Anatomy & Physiology

Front 1

Hormones are secreted into

Back 1

The bloodstream

Front 2

In order for a hormone to be effective its target cell must have a:

Back 2

receptor for the hormone.

Front 3

What type of hormone is synthesized from cholesterol?

Back 3

steroid hormones

Front 4

Which pair of hormones is hydrophilic?

Back 4

peptide and catecholamine hormones

Front 5

Which hormones must bind to transport proteins in order to reach their target cells?

Back 5

hydrophobic hormones

Front 6

Negative feedback control of hormone secretion begins when a

Back 6

rising level of hormone is detected by the gland that produced it.

Front 7

The endocrine system works closely with the ______ to control and coordinate the intricate parts and functions of the body.

Back 7

nervous system

Front 8

The hypothalamus gland is physically attached to what other endocrine gland?

Back 8

pituitary gland

Front 9

Which hormone does the hypothalamus gland produce?

Back 9

oxytocin

Front 10

Which gland is the master endocrine gland?

Back 10

pituitary

Front 11

When oxytocin is released into the bloodstream, what is one of its effects?

Back 11

milk letdown

Front 12

Which hormones are responsible for male secondary sex characteristic development?

Back 12

androgens

Front 13

Where is insulin produced?

Back 13

pancreas

Front 14

The hormonal part of the “flight-or-fight” response is produced in the

Back 14

adrenal glands

Front 15

The target for luteinizing hormone in females is

Back 15

ovaries

Front 16

The anterior pituitary gland produces somatotropin, which is also known as

Back 16

growth hormone

Front 17

Where is antidiuretic hormone that is produced in the hypothalamus stored before its release into the bloodstream?

Back 17

posterior pituitary gland

Front 18

Bovine somatotropin (BST) is used to

Back 18

increase milk production in dairy cows

Front 19

Thyroid-stimulating hormone is produced by the

Back 19

anterior pituitary gland

Front 20

In a male, follicle-stimulation hormone

Back 20

stimulates spermatogenesis

Front 21

Dwarfism is a result of

Back 21

GH deficiency

Front 22

In a male, prolactin

Back 22

has no known effect

Front 23

The hormone that results in a rise in blood glucose when it is released into the bloodstream is

Back 23

glucoagon

Front 24

Which drug will cause a female to “superovulate” in preparation for embryo transfer?

Back 24

FSH

Front 25

The primary target for glucocorticoid hormone is the

Back 25

whole body

Front 26

The function of ADH is to

Back 26

conserve water

Front 27

Animals that suffer from a deficiency of ADH are likely to show clinical signs that include

Back 27

polydipsia

Front 28

The gland that helps regulate the body’s blood calcium levels is the

Back 28

parathyroid gland

Front 29

Administration of which classification of drugs can cause effects that mimic the body’s natural white blood cell stress response?

Back 29

glucocorticosteroids

Front 30

The most active form of thyroid hormone is

Back 30

triiodothyronine

Front 31

How does the metabolic rate affect an animal’s core temperature?

Back 31

As the metabolic rate increases, so does the animal’s core temperature.

Front 32

When a normal, healthy animal is exposed to cold temperatures, what happens to the production of thyroid hormone?

Back 32

It is increased to increase the animal's metabolic rate

Front 33

Which two hormones are involved in maintaining the homeostasis of blood calcium levels?

Back 33

parathyroid homone and calcitonin

Front 34

Milk fever and eclampsia are two pathologic conditions that result from

Back 34

hypocalcemia

Front 35

Which gland is not located in the head and neck area of an animal?

Back 35

adrenal gland

Front 36

The term iatrogenic means

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caused by treatment

Front 37

Aldosterone helps regulate __ levels in the body.

Back 37

electrolytes

Front 38

The fight-or-flight hormones are

Back 38

epinephrine and norepinephrine.

Front 39

Diabetes mellitus is a disease caused by a deficiency of

Back 39

insulin

Front 40

The principle androgen produced in the testes is

Back 40

testosterone

Front 41

Estrogens are produced when __ induces ovaries to develop follicles.

Back 41

FSH

Front 42

In most animal species ovulation occurs when the blood level of __ peaks.

Back 42

LH

Front 43

Melatonin is produced by the

Back 43

pineal body

Front 44

Besides the gonads, which other gland produces sex hormones?

Back 44

adrenal cortex

Front 45

The gland that plays a direct role in development of the immune system is the:

Where do T lymphocytes mature?

Back 45

thymus

Front 46

Erythropoietin affects the development of

Back 46

red blood cells

Front 47

Amylase- aids in the digestion of 1.____________________.
Lipase- aids in the digestion of 2. ______________________.
Trypsin- aids in the digestion of 3. _____________________.

Back 47

1. carbohydrates and starches
2. fats
3. proteins

Front 48

If an anticoagulant is used when collecting a blood sample, the fluid obtained from the sample after it has been centrifuged is

Back 48

plasma

Front 49

There are 13 clotting factors. What is the minimum number of factors that can be deficient or absent before blood will not clot?

Back 49

0

Front 50

EDTA is a/an

Back 50

anticoagulant.

Front 51

_____________ are blood cells that have specific granules in their cytoplasm when the cells are mature.

Back 51

Granulocytes

Front 52

An example of an agranulocytic leukocyte is a/an

Back 52

lymphocyte.

Front 53

A term that describes normal monocyte production is

Back 53

monocytopoiesis

Front 54

An animal that has been vomiting frequently for the past 5 days and has been eating or drinking very little will most likely suffer from

Back 54

hemoconcentration.

Front 55

In a 3-year-old sheep most leukocyte production takes place in the

Back 55

red bone marrow.

Front 56

Yellow bone marrow is composed primarily of

Back 56

fat cells

Front 57

Which of the following cells is the most primitive?
megakaryoblast

megakaryocyte

pluripotential stem cell

unipotential stem cell

Back 57

pluripotential stem cell

Front 58

The rate of erythropoiesis is controlled by erythropoietin, which is a/an

Back 58

hormone produced by the kidney.

Front 59

An NRBC (nucleated RBC) is __ a mature erythrocyte.

Back 59

less mature than

Front 60

Polychromasia seen in erythrocytes is a sign of

Back 60

immaturity

Front 61

A megakaryocyte will eventually produce

Back 61

thrombocytes.

Front 62

Which mature blood cell is described as a non-nucleated biconcave disc?

Back 62

erythrocyte

Front 63

How many heme molecules are contained in one hemoglobin molecule?

Back 63

4

Front 64

One hemoglobin molecule can carry how many molecules of oxygen?

Back 64

4

Front 65

Oxygen carried in a hemoglobin molecule is bound to a/an

Back 65

iron atom

Front 66

What gives hemoglobin its natural color?

Back 66

the heme molecule

Front 67

What nutrient do erythrocytes utilize to stay alive in a blood collection tube filled with blood?

Back 67

glucose

Front 68

A senescent erythrocyte is a/an __ erythrocyte.

Back 68

aged

Front 69

The organ in an animal’s body that is the primary site of extravascular hemolysis is the

Back 69

spleen

Front 70

Stercobilin is a/an

Back 70

pigment

Front 71

Stercobilinogen is a breakdown product of

Back 71

heme

Front 72

Jaundice (icterus) could be a result of

Back 72

excessive amounts of unconjugated bilirubin.

Front 73

The PCV is determined using

Back 73

whole blood with an anticoagulant added

Front 74

The normal reference range for the hematocrit in an adult dog is 35% to 57%. Rex, an adult Golden Retriever, has a hematocrit of 15%. This is an indication that Rex might

Back 74

be anemic

Front 75

Which one of the following blood tests would measure the average size of an erythrocyte in a blood sample?

Back 75

mean corpuscular volume

Front 76

When performing a manual differential white blood cell count, how many white blood cells do you count per stained blood smear?

Back 76

100 white blood cells

Front 77

If you counted 95% neutrophils on a cow’s differential white blood cell count and the normal range is 15% to 33%, this would be classified as a

Back 77

neutrophilia

Front 78

The process by which blood is prevented from leaking out of damaged blood vessels is

Back 78

hemostasis

Front 79

During hemostasis which process occurs first?

Back 79

platelet adhesion

Front 80

The function of ALL white blood cells is

Back 80

defense

Front 81

The PMN is also known as a/an

Back 81

neutrophil

Front 82

Where do neutrophils mature in a normal, healthy animal?

Back 82

red bone marrow

Front 83

An immature neutrophil with a horseshoe-shaped nucleus is called a

Back 83

band cell

Front 84

If immature neutrophils are observed in peripheral blood, the condition is called a

Back 84

left shift

Front 85

White blood cells use peripheral blood for

Back 85

transportation

Front 86

You are looking at a stained smear of horse blood and you see a leukocyte with large red granules in its cytoplasm. What cell are you most likely seeing?

Back 86

eosinophil

Front 87

What is the minimum number of nuclear lobes seen in a hypersegmented neutrophil?

Back 87

6

Front 88

The process by which a neutrophil squeezes between the cells of the endothelium to leave a blood vessel and enter tissue is called

Back 88

diapedesis

Front 89

The process by which neutrophils are attracted to the site of an infection by the interaction between microorganisms and tissue is called

process of attaching a phagocyte to a bacteria cell wall.

Back 89

chemotaxis

Front 90

The process by which neutrophils engulf invading foreign microorganisms is called

Back 90

phagocytosis

Front 91

This granulocyte makes up less than 1% of the circulating leukocytes.

This granulocyte’s granules contain heparin.

Back 91

basophil

Front 92

Which leukocyte is responsible for cell-mediated immunity?

What cell is responsible for immunity against intracellular pathogens?

Back 92

T lymphocyte

Front 93

Immunoglobulins are produced by which leukocyte?

Back 93

plasma cell

Front 94

Natural killer cells are a type of

Back 94

lymphocyte

Front 95

One antibody type has thousands of antigen receptors on its cell surface. How many types of antigens will typically fit these receptors?

Back 95

1

Front 96

Blastic transformation of B lymphocytes will produce

Back 96

plasma cells

Front 97

When monocytes enter tissue they become

Back 97

macrophages

Front 98

Along with tissue macrophages, which leukocytes make up the mononuclear phagocyte system?

Back 98

monocytes

Front 99

Which set of vessels may contain one-way valves to prevent backflow?

Back 99

veins and lymph vessels

Front 100

Lymph from the digestive tract is called

Back 100

chyle

Front 101

Where would you look for the thymus in a young animal?

Back 101

cranial thorax

Front 102

You would most likely see postprandial lipemia

Back 102

shortly after an animal has eaten.

Front 103

Which vessel carries lymph into a lymph node?

Back 103

afferent lymph vessel

Front 104

The organ that is made up of white pulp and red pulp is the:

Which organ is capable of storing blood that can be released into circulation when the animal needs it?

Back 104

spleen

Front 105

Tonsils differ from lymph nodes in that they

Back 105

are NOT encapsulated

Front 106

Any organism that is capable of causing disease is considered a/an

Back 106

pathogen

Front 107

An animal’s first line of defense against potential disease-causing organisms is the

Back 107

SKIN

Front 108

Excessive numbers of chylomicrons in blood can cause

Back 108

lipemia

Front 109

Where on an animal would you look for the popliteal lymph node?

Back 109

caudal aspect of the hamstring muscles

Front 110

Which blood cell becomes a macrophage when it enters tissue?

Back 110

monocyte

Front 111

A dendritic cell is a macrophage found in

Back 111

lymph nodes

Front 112

The ______ immune system is fast to respond to foreign invaders

Back 112

INNATE

Front 113

External innate immunity depends on

Back 113

intact skin

Front 114

Redness, swelling, heat, and pain are the four cardinal signs of inflammation. A fifth sign that is frequently added is

Back 114

loss of function

Front 115

Lysosomes in the cytoplasm of a phagocyte contain

Back 115

digestive enzymes

Front 116

The two most important functions of the complement system are to alter microbial cell membranes and

Back 116

initiate an inflammatory response.

Front 117

The complement system can alter a microbial cell membrane through a process of ___ that makes the microbe more “visible” to a phagocyte.

Back 117

opsonization

Front 118

The type of cytokine that is produced by virus-infected cells and attaches to the cell membranes of nearby noninfected cells is a/an

Back 118

interferon

Front 119

_______ ______ _____ are part of both the innate and adaptive immune systems.

Back 119

Natural killer cells

Front 120

Another name for programmed cell death caused by NK cells is

Back 120

apoptosis

Front 121

________ ________ is associated with memory cells.

Back 121

Adaptive immunity

Front 122

An immunoglobulin is also known as a/an

Back 122

antibody

Front 123

What cell is responsible for production, storage, and release of antibodies?

Back 123

plasma cell

Front 124

Which specific type of immunity is involved in antibody production?

Back 124

humoral immunity

Front 125

The first immunoglobulin produced by newborn animals is

Back 125

IgM

Front 126

The type of immunoglobulin produced through intranasal vaccination is

The immunoglobulin that protects body surfaces such as mucosal surfaces from foreign microorganisms is

Back 126

IgA

Front 127

The most common immunoglobulin produced after an animal has been exposed to a pathogen for a long time is

Back 127

IgG

Front 128

What type of immunologic cell can protect an animal from a pathogen after the animal’s initial exposure and during a subsequent exposure?

Back 128

memory B cell

Front 129

Helper T cells help the immune response by secreting __ into the surrounding tissue.

Back 129

cytokines

Front 130

What type of cell will INHIBIT helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells?

Back 130

regulatory T cells

Front 131

An attenuated vaccine contains

Back 131

modified live virus

Front 132

Transplacental antibody transfer from mother to fetus is an example of

Back 132

passive immunity.

Front 133

The virulence of a pathogen refers to

Back 133

the relative strength of the pathogen.

Front 134

The type of hypersensitivity reaction that can be associated with a severe allergic reaction from a second exposure to an antigen is

Back 134

type I reaction

Front 135

Autoimmune hemolytic anemia results from a

Back 135

type II reaction

Front 136

If you see a lymphocyte on a stained blood smear, it is most likely what type of lymphocyte?

Back 136

B cell