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116 Cards in this Set

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  • Back
What is hemostasis?
the response to stop bleeding, which has 3 main steps: vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, and coagulation
What are the components of blood?
The components of blood are living blood cells/ formed elements, buffy coat (inc. leukocytes & platelets), and plasma.
What antigens/ antibodies are present in type AB blood?
AB blood has A and B antigens, no antibodies.
What antigens/ antibodies are present in type B blood?
B blood has B antigens and anti-A antibodies.
What antigens/ antibodies are present in type A blood?
A blood has A antigens and anti-B antibodies.
What kind of antigens/ antibodies are present in type O blood?
O blood has no antigens, along with anti-A & anti-B antibodies.
What is rhoGAM?
RhoGAM is a drug administered to mothers who have a baby with different Rh blood than theirs to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn/ erythroblastosis fatalis.
What kind of cells initiate the action potential for the intrinsic conduction system of the heart?
Pacemaker/ autorhythmic cells
What happens during pacemaker repolarization?
Potassium channels open during pacemaker repolarization.
Where are the main pacemaker cells of the heart located?
The main pacemaker cells of the heart are located in the sinoatrial node, which is the fastest.
How does excitation travel through cardiac pacemaker cells?
Excitation travels through i) sinoatrial node, ii) atrioventricular node, iii) right & left bundles, and finally iv) subendocardial conducting network/ Purkinje fibers
What is cardiac output?
Cardiac output is the amount of blood pumped out by each ventricle in 1 min. It's calculated by heart rate x stroke volume.
Define the Frank-Starling law of the heart.
The Frank-Starling law of the heart is the relationship between preload and stroke volume; that is, a higher preload corresponds with a higher stroke volume.
How does foetal haemoglobin differ from adult haemoglobin?
Foetal haemoglobin has a higher oxygen concentration than adult haemoglobin.
Where does erythropoietin come from?
Most erythropoietin comes from the liver and some comes from the kidneys.
What nutrients are important for erythropoiesis (RBC formation)?
Iron, vitamin B12, folic acid, sulphur, phytate and oxalate are important for erythropoiesis.
How long is the functional lifespan of the average erythrocyte?
The functional lifespan of the average erythrocyte is about 120 days.
What happens to aged and damaged red blood cells?
Aged & damaged RBCs are engulfed by macrophages of the spleen, liver, & bone marrow.
What does haemoglobin become when it's broken down?
Haemoglobin is broken down into heme and globin (an amino acid). Globin is transported in the bloodstream. Heme is further broken down into iron & bilirubin.
How is iron from broken down haemoglobin stored?
Iron from broken down haemoglobin is stored as ferritin or hemosiderin in the liver, then it is bound to transferrin & released as needed for erythropoiesis.
What are the 3 main causes of anemia?
The 3 main causes of anemia are blood loss, production of too few RBSc, and destruction of too many RBCs.
What is polycythemia?
Polycythemia is an abnormal excess of RBCs.
What are the 3 types of granulocytes?
The 3 types of granulocytes are neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.
What are the 2 types of agranulocytes?
The 2 types of agranulocytes are lymphocytes & monocytes.
What enzyme removes unneccessary blood clots? How?
The plasmin enzyme removes unneccessary blood clots via fibrinolysis.
What causes an embolism?
Embolisms are caused by thrombi that have broken away and become wedged in narrow blood vessels.
What conditions put a person at risk for an embolism?
Immobile people & those with conditions such as artherosclerosis & inflammation.
How are embolisms prevented/ treated?
Anticoagulant drugs can help to decrease the risk of embolism.
What is thrombocytopenia?
Thrombocytopenia is a bleeding disorder in which there aren't enough circulating platelets, so any movement results in widespread hemmorhage & small purple dots on the skin(petechiae).
What puts someone at risk for thrombocytopenia?
People with conditions that suppress or destroy red bone marrow are at risk for thrombocytopenia.
How is thrombocytopenia treated?
Thrombocytopenia is treated by transfusions of platelets that provide temporary relief from bleeding.
What causes hemophilia A?
Hemophilia A is caused by a deficiency of factor VIII (anti-hemophilic factor).
Which blood types are the 'universal donor' & 'universal recipient'?
The 'universal donor' is type O & the universal recipient is type AB.
How are hemophilias managed?
Hemophilias are managed by transfusions of fresh plasma or injections of the appropriate purified clotting factor.
How are ABO blood types determined?
ABO blood types are determined by the presence or absence of certain agglutinogens, depending on genetic alleles from each parent.
When are Rh antibodies made?
Rh- individuals make anti-Rh antibodies when they receive Rh+ blood.
What are the 2 atrioventricular valves?
The 2 atrioventricular valves are the tricuspid valve on the left & the bicuspid (mitral) valve on the right.
Where are the semilunar valves?
The semilunar valves are between the large arteries & the ventricles.
Why is the absolute refractory period for cardiac contraction longer than that for skeletal muscle?
The longer absolute refractory period prevents tetanic contraction
What happens to the electrical impulse at the atrioventricular node?
The electrical impulse pauses for 0/1 s at the atrioventricular node.
At what voltage does the pacemaker potential occur?
The pacemaker potential occurs at -40 mv.
What causes the pacemaker potential?
The pacemaker potential is caused by the opening of Na+ channels & the closing of K+ channels.
What is the resting voltage of most myocardial contractile cells?
-85 mV.
How is the myocardial action potential's depolarization phase delayed?
The myocardial action potential's depolarization phase is delayed by the opening of voltage-gated slow Ca+ channels once the Na+ channels have closed.
What is the first step of excitation-contration coupling in the myocardium?
Ca2+ enters through sarcolemma slow channels upon depolarization, then triggers opening of Ca2+ channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum, thereby releasing much more calcium into the cytosol.
How does Ca2+ initiate contraction once its released from channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum of the myocardium?
Ca2+ bind to troponin, revealing myosin binding sites on actin.
How does autonomic parasympathetic innervation influence heart rhythm?
The parasympathetic branch of the vagus nerve decreases the heart rate by sending a signal through its dorsal motor nucleus in the cardioinhibitory centre. This message is sent to the sinoatrial node.
How does autonomic sympathetic innervation influence heart rhythm?
Sympathetic innervation reaches the atrioventricular & sinoatrial node.
How do the ECG waves correspond to what is happening in the heart?
P: spread of atrial depolarization & contraction, QRS: ventricles depolarize & contract, T: ventricles repolarize & contract.
Define diastole.
Diastole is the first period of the cardiac cycle. It's when the blood flows into relaxed ventricles from the atria.
Define systole.
Systole is the second period of the cardiac cycle. It's when ventricles contract & blood flows out through the aorta & pulmonary artery.
Summarize the events of the cardiac cycle.
1) ventricular filling & atrial contraction, 2) ventricular systole, atrial diastole a) isovolumetric contraction phase b) ventricular ejection phase 3) early diastole- isovolumetric relaxation, ventricular volume sharply decreases.
What causes S1/ 'lub'?
S1/ 'lub' is caused by the closing of the atrioventricular valves, when most blood is in the ventricles.
What causes S2/ 'dub'?
S2/ 'dub' is caused by the closing of the semilunar valves when most blood is in the atria.
Describe a ventricular septal defect.
A ventricular septal defect is when the superior part of the inter-ventricular septum fails to form, allowing blood to mix between the two ventricles.
Describe coarctation of the aorta.
Coarctation of the aorta is a congenital heart defect in which a part of the aorta is narrowed, thereby increasing the workload on the left ventricle.
What is the tetralogy of Fallot?
The tetralogy of Fallot is a set of 4 congenital heart defects; the pulmonary trunk is narrowed, the pulmonary valve stenosed, the right ventricle is over-grown, and the aorta opens from both ventricles.
What are the 3 main factors that affect blood pressure?
The 3 main factors that affect blood pressure are stroke volume, peripheral resistance, and cardiac rate.
What are the 3 main sources of resistance to blood flow?
The 3 main sources of resistance to blood flow are blood viscosity, total blood vessel length, and blood vessel diameter.
What are 4 short-term neural mechanisms that regulate blood pressure?
Vasomotor, baroreceptor and chemoreceptor reflexes as well as higher brain centres.
Name 5 short-term hormonal mechanisms that regulate blood pressure and the organs from which they originate.
Norepinephrine & epinephrine from the adrenal medulla, renin from the kidneys, atrial natriuretic peptide from the heart, & ADH from the hypothalamus & posterior pituitary.
How do long-term renal mechanisms affect blood pressure?
Long-term renal mechanisms affect blood pressure by altering blood volume.
How is blood vessel diameter regulated? What type of mechanism is this?
Blood vessel diameter is regulated by the vasomotor centre in the medulla. This is a short-term neural mechanism.
What 7 hormones increase blood pressure?
The 7 hormones that increase blood pressure are epinephrine, norepinephrine, angiotensin II, antidiuretic hormone, aldosterone, and cortisol.
What hormone decreases blood pressure?
Atrial natriuretic peptide decreases blood pressure.
What are hydrostatic pressures?
Hydrostatic pressures are fluids pressing against walls, in the capillaries as well as the pressure of interstitial fluid against walls.
What are colloid osmotic pressures?
Colloid osmotic pressures are the pressures of nondiffusable solutes drawing fluid into the compartments in the capillaries and those in which interstitial fluids exist.
What drives net filtration pressure?
Net filtration pressure is driven by hydrostatic & osmotic pressures.
How is mean arterial pressure calculated?
Mean arterial pressures is diastolic pressure + 1/3 pulse pressure.
What are the 2 main functions of lymph nodes?
The 2 main functions of lymph nodes are being the sites of immune responses & filtering lymph.
What does MALT stand for? What is it & where is it found?
MALT stands for mucosal- associated lymphoid tissues. It refers to lymphoid tissues & cells below the epithelial layer of mucosal surfaces.
What are the different kinds of immunity?
There is innate and adaptive immunity. Adaptive immunity can be further classified into active vs. passive and humoral vs. self-mediated.
What kind of cells provide humoral immunity?
B cells provide humoral immunity.
Is humoral immunity adaptive or innate?
Humoral immunity is a form of adaptive immunity.
What kind of cells provide cellular immunity?
T cells provide cellular immunity.
Is cellular immunity innate or adaptive?
The cellular immunity that T cells provide is adaptive.
What are the key features of adaptive immunity?
The key features of adaptive immunity are antigenic specificity, diversity, immunologic memory, and self/nonself recognition.
What are the 2 kinds of cells that B lymphocytes can differentiate into?
B lymphocytes differentiate into memory B cells & plasma cells.
Describe 3 subsets of T cells.
The 3 subsets of T cells are helper T cells, cytotoxic T cells, and regulator T cells.
What are CD4 and CD8? Where are they found?
CD4 & CD8 are glycoproteins on the surface of T cells. CD4 is found on helper T cells & CD8 is found on cytotoxic T cells.
What do MHC molecules do?
MHC molecules display antigens to T cells.
Where are class I MHC molecules found? What do they do?
Class I MHC molecules are found on almost all nucleated cells. They display cytosolic agents to cytotoxic T cells.
Where are class II MHC molecules found? What do they do?
Class II MHC molecules are found on special antigen presenting cells such as macrophages, B cells & dendritic cells. Class II MHC molecules display exogenous antigens to helper T cells.
What are the 3 ways that carbon dioxide can be transported?
Carbon dioxide can be transported as a bicarbonate ion, bound to haemoglobin as carbinohaemoglobin, and dissolved in plasma.
Where are the brainstem respiratory centres?
The brainstem respiratory centres are the dorsal respiratory group & ventral respiratory group in the medulla oblongata, and the pontine respiratory group in the pons.
How do the brainstem respiratory centres affect respiratory rate?
The dorsal respiratory group in the medulla oblongata sends input from the peripheral stretch & chemoreceptors to the ventral respiratory group. The ventral respiratory group generates rhythm, integrates neurons for inspiration & expiration. The pontine respiratory group regulates ventral respiratory group activity & function.
What are the 2 kinds of chemoreceptors that respond to increased arterial carbon dioxide? Which of these does so directly? How does the other work?
Peripheral & central chemoreceptors respond to increased arterial carbon dioxide. Peripheral chemoreceptors in the carotid & aortic bodies do so directly. Central chemoreceptors respond to increased H+ in brain ecf.
What kind of breathing do humans do to accommodate for exercise?
The kind of breathing that people do to accommodate for exercise is hyperpnea.
What are the 4 layers of the GI tract?
The 4 layers of the GI tract are the mucosa, submucosa, muscularis externa, and serosa.
Describe the mucosa.
The mucosa is composed of simple columnar epithelium and a lamina propria (MALT) as well as muscularis mucosae (folds of smooth muscle).
What is deglutition?
Deglutition is swallowing.
What are complements?
Complements are groups of 20 plasma proteins that normally circulate in the blood in an inactive state. Their activation unleashes inflammation chemicals that amplify virtually all aspects of the inflammation process.
What 3 things must happen for mictruition to take place?
For mictruition to take place, the detrusor must contract, the internal sphincter must open, and the external sphincter must open.
How does the kidney contribute to the body's function?
Kidneys assist in maintaining the body's internal temperature by regulating the total volume of water in the body, concentration of ions and other solutes, acid-base balance, excrete wastes and foreign substances, produce erythropoietin & renin, and carry out gluconeogenesis during fasting.
What are the 3 key players in regulation of the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla & their roles?
The 3 key players in regulation of the osmotic gradient in the renal medulla are the long nephron loops which act as countercurrent exchangers & create the gradient, the vasa recta which also act as countercurrent exchangers but to preserve the gradient, and the collecting ducts which use the gradient to adjust urine osmolality.
What is the permeability of the descending limbs?
The descending limbs are permeable to water & not ions.
What is the permeability of the thin ascending limbs?
The thin ascending limbs are not permeable to water, yet they passively lose ions from high-osmolality filtrate into renal medulla.
What is the permeability of the thick ascending limbs?
The thick ascending limbs actively transport salt out of filtrate into the medulla.
What does the countercurrent multiplier system refer to?
The countercurrent multiplier system refers to the multiplication of NaCl via action of the descending, thin ascending & thick ascending loops.
Define renal clearance.
Renal clearance is the volume of plasma cleared of a particular substance in a given time.
Where does antidiuretic hormone come from?
ADH comes from the hypothalamus & posterior pituitary.
Where does aldosterone come from?
Aldosterone comes from the adrenal cortex.
What is the action of aldosterone?
Aldosterone increases the tongue's salt sensitivity, responds to rising K+ or falling Na+ and stimulates renal Na+ retention.
What is another name for sustentocyte cells?
Sustentocyte cells are also known as nurse cells.
What is a phenocopy?
A phenocopy is an environmental effect that mimics genetic mutation.
When must coitus occur for successful fertilization?
No more then 2 days before ovulation & no later than 24 hours after.
What is the process called that prevents further sperm entry into the oocyte post-fertilization?
The cortical reaction, which results in hardening of the zona pellucida.
When does implantation begin?
Implantation begins 6-7 days after ovulation.
What hormone maintains the corpus luteum?
The corpus luteum is maintained by human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG).
What is the decidua basalis?
The decidua basalis is the part of the endometrium that lies beneath the embryo.
When does the placenta become functional as a nutritive, respiratory, excretory & endocrine organ?
By the 3rd month of pregnancy.
What 4 extraembryonic membranes form during the first 2-3 weeks?
The amnion, yolk sac, allantois, and chorion.
What is gastrulation?
Gastrulation is the process of cellular reorganization that transforms the embryo from a 2-layered embryonic disk into 3 layers.
What are the 3 layers of the embryo?
The 3 layers of the embryo are the ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm.
What 5 signs are babies assessed for 1-5 mins after birth?
Babies are assessed for heart rate, respiration, colour, muscle tone & reflexes 1-5 mins after birth.
Define phenotype.
A phenotype is the way that a gene is expressed on the body, such as someone being double jointed.