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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is called the "knee" in the forelimb of a horse would be called the _____ in the human. a. hip joint b. wrist joint c. finger joint d. knee joint |
b. wrist joint The carpus in the horse is called a knee joint, which is equivalent to the wrist joint in a person |
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The linea alba on a standing cat is_____to the spinal cord a. ventral b. dorsal c. medial d. contralateral |
a. ventral |
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A common sign of a puppy with a cleft palate would be a. inability to breathe b. milk coming out of its nose c. malocclusion of the teeth d. inability to urinate |
b. milk coming out of its nose |
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Yellow mucous membranes would suggest a. renal disease b. hepatic disease c. shock d. dehydration |
b. hepatic disease |
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A CRT of 2 seconds would suggest a. shock b. anemia c. a healthy animal d. dehydration |
c. a healthy animal 2 seconds or less is normal fro CRT |
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What is the name for the large, flat projection located lateral to the head of the femur? a. lesser trochanter b. greater trochanter c. trochanteric fossa d. tubercle |
b. greater trochanter The greater trochanter is a large, flat projection found lateral to the head of the femur. It is the attachment site for the large gluteal muscles. |
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The femur articulates distally with the tibia, forming the a. hip joint b. stifle joint c. tarsal joint d. shoulder joint |
b. stifle joint |
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What is the term for a part closer to a pint of attachment of to the trunk? a. distal b. lateral c. proximal d. superficial |
c. proximal proximal refers to the beginning of a structure of the part nearest the midline |
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What is the term used below the carpus for the surface directed caudally or ventrally? a. plantar b. sagittal c. palmar d. longitudinal |
c. palmar palmar refers to the bottom of the front foot or hoof (distal to the carpus) |
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In growing bone, where does lengthening take place? a. epiphyseal plate b. metaphysis c. diaphysis d. periosteal plane |
a. epiphyseal plate the physis (epiphyseal plate) is the segment of the bone that involves growth of the bone |
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What layer of bone tissue is necessary for attachment of ligaments and tendons? a. periosteum b. endosteum c. cartilage d. meniscus |
a. periosteum periosteum is a tough, fibrous tissue that forms the outer covering of bone |
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The fibrous covering around the part of the bone NOT covered by articular cartilage is a. endosteum b. ligament c. tendon d. periosteum |
d. periosteum |
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What two valves comprise the atrioventricular valves? a. mitral, pulmonic b. aortic, pulmonic c. mitral, tricuspid d. pulmonic tricuspid |
c. mitral, tricuspid The mitral valve is located between the left atrium and left ventricle. the tricuspid valve is located between the right atrium and right ventricle |
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What two valves comprise the semilunar valves? a. mitral, pulmonic b. aortic, pulmonic c. mitral, tricuspid d. pulmonic tricuspid |
b. aortic, pulmonic The pulmonic valve is the right ventricular outflow valve, and the aortic valve is the left ventricular outflow valve |
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The normal dentition pattern for an adult cat is a. incisor 3/3,canine 1/1,premolar 3/2,molar 1/1 b. incisor 3/3,canine 1/1,premolar 4/3,molar 2/2 c. incisor 2/2,canine 1/1,premolar 3/2,molar 2/1 d. incisor 2/2,canine 1/1,premolar 4/4,molar 1/1 |
a. incisor 3/3,canine 1/1,premolar 3/2,molar 1/1 The adult cat has 30 teeth; the upper jaw has 16 teeth and the lower jaw has 14 teeth |
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In the avian species, the ventral wall of the esophagus is greatly expanded to form the a. proventriculus b. crop c. gizzard d. duodenum |
b. crop At the thoracic inlet of a bird the ventral wall of the esophagus expands greatly to form the crop that bulges to the right and lies against the breast muscle |
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How many air sacs does a chicken have? a. 4 b. 6 c. 8 d. 9 |
c. 8 Chickens have eight air sacs; single cervical and clavicular sacs and paired cranial thoracic, caudal thoracic, and abdominal sacs |
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In birds, the cloaca is a. an appendage suspended from the head b. a blind sac at the distal end of the jejunum c. a cleft in the hard palate d. a common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems |
d. a common passage for fecal, urinary, and reproductive systems |
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In the avian species, the gizzard is also referred to as the a. proventriculus b. ventriculus c. crop d. colon |
b. ventriculus The gizzard or ventriculus is the muscular stomach of birds |
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The femoral artery is cranial to what muscle? a. sartorius b. pectineus c. rectus femoris d. tensor fascia lata |
b. pectineus The boundaries of the femoral triangle are the sartorius muscle cranial, the pectineus muscle caudal, anf the vagus medialis and iliopsoas deep laterally |
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The uvea consists of the iris, ciliary body and a. nervous tunic b. fibrous tunic c. anterior chamber d. choroid |
d. choroid The choroid is the middle layer of the eyeball that contains blood vessels and supplies for the entire eye |
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The shape of the eye eyeball is maintained by the a. sclera b. vitreous humor c. lens d. fibrous tunic |
b. vitreous humor |
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The muscular structure that separates the right and left ventricles is called the interventricular a. sternum b. coronary muscle c. septum d. myocardium |
c. septum |
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The muscular layer that makes up the majority of the heart mass is the a. myocardium b. endocardium c. myometrium d. pericardium |
a. myocardium |
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The major artery that carries blood out of the left ventricle is the a. subclavian artery b. carotid artery c. pulmonary artery d. aorta |
d. aorta Although all are important arteries, the aorta is the only one associated directly with the left ventricle |
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All of the following major vessels contribute to blood flowing into the cranial vena cava except for the a. brachiocephalic vein b. thoracic duct c. azygos vein d. femoral vein |
d. femoral vein The femoral vein is the caudal part of the body and would be associated with the caudal vena cava not the cranial vena cava |
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The structure by which venous blood from the intestines bypasses the liver is the a. ductus arteriosus b. porto-caval shunt c. obturator foramen d. intrahepatic venous plexus |
b. porto-caval shunt |
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The coronary veins empty blood via the coronary sinus into the a. left atrium b. right atrium c. left ventricle d. right ventricle |
b. right atrium The right atrium receives all venous blood with the exception of blood in the pulmonary vein |
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The pulmonary circulation is under a. high pressure b. low pressure c. partial pressure d. equilibrium |
b. low pressure |
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Systemic circulation is under a. high pressure b. low pressure c. partial pressure d. equilibrium |
a. high pressure the systemic circulation is under high pressure; the pulmonary and coronary circulations are under low pressure |
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How many teeth does an adult dog have? a. 28 b. 32 c. 42 d. 50 |
c. 42 |
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Which of these is not a division of the small intestines? a. duodenum b. ilium c. ileum d.jejunum |
b. ilium The ilium is part of the pelvis |
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What abdominal organ is absent in the horse and rat? a. right kidney b. gall bladder c. pancreas d. cecum |
b. gall bladder The horse and the rat are two species that lack gall bladders |
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What is unique about the ruminant oral cavity? a. presence of a dental pad b. absence of salivary glands c. absence of molars d. presence of needle teeth |
a. presence of a dental pad Ruminants lack upper incisors and canines. They have a dental pad that helps them break up grassy materials as they chew |
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What is the average frequency of ruminations for ruminants? a. 2/minute b. 10/minute c. 1/hour d. 5/hour |
a. 2/minute |
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What is the most common site of feed impactions in the horse? a. Sternal flexure b. diaphragmatic flexure c. stomach d. pelvic flexure |
d. pelvic flexure |
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Food is moved along the digestive tract by the process known as a. mastication b. prehension c. peristalsis d. reticulation |
c. peristalsis |
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The most distal portion of the monogastric stomach is the a. fundus b. antrum c. cardia d. pylorus |
d. pylorus |
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All of the following are cells found in the fundus and body of the stomach EXCEPT a. parietal cells b. chief cells c. G cells d. mucous cells |
c. G cells The G cells are found in the antrum of the stomach |
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Which of the following is not a hormaone produced or released by the pituitary gland? a. luteinizing hormone b. oxytocin c. growth hormone d. calcitonin |
d. calcitonin Luteinizing hormone, oxytocin, and growth hormones are all pituitary hormones |
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Which of the following is a ductless system? a. exocrine b. endocrine c. exogenous d. lymphatic |
b. endocrine |
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The hormone responsible for maintaining pregnancy is a. oxytocin b. luteinizing hormone c. estrogen d. progesterone |
d. progesterone |
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The structure produced immediately after an ovarian follicle has ruptured and released its ovum is the a. corpus callosum b. corpus luteum c. granulosm d. sertolioma |
b. corpus luteum the corpus luteum is responsible for the initial secrection of the hormaones necessary to maintain pregnancy |
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A deficiency in antidiuretic hormone causes a. diabetes insipidus b. diabetes mellitus c. cushings disease d. pancreatic insufficiency |
a. diabetes insipidus |
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What hormone is produced by the kidney? a. antidiuretic hormone b. adrenocorticropic hormone c. erythropoietin d. adrenal cortex hormone |
c. erythropoietin |
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What hormone is produced by the beta cells in the pancreas? a. insulin b. glucagon c. glycogen d. somatostatin |
a. insulin |
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The adrenal cortex is made up of all of the following EXCEPT a. zona glomerilosa b. zona medullata c. zona fasciculata d. zona reticularis |
b. zona medullata |
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The endocrine structure responsible for secreting melatonin is a. pituitary gland b. spleen c. thymus d. pineal gland |
d. pineal gland |
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The lymphatic system is not involved in a. waste material transport b. protein transport c. carbohydrate transport d. fluid transport |
c. carbohydrate transport |
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Which is not a lymphatic structure? a. peyers patches b. haustra c. lacteals d. thoracic duct |
d. thoracic duct |
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The lymphatic structure found in the small intestines for the transport of fats and fat-soluble vitamins is a. peyers patches b. lacteals c. popliteal lymph nodes d. spleen |
b. lacteals Lacteals are intestinal lymph tissue that transports fats that are too large to be transported by the circulatory system |
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Which of the following is a lymphatic structure? a. bile duct b. islets of langerhans c. thyroid d. tonsil |
d. tonsil |
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What structure is not found in the brainstem? a. midbrain b. pons c. hypothalamus d. medulla oblongata |
c. hypothalamus |
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Which of these is not a catecholamine? a. norepinephrine b. acetylcholine c. epinephrine d. dopamine |
b. acetylcholine |
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Which animal does not have a gall bladder? a. goat b. donkey c. cat d. sheep |
b. donkey |
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Ruminants have what type of placentation? a. cotyledonary b. zonary c. diffuse d. discoid |
a. cotyledonary |
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Which of the following is a posterior pituitary hormone? a. luteinizing hormone b. growth hormone c. oxytocin d. FSH |
c. oxytocin |
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Sperm cells are produced by the a. seminiferous tubule b. epididymis c. vas deferens d. seminal vesicles |
a. seminiferous tubule |
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What domestic species lacks the bulbourethral gland, also called cowpers gland? a. equine b. feline c. canine d. bovine |
c. canine |
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All of the following are induced ovulators EXCEPT a. rabbit b. rat c. cat d. ferret |
b. rat |
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The time period from the beginning of one heat cycle to the beginning of the next is called a. estrous b. estrus c. ovulation d. the mating cycle |
a. estrous estrus is the actual heat period |
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What muscle is responsible for pulling the testicles closer to the body? a. retractor penis muscle b. cremaster muscle c. kegel muscle d. retractor testicle muscle |
b. cremaster muscle |
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When does ovulation occur in the cow? a. midestrus b. after estrus c. 1-2 days after estrus d. 12 hours after standing heat |
d. 12 hours after standing heat |
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What primary ovarian structure is responsible for the release of estrogen? a. follicle b. placenta c. corpus hemorrhagicum d. corpus luteum |
a. follicle |
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What hormone is given to prevent pregnancies in dogs that have been unintentionally "mismated"? a. oxytocin b. LH c. estrogen d. progesterone |
c. estrogen |
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The average gestation length in the ferret is a. 69 days b. 42 days c. 151 days d. 20 days |
b. 42 days |
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The condition known as pseudopregnancy can result from an exaggerated a. anestrus b. metestrus c. diestrus d. proestrus |
c. diestrus |
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The thorax is normally under a. partial pressure b. positive pressure c. equilibrium d. negative pressure |
d. negative pressure The thorax is under negative pressure. This pulls the lungs against the thoracic wall, allowing the lungs to move with the thorax as it expands or contracts |
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Skeletal muscles are a. under voluntary control b. nonstriated c. under involuntary control d. found in the walls of hollow organs |
a. under voluntary control the other answers apply to smooth muscle |
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The two main mineral that make up bone are a. calcium, magnesium b. sodium, potassium c. calcium, phosphorus d. calcium, potassium |
c. calcium, phosphorus calcium and phosphorus crystals are deposited to form bone |
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Basic functions of bones include all of the following EXCEPT a. protection b. storage c. leverage d. metabolism |
d. metabolism |
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The hormone primarily responsible for preventing hypocalcemia is a. T4 b. parathyroid hormone c. calcitonin d. vitamin D |
b. parathyroid hormone prevents it by stimulating bone degradation |
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The hormon primarily responsible for preventing hypercalcemia is a. T4 b. parathyroid hormone c. calcitonin d. vitamin D |
c. calcitonin prevents it by depositing excess calcium in the bones |
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The bone cells responsible for the removal of bone are a. osteoclasts b. osteoblasts c. chondroblasts d. chondroclasts |
a. osteoclasts |
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The periosteum a. covers joint cavities b. lines the heart c. lines the marrow cavity of bones d. covers the outer surface of bones |
d. covers the outer surface of bones |
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Bones come in all of the following shapes EXCEPT a. flat b. short c. regular d. long |
c. regular The four types of bone are flat, short, long, and irregular |
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The shaft of the bone is also called the a. trunk b. epiphysis c. periosteum d. diaphysis |
d. diaphysis |
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An example of a short bone would be a. vertebra b. tarsal bone c. scapula d. patella |
b. tarsal bone |
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The skull bone that articulates with the first cervical vertebra is the a. parietal bone b. temporal bone c. occipital bone d. frontal bone |
c. occipital bone |
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The bones known collectively as the ossicles include all of the following EXCEPT a. sphenoid b. malleus c. stapes d. incus |
a. sphenoid The sphenoid bone forms the bottom of the cranium and contains the pituitary fossa. |
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The cat has how many cervical vertebrae? a. 13 b. 7 c. 3 d. 10 |
b. 7 |
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The first cervical vertebra, C1, is referred to as the a. axis b. atlas c. arch d. auricle |
b. atlas |
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The breastbone is the a. hyoid b. septum c. tubercle d. sternum |
d. sternum |
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The most caudal portion of the sternum is called the a. xiphoid b. coccyx c. manubrium d. costal |
a. xiphoid |
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Claws, hooves, and horns are made up of which type of cell? a. keratinized b. agglutinated c. calcified d. crystallized |
a. keratinized |
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The average rate of equine hoof growth per month is a. 2 inches b. 1/2 inch c. 1 inch d. 1/4 inch |
d. 1/4 inch |
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Adult cattle have how many upper incisors? a. 6 b. 4 c. 0 d. 5 |
c. 0 Cattle lack upper incisors |
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The anatomic term for synovial joints is a. fibroarthroses b. amphiarthroses c. synarthroses d. diathroses |
d. diathroses |
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Which joint is not a synovial joint? a. hinge joint b. gliding joint c. swinging joint d. pivot joint |
c. swinging joint |
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The area of the kidney where the blood vessels and nerves enter and leave is called the a. hilus b. medullary rays c. cortex d. collecting ducts |
a. hilus |
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In the kidney, the primary site of action of ADH is in the a. loop of henle b. proximal convoluted tubule c. glomerulus d. collecting ducts |
d. collecting ducts |
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The renal corpuscle is located in the a. renal pelvis b. hilus c. medulla d. cortex |
d. cortex |
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The renal corpuscle is composed of the a. glomerulus and bowman capsule b. collecting ducts and proximal convoluted tubule c. descending and ascending loops of henle d. collecting ducts and afferent arteriole |
a. glomerulus and bowman capsule |
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The urinary bladder is not responsible for a. urine storage b. urine filtration c. urine collecting d. urine release |
b. urine filtration |
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The trunk of an animal is defined as a. The front half b. the back half c. the thorax d. the thorax and abdomen |
d. the thorax and abdomen the trunk is the part of the body that the head and limbs are attached to |
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The area between the thorax and the front leg is called the a. axilla b. inguina c. forearm d. armpit |
a. axilla Correct veterinary terminology should always be used, and animals do not have arms |
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The middle phalanx is located a. lateral to the distal phalanx b. distal to the distal phalanx c. medial to the distal phalanx d. proximal to the distal phalanx |
d. proximal to the distal phalanx Phalanges are named proximal, middle, and distal from the point closest to the trunk of the body |
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The humeroradioulnar joint is located a. lateral to the carpus b. distal to the left of the carpus c. medial to the carpus d. proximal to the carpus |
d. proximal to the carpus the humerus, radius, and ulna are jointed at the animal's elbow. The carpus is distal to the elbow |
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The feline liver is normally_____to the kidneys a. dorsal b. ventral c. caudal d. cranial |
d. cranial the liver sits in the abdomen and the kidneys are in the mid lumbar region |
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The leg bone responsible for minimal support is the a. fibula b. femur c. tibia d. humerus |
a. fibula All of the leg bones support substantial weight except the fibula, which is primarily used for tendon and ligament attachments and in some species is vestigial |
