa? a. cellulose b. water c. calcium d. phsophorus |
llamas, like true ruminants, can break down (a) cellulose into short-chained fatty acids with the assistance of bacteria and protozoa ruminants convert cellulose into energy through a process of fermentation |
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which statement concerning feeding of llamas is most accurate? a. they must be fed once daily b. they must be fed twice daily c. they must be fed free choice d. they should be fed ona regular schedule |
regarding feeding llamas (d) they should be fed ona regular schedule owners may have a lifestyle whereby they feed twice a day or free choice. the most important point is that they should feed regularly |
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a predominant deficiency of what nutrient causes angular limb deformities, given current North American feeding practices of llamas? a. phosphorus b. calcium c. vitamin A d. vitamin D |
a predominant deficiency of (a) phosphorus causes angular limb deformities given current north american feeding practices of llamas |
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what nutrient represent the greatest fraction of dairy cattle diets after weaning and is essential to optimizing milk production? a minerals b. vitamins c. carbohydrates d. protein |
(c) carbohydrates represent the greatest fraction of dairy cattle diets after weaning and is essential to optimizing milk production |
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overfeeding of the nutrient class ____ to ruminants or horses predisposes them to laminitis or founder a. vitamins b. minerals c. energy d. protein |
overfeeding of the nutrient class (C) energy to ruminants or horses predisposes them to laminitis or founder overfeeind to hoofed stock increases their risk of developing laminitis |
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cattle add large quantities of saliva to their feeding during chewing and also regurgitate during rumination. the most important effect of this is to a. add more moisture to forage materials b. buffer the acids produced in the rumen c. aid chewing and swallowing d. keep the tongue moist |
cattle add large quantities of saliva to their feeding during chewing and also regurgitate during rumination. the most important effect of this is to (B) buffer the acids produced int he rumen salvia in cattle is bascic and helps buffer the acidic products of ruminal fermentation |
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which of the following comprises the major energy loss as a result of fermentation inthe rumen? a. oxygen b. ethane c. carbon dioxide d. methane |
(D) methane comprises the major gaseous energy loss as a result of fermentation in the rumn |
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to supply nearly adequate nutrition via the intravenous route, solutions must be a. hypertonic b. hypotonic c. isotonic d. catatonic |
to supply nearly adequate nutrition via the intravenous route, solutions must be (a) hypertonic |
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what foal type has the greatest nutritional requirement? a. healthy active foal b. foal with an umbilical infeciton c. newborn foal d. premature foal with septicemia |
(D) a premature foal with septicemia has the greatest nutritional requirement infection increases nutrient needs; septicemia is more infectious process than umbilical infection |
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hyperlipidemia is usually caused by intolerance of lipids and is characterized by cloudy serum and a. hypoglycemia b. hyperactivity c. increased serum triglycerides d. acidosis |
hyperlipidemia is usually caused by intolerance of lipids and is characterized by cloudy serum and (c) increased serum triglycerides triglycerides are lipids |
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which of the following is not recommneded for a weak foal? a. bucket feeding b. bottle feeding c. nasogastric intubation d. intravenous nutrition |
(b) bottle feeding is not recommended for a weak foal bottle feeding may cause aspiration pneumonia in a weak foal |
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what condition is not associated with weight loss? a. anorexia b. increased nutrient demands c. protein calorie malnutrition d. hyperadrenocorticism |
(d) hyperadrenocorticism is not associated with weight loss |
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to avoid abomasal bloat in calves, milk replacer must a. be low in protien b. be fed at body temperature c. be well mixed d. contain antibiotics |
to avoid abomasal bloat in calves, milk replacer must (c) be well mixed poorly mixed milk replacer contributes to bloat in preweaned calves |
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successful strategies for preventing diarrhea in unweaned dairy calves include all of the following except a. vaccination of the dam b. dry, draft-free housing c. colostrum feeding d. limiting the amount of milk fed |
successful strategies for preventing diarrhea in unweaned dairy calves include vaccination of the dam, dry draft free housing, colostrum feeding but not (D) limiting the amount of milk fed |
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when a calf suckles and ingests warm milk, the reticular groove is stimulated to close so that milk and saliva pass directly into the a. abomasum b. rumen c. reticulum d. duodenum |
when a calf suckles and ingests warm milk, the reticular groove is stimulated to close so that milk and saliva pass directly into the (A) abomasum |
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when the newborn lamb receives no nutrition at all in cold environmental conditions, fat reserves last about a. 4 hours only b. 1 to 2 days only c. 5 days only d. 1 week only |
when the newborn lamb receives no nutrition at all in cold environmental conditions, fat reserves last about (b) 1 to 2 days only |
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the neonatal calf is a preruminant. what factor most influences rumen development? a. the sex of the calf b. the season c. the breed of the calf d. the calf's diet |
the neonatal calf is preruminant. the factor of those listed that most influences rumen development is (D) the calf's diet development of rumen papillae and function is stimulated by consumption of high-energy feed such as calf starter |
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lack of what vitamin can cause deafness, tissue malfunction, and large coarse skin lesions in dogs? a. A b. K c. B1 d. B12 |
lack of vitamin (a) A can cause deafness, tissue malfunction and large coarse skin lesions in dogs |
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the vitamin that is synthesized in the intestinal tract of dogs and other animals under normal conditions is a. vitamin E b. vitamin K c. vitamin B1 d. vitamin B12 |
the vitamin that is synthesized in the intestinal tract of dogs and other animals under normal conditions is (b) vitamin K |
