Anatomy Quiz Questions

Front 1

Which is a disorder at the cranial end of the neural tube?

Back 1

Anencephaly

Front 2

___________ are ___________ that form myelin sheaths

Back 2

Oligodendrocytes, glial cells of the CNS

Front 3

The presynaptic neuron contains _____________, while the postsynaptic neuron contains _____________

Back 3

synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters, receptors

Front 4

Cell bodies are found in PNS nerves and CNS white matter T or F?

Back 4

false

Front 5

__________ division receives sensory information from internal organs

Back 5

visceral sensory

Front 6

Which statement is most true?

Back 6

Dendrites receive impulse, transmit through axon to synaptic knobs.

Front 7

__________ are unipolar neurons. ____________ are bipolar neurons.

Back 7

Sensory neurons, special senses

Front 8

Put the following nervous tissue coverings in order from superficial to deep: perineurium, epineurium, endoneurium, myelin sheath

Back 8

epineurium, perineurium, endoneurium, myelin sheath

Front 9

While cooking your dinner, you accidentally touch the hot stove. Trace the path of the impulse from the touch of initial contact to your hand moving away from the stove.

Back 9

afferent neuron to interneuron to efferent neuron

Front 10

Which is not true of myelin sheath?

Back 10

It decreases speed of conduction

Front 11

Which glial cell controls the ionic environment and induces formation of the blood-brain barrier?

Back 11

Astrocyte

Front 12

Name the structure the arrow is pointing to in this picture. (TEST IMAGE 1)

Back 12

soma

Front 13

Which structure does not originate from the prosencephalon?

Back 13

Midbrain

Front 14

Arrange the meninges from deep to superficial.

Back 14

pia mater, arachnoid mater, dura mater

Front 15

Where is cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) found?

Back 15

all ventricles

Front 16

What is the function of the insula lobe?

Back 16

Taste

Front 17

From personal experience relating to mobility of your fingers in comparison to your toes, how do you think their areas on the primary motor cortex compare? Think back to the homunculus

Back 17

Fingers have more surface area than toes on the primary motor cortex.

Front 18

The hippocampus has what primary function?

Back 18

Memory

Front 19

The corpus callosum contains

Back 19

commissural tracts

Front 20

The _______________ is the relay station for sensory and motor information.

Back 20

Thalamus

Front 21

A person who has clinical problems with balance and muscle coordination could have a defect in the

Back 21

cerebellum

Front 22

Which portion of the brain controls reflex centers essential for survival?

Back 22

Brainstem

Front 23

What is known as the "emotional brain?"

Back 23

limbic system

Front 24

Obstruction of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) flow and overproduction of CSF are causes of what disorder?

Back 24

Hydrocephalus

Front 25

Anterior funiculus is composed of __________ and the anterior horn is composed of _________

Back 25

white matter, gray matter

Front 26

A patient has no sensory function on the anterior two-thirds of her tongue. What cranial nerve is most likely impaired?

Back 26

facial nerve VII

Front 27

Motor neurons are located on the __________ side of the spinal cord.

Back 27

Ventral

Front 28

A __________ is a specific segment of skin that is supplied by a single pair of spinal nerves.

Back 28

Dermatome

Front 29

Which is not true of shingles?

Back 29

The virus remains latent until onset of puberty.

Front 30

Phrenic nerve resides in which nerve plexus?

Back 30

cervical plexus

Front 31

The patellar or knee-jerk reflex is an example of

Back 31

monosynpatic reflex

Front 32

The _______ motor is voluntary, whereas the ________ motor is involuntary

Back 32

somatic, autonomic

Front 33

The two motor neurons in sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are

Back 33

postganglionic and preganglionic neurons.

Front 34

In post-ganglionic neurons, how does myelination differ between parasymphatetic and sympathetic divisions?

Back 34

Both are unmyelinated

Front 35

Under parasympathetic mode, the pupils will

Back 35

constrict

Front 36

Pain is a type of _________ sense.

Back 36

General

Front 37

Thermoreceptors respond to

Back 37

temperature.

Front 38

Tactile receptors are found in ________ and respond to ____________.

Back 38

dermis and hypodermis, touch

Front 39

Which cells in the tongue are chemoreceptors?

Back 39

gustatory cells

Front 40

Olfaction uses which type of receptors?

Back 40

Chemoreceptors

Front 41

Place the pathway of tears in the correct order from secretion to drainage.

Back 41

lacrimal gland to lacrimal canal to nasolacrimal duct

Front 42

The optic disk contains

Back 42

no rods and no cones

Front 43

What inner ear structure detects rotational movement?

Back 43

semicircular canals

Front 44

Choose the correct pathway for wave vibration in the cochlea.

Back 44

Sound waves enter through oval window → scala vestibuli → cochlear duct → scala tympani and exit through round window

Front 45

Which does not cause cataracts?

Back 45

wearing contacts

Front 46

Which is not true concerning the endocrine system?

Back 46

The endocrine has a fast response but lasts shorter than nervous system

Front 47

What is meant by a tropic hormone?

Back 47

It affects the release of other hormones.

Front 48

Which is true concerning the neurohypophysis?

Back 48

It releases hormones made in the hypothalamus.

Front 49

Which is not a hormone produced from the anterior pituitary gland?

Back 49

Oxytocin

Front 50

Calcitonin is produced from the __________ and ________ blood calcium levels.

Back 50

thyroid gland, decreases

Front 51

What hormone increases blood calcium levels?

Back 51

parathyroid hormone

Front 52

Which hormones is/are produced from the thymus?

Back 52

Thymopoietin, thymosins

Front 53

Which hormones is/are produced in the adrenal cortex?

Back 53

Aldosterone, cortisol

Front 54

Which is a symptom of hypersecretion of cortisol?

Back 54

re-distributed body obesity

Front 55

Which disorder(s) is(are) from an excess production of GH during adulthood?

Back 55

Acromegaly.

Front 56

High metabolic rate, weight loss, tachycardia are symptoms of

Back 56

hyperthyroidism.

Front 57

Corticosteroids are used clinically to

Back 57

treat inflammation

Front 58

Which is true about Type 1 diabetes?

Back 58

autoimmune disorder

Front 59

What layer of the heart wall is also known as visceral pericardium?

Back 59

Epicardium

Front 60

Which tissue(s) is/are the heart valves composed of?

Back 60

Heart valves are made of dense connective tissue

Front 61

Vessel structure is composed of a tunica intima, tunica media, and tunica externa. Which of vessel type has the thickest tunica media?

Back 61

Arteries

Front 62

Which type of capillary is found in the bone marrow, and has a unique structure that allows blood cells to easily enter and exit the capillary?

Back 62

Sinusoid

Front 63

In fetal circulation, this structure diverts blood from the right atrium of the heart to the left atrium of the heart.

Back 63

foramen ovale

Front 64

Where does blood flow immediately after passing through the tricuspid valve?

Back 64

right ventricle

Front 65

The pulmonary valve is anterior to the aortic valve – T or F?

Back 65

True

Front 66

Which pulmonary vessel contains oxygen-rich blood?

Back 66

pulmonary vein

Front 67

The aorta is an example of what type of artery

Back 67

an elastic artery.

Front 68

What structure in fetal circulation bypasses blood away from the liver?

Back 68

ductus venosus

Front 69

Which term describes a progressive disease of the elastic and muscular arteries that leads to thickening of tunica intima and narrowing of arterial lumen from fatty plaque?

Back 69

Atherosclerosis

Front 70

The apex of the heart is located

Back 70

inferior and to the left

Front 71

The right lymphatic duct drains which quadrant of the body?

Back 71

RLQ

Front 72

What type of T-lymphocyte secretes chemical signals that bind to activate other immune system cells?

Back 72

helper T-cells

Front 73

Lymphatic vessels have valves to prevent backflow. T or F?

Back 73

True

Front 74

Where is the location of the spleen?

Back 74

upper left quadrant of the abdomen

Front 75

Edema due to lymph node obstruction is called?

Back 75

Lymphedema

Front 76

Which are the functions of the lymphatic system?

Back 76

screens lymph for foreign substances, houses lymphocytes that generate the immune response, returns interstitial fluid to bloodstream, transports nutrients.

Front 77

Plasma B-Cells are responsible for

Back 77

producing immunoglobulins.

Front 78

T-lymphocytes mature in the __________, whereas natural killer (NK) cells and B-lymphocytes mature in __________.

Back 78

thymus, red bone marrow

Front 79

Each B- and T-cell can respond to a wide variety of infected cells, whereas natural killer cells can only respond to a single antigen. T or F?

Back 79

False

Front 80

Hemolysis is __________ and takes place in the __________

Back 80

phagocytosis of old erythrocytes and platelets, red pulp of the spleen.

Front 81

Put the flow of lymph in order: lymphatic trunks, lymph nodes, lymphatic ducts, venous circulation.

Back 81

lymph nodes, lymphatic trunks, lymphatic ducts, venous circulation.

Front 82

Gas exchange between blood and tissue cells is an example of

Back 82

internal respiration

Front 83

Alveolar type II cells

Back 83

secrete surfactant

Front 84

Which is/are a type of cartilage found in the larynx?

Back 84

arytenoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage, and cricoid cartilage

Front 85

The diaphragm, external intercostals, and scalenes contract for exhalation. T or F?

Back 85

False

Front 86

Which is a characteristic of emphysema?

Back 86

loss of elastic tissue, making it difficult to exhale

Front 87

Which lung has the cardiac notch?

Back 87

left lung

Front 88

Respiratory diverticulum and ___________ buds form off of endodermal tube around week 4.

Back 88

primary bronchial

Front 89

Which is/are a function of the respiratory system?

Back 89

sound production, defense, pulmonary ventilation, and olfaction

Front 90

How many secondary bronchi are on the right lung?

Back 90

Three

Front 91

After hearing you're a new expert in anatomy, your friend comes to you with concern. When exposed to certain pollen, smoke, and exercise, he often starts wheezing, coughing, and experiencing a shortness of breath. He has no history of cigarette smoking. If he has a respiratory pathology, he most likely has

Back 91

asthma

Front 92

Decreasing the volume of the thoracic cavity _____________ and _____________.

Back 92

increases internal lung pressure, air rushes out of lungs

Front 93

__________ is muscular contractions that move food through GI tract; _________ is mixing and churning in the small intestine.

Back 93

Peristalsis, segmentation

Front 94

Which salivary gland produces the most saliva?

Back 94

submandibular salivary gland

Front 95

The gallbladder produces and releases bile into the gastrointestinal tract. T or F?

Back 95

False

Front 96

Erosion of stomach or duodenal mucosa that can be caused by the bacterium Helicobacter pylori is

Back 96

peptic ulcer.

Front 97

Which is/are a function of the liver?

Back 97

bile production, detoxification of poisons, metabolites, and drugs, and production of blood proteins

Front 98

What type of tissue lines the oral cavity?

Back 98

non-keratinized stratified squamous

Front 99

The __________ is a muscular tube that propels swallowed food to the stomach through peristalsis.

Back 99

Esophagus

Front 100

The ureters are lined with what type of epithelium?

Back 100

transitional epithelium

Front 101

Active transport of solutes out of the blood into the tubules is called

Back 101

tubular secretion.

Front 102

The ___________ eventually develops into the adult human kidney.

Back 102

Metanephros

Front 103

The major calyces deposit the urine that they carry into the

Back 103

renal pelvis

Front 104

In the nephron, the process of filtration occurs in the

Back 104

glomerulus

Front 105

Fertilization occurs in the

Back 105

uterine tube.

Front 106

Oogenesis and follicle development begin at the onset of puberty. T or F?

Back 106

False

Front 107

What layer of the uterine wall is shed as menses?

Back 107

stratum functionalis

Front 108

The _____________ provides cooler temperature needed for sperm production.

Back 108

Scrotum

Front 109

What two organs are reproductive homologues?

Back 109

vestibular glands and bulbourethral glands

Front 110

How long does the Expulsion stage of labor last?

Back 110

Expulsion lasts from full dilation to delivery of the baby

Front 111

Pick the correct order of female genitalia from posterior to anterior.

Back 111

anus, vaginal orifice, urethral orifice, clitoris

Front 112

Ovulation occurs after a surge in

Back 112

LH

Front 113

Spermatogenesis is controlled by which hormones?

Back 113

FSH and testosterone.

Front 114

What happens first in fertilization?

Back 114

corona radiata penetration

Front 115

The prostate gland is located ____________ to the bladder.

Back 115

Inferiorly

Front 116

The dartos muscle has what function?

Back 116

primarily wrinkles the skin of the scrotum

Front 117

The part of the brain that is the primary visual processing center is the

Back 117

occipital lobe

Front 118

What structure does letter C highlight? (TEST IMAGE 3)

Back 118

serosa

Front 119

What type of cartilage is found in the epiglottis and auricle of the ear?

Back 119

elastic cartilage

Front 120

From what embryonic germ layer are muscles and cartilage derived?

Back 120

Mesoderm

Front 121

Umbilical veins in the fetus will become __________ in adults.

Back 121

medial umbilical ligaments

Front 122

An increase in which hormone would most likely increase blood calcium levels?

Back 122

parathyroid hormone

Front 123

Carpals are best described as what type of bone?

Back 123

short