• Shuffle
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Alphabetize
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Front First
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Both Sides
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
  • Read
    Toggle On
    Toggle Off
Reading...
Front

Card Range To Study

through

image

Play button

image

Play button

image

Progress

1/470

Click to flip

Use LEFT and RIGHT arrow keys to navigate between flashcards;

Use UP and DOWN arrow keys to flip the card;

H to show hint;

A reads text to speech;

470 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Pt has defective CNS neurons, ependymal cells, oligodendroglia, astrocytes.

Where did these cells derive from?
Neuroectoderm
Pt has defective Schwann cells, PNS neurons

Where did these cells derive from?
Neural crest
Pt has defective Microglia, Macrophages

Where did these cells derive from?
Mesoderm
You see a large cell with prominent nucleoli, Nissl substance (RER) in cell body, dendrites but NO axon. What kind of cell is it?
Neuron
This cell provides support, repair, K+ metabolism, removal of excess neurotransmitter, maintains blood-brain barrier
Astrocyte
This cell is responsible for reactive gliosis in response to injury

has GFAP
Astrocyte
This cell is a CNS phagocyte, has small irregular nuclei and little cytoplasm. It is a scavenger cell of the CNS
Microglia
This cell differentiates into large phagocytic cells following tissue damage
Microglia
This cell fuses to form multinucleated giant cells in the CNS when infected by HIV
Microglia
Oligodendrocyte vs. Schwann Cell
Oligodendrocyte
- CNS
- myelinates multiple axons

Schwann cell
- PNS
- myelinates only 1 axon
Pt has multiple sclerosis. What cells are destroyed?
Oligodendroglia
Predominant type of glial cell in white matter, looks like fried eggs on H&E
Oligodendroglia
Pt has Guillain-Barre syndrome and acoustic neuroma. What embryonal layer do the destroyed cells derive from?
Neural crest

Schwann cells
Pt can't sense pain and temperature. What type of fiber does the damaged receptor use?
C-fiber
- slow, unmyelinated

A-delta
- fast, myelinated

(Free nerve ending)
Pt has impaired position sense and dynamic fine touch (manipulation). What type of receptor and nerve fiber is damaged?

where on the body are these found?
Meissner's corpuscles
- Large, myelinated fibers

Glabrous (hairless skin)
Pt has impaired vibration, pressure. What type of receptor and nerve fiber is damaged?

where on the body is it found?
Pacinian corpuscle
- large myelinated fiber

deep skin
ligaments
joints
Pt has impaired position sense, static touch (textures). What type of receptor and nerve fiber is damaged?

where on the body is it found?
Merkel's disks
- large myelinated fibers

hair follicles
difference in adaptivity b/w Meissners and Merkel cells?
Meissner - fast adapting
Merkel - slow adapting
Pt w/ Guillain-Barre. What layer of the peripheral nerve is the inflammatory infiltrate in?
Endoneurium
What layer of the nerve must be jointed in microsurgery for limb attachment?
Perineurium
Pt w/ anxiety. What changes would occur in his NE and 5-HT levels?
NE increase
5-HT decrease
Pt w/ depression. What changes would occur in his NE and 5-HT levels?
NE decrease
5-HT decrease
NE changes in

a) anxiety
b) depression
anxiety - NE increase
depression - NE decrease
Pt w/ schizophrenia. What neurotransmitter is elevated?
dopamine
Pt w/ parkinson's. What neurotransmitter is reduced?
dopamine
changes in dopamine in

1) schizophrenia
2) parkinsons
schizophrenia - elevated
parkinsons - reduced
2 situations in which ACh is reduced?

1 in which it is increased
Alzheimers
Huntingtons


REM
What is neurotransmitter is reduced in Alzheimers?
ACh
Huntington's patient. What 2 neurotransmitter defiencies are responsible for his symptoms?
GABA and ACh
What are 2 conditions in which GABA is reduced?
anxiety
Huntington's
Pt lacks NE. Where is the lesion?
locus ceruleus
Pt lacks Dopamine. Where is the lesion?
Ventral tegmentum and SNc
Pt lacks 5-HT. Where is the lesion?
Raphe nucleus
Pt lacks Ach. Where is the lesion?
Basal nucleus of Meynert
Pt lacks GABA. Where is the lesion?
Nucleus accumbens
Small part of brain responsible for stress and panic
Locus ceruleus
Part of brain responsible for reward, pleasure, addiction, fear (2)
Nucleus accumbens and septal nucleus
What 3 structures form the blood-brain barrier?
1) Tight junctions
2) Basement membrane
3) Astrocyte processes
defective carrier-mediated transport in blood-brain barrier. What 2 substances cannot cross?
glucose
amino acids
What are 2 specialized brain regions that allow molecules in the blood to affect brain function?
area postrema - vomitting after chemo
OVLT - osmotic sensing
Pt has vasogenic edema. What vasculature structure was destroyed?
infarct destroyed endothelial tight junctions
What are the functions of the Hypothalamus?
TAN HATS

Thirst
Adenohypophysis control
Neurohypophysis control

Hunger
Autonomic regulation
Temperature regulation
Sexual urges
Inputs to the hypothalamus
Area postrema - vomiting signals from emetics

OVLT - senses osmolarity
Pt peeing out a lot. What brain structure is damaged?
Supraoptic nucleus - makes ADH
Mother is pregnant but has trouble inducing contractions when she goes into labor. What brain structure is defective?
Paraventricular nucleus - makes oxytocin
Pt has no appetite. What brain area is damaged?
Lateral nucleus of hypothalamus
Pt has craniopharyngioma and can't stop eating. What's wrong?
damaged Ventromedial nucleus of hypothalamus - normally elicits satiety
What brain area is responsible for cooling and parasympathetic tone?
anterior hypothalamus

A/C = anterior cooling
What brain area is responsible for heating and sympathetic tone?
posterior hypothalamus
Pt has irregular sleep cycles. What area of brain is damaged?
Suprachiasmatic nucleus - regulates circadian rhythm

"You need to sleep to be charismatic!"
What 2 hypothalamic nuclei project to the posterior pituitary and what do they release there?
Supraoptic - ADH

PVN - oxytocin
This part of the brain is responsible for the major relay of ascending sensory information
Thalamus
Pt can't sense pain, temperature, proprioception, or position. What part of thalamus is damaged?
VPL
pain, temperature, proprioception, or position info in thalamus

input/output
input: spinothalamic and dorsal columns, medial lemniscus

output: primary somatosensory cortex
Pt can't sense facial sensation or taste. What part of thalamus is damaged?
VPM
facial sensation and taste in thalamus

input/output?
input: trigeminal and gustatory pathway

output: Primary somatosensory cortex
Pt can't see. What part of thalamus is damaged?
LGN
Vision info in thalamus

input/output
input: CN II

output: Calcarine sulcus
Pt can't hear. What part of thalamus is damaged?
MGN
Auditory info in thalamus

input/output
input: superior olive and inferior colliculus of pons

output: Auditory cortex of temporal lobe
Thalamus pneumonics
Makeup goes on the face (VP-M)

Lateral = light

Medial = music
Pt has problems feeding, fleeing, fighting, feeling, and sex.

where is the lesion?
limbic system

famous 5 F's
structures in the limbic system (5)
cingulate gyrus
hippocampus
fornix
mammilary bodies
septal nucleus
receives contralateral cortical input via middle cerebrellar peduncle and ipsilateral proprioceptive information via inferior cerebellar peduncle
cerebellum
input nerves to cerebellum
climbing and mossy fibers
output nerves from cerebellum
Purkinje fibers to deep nuclei of cerebellum -> cortex via superior cerebellar peduncle
What are the deep nuclei of the cerebellum?
Dentate, Emboliform, Globose, Fastigial

"Don't Eat Greasy Food"
Pt has trouble w/ voluntary movements of extremities.

Where in the cerebellum is the lesion?
Lateral cerebellum
Pt has trouble w/ balance, truncal coordination, ataxia, tends to fall toward injured side
Medial cerebellum
which side of cortex is stimulated by cerebellar outputs?
contralateral
which part of brain is important in volutnary movements and postural adjustments?
basal ganglia
basal ganglia

input?
output?
input: cortex

output: negative feedback to cortex to modulate movement
what 2 structures compose the striatum?
putamen (motor) + caudate (cognitive)
what 2 structures compose the lentiform?
putamen + globus pallidus
describe the excitatory pathway in the basal ganglia
1. SNc's dopamine binds to D1 receptors in the excitatory pathway to stimulate it
- ^ motion
describe the inhibitory/indirect pathway in the basal ganglia
1. SNc's dopamine binds to D2 receptors

2. inhibit the inhibitory pathway
- ^ motion
*loss of dopamine in Parkinson's "disinibits" the inhibitor, preventing movement
A-synuclein-intracellular inclusion

pathology?
lewy bodies in parkinsons
depigmentation of substantia nigra pars compacta

disease?
parkinsons
Tremor
Cog-wheel rigidity
Akinesia
Postural instability
parkinsons

"TRAP"
sudden wild flailing of 1 arm +/- leg
helmiballismus
hemiballismus

what area of the brain is the lesion? side? likely cause?
contralateral
subthalamic nucleus
lacunar stroke from HTN (hypertension)
hemiballismus

what is not longer inhibited?
loss of inhibition of thalamus through globus pallidus
autosomal-dominant (CAG)
trinucleotide repeat disorder
neuronal death via NMDA-R binding and glutamate toxicity
Huntington's disease
chorea
aggression
depression
dementia

what part of brain is atrophied?
strial nuclei (main inhibitors of movement)
huntington's

what substances are low and where in the brain?
ACh and GABA are low in the caudate
sudden jerky purposeless movements

where is the lesion?

what is this called?
basal ganglia

(chorea) i.e. Huntington's
slow writhing movements of fingers (snakelike)

where is the lesion?

what is this called?
basal ganglia

athetosis
pt has jerks, hiccups

condition?
myoclonus

sudden, brief muscle contractions
pt has writers cramp

condition?
dystonia

sustained, involuntary muscle contractions
tremor worsens when holding posture
self-medicates w/ alcohol
AD inheritance

tx?
essential/postural tremor

beta-blockers
tremor most noticed distally

condition? seen commonly in what disease?
resting tremor

pin-rolling tremor in parkinsons
slow zigzag motion when pointing toward a target

conditon? associated with dysfunction in what part of brain?
intention tremor

cerebellum
defective speech

what area of brain?
broca's area
defective comprehension

what area of brain?
associated auditory cortex (Wernicke's area)
Near what part of the brain is Hescl's gyrus located?
primary auditory cortex
lower extremity defecit in sensation and movement

what brain vessel is involved? (what is the name of the tool used to answer this)
anterior cerebral artery

(based on a homonculus)
hyperorality
hypersexuality
disinhibited behavior

where in the brain is the lesion?
Amygdala (bilateral)

Kluver-Bucy syndrome
Disinhibition
deficits in concentration, orientation, and judgement
reemergence of primitive reflexes

where in the brain is the lesion?
Frontal lobe
agnosia of the contralateral side of the world

where in the brain is the lesion?
right parietal lobe

spatial neglect syndrome
reduced leved of arousal and wakefullness (i.e. coma)
reticular activating system (midbrain)
confusion, opthalmoplegia, ataxia

memory loss, confabulation, personality changes

where in the brain is the lesion?
Mammillary bodies (bilateral)

Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome
tremor at rest, chorea, athetosis

where in the brain is the lesion?
Basal ganglia
intention tremor
limb ataxia

where in the brain is the lesion?
what side?
cerebellum

ipsilateral defects (cerebellum -> SCP -> contralateral cortex -> corticospinal decussation -> ipsilateral)
truncal ataxia
dysarthria (poor articulation)

where in the brain is the lesion?
cerebellar vermis
contralateral hemiballismus

where in the brain is the lesion?
subthalamic nucleus
can't make new memories

where in the brain is the lesion?
hippocampus

anterograde amnesia
eyes look away from side of lesion

where in the brain is the lesion?
Paramedian Pontine Reticular Formation (PPRF)
eyes look toward lesion

where in the brain is the lesion?
frontal eye fields
acute paralysis
dysarthria
dysphagia
diplopia
loss of consciousness

cause?
rapid correction of hyponatremia

Central pontine myelinolysis
axial T1-weighted MRI

abnormally increased signal in the pons

condition?
central pontine myelinolysis
hoarseness
loss of all laryngeal muscles

what structure is injured?

what muscle is excluded?
recurrent laryngeal nerve

cricothyroid
higher-order inability to speak vs. motor inability to speak

name of conditions?
Aphasia vs. Dysarthria
Nonfluent aphasia with intact comprehension

where in the brain is the lesion?
inferior frontal gyrus (Broca's area)

(Broca's aphasia)
fluent aphasia with impaired comprehension

where in the brain is the lesion?
superior temporal gyrus

Wernicke's aphasia
nonfluent asphasia with impaired comprehension

where in the brain is the lesion?
Both Broca's and Wernickes area

Global aphasia
Poor repetition but fluent speech, intact comprehension

where in the brain is the lesion?
arcuate fasciculus - connects Brocas and Wernicke's area

Conduction aphasia
can't repeat phrases such as "No ifs, ands, or buts"
conduction aphasia
What vessel supplies each area?
black - anterior cerebral artery (anteromedial surface)
middle - middle cerebral artery (lateral surface)
grey - posterior cerebral artery (posterior and inferior)
What vessel supplies each region?
black - anterior cerebral
white - middle cerebreal
gray - posterior cerebral
what vessel supplies each region?
black - anterior cerebral
white - middle cerebreal
gray - posterior cerebral
contralateral hemiparesis of lower extremities
decreased contralateral proprioception
ipsilateral paralysis of hypoglossal nerve

what vessel is compromised?
anterior spinal artery

(medial medullary syndrome)
contralateral loss of pain and temp
ipsilateral dysphagia, hoarseness
decreased gag reflex
vertigo, diplopia, nystagmus, vomitting
ipsilateral horner's, facial pain and temp, ataxia

what vessel is compromised?
PICA

(lateral medullary syndrome aka Wallenbergs)
ipsilateral facial paralysis, cochlear nucleus, nystagmus, facial pain and temp, dystaxia (MCP, ICP)

what vessel is compromised?
AICA

(lateral inferior pontine syndrome)
contralateral hemaniopia with macular sparing

what vessel is compromised?
posterior cerebral artery

supplies occiptal cortex
contralateral face and arm paralysis and sensory loss, aphasia (dominant sphere), left-sided neglect

what vessel is compromised?
middle cerebral artery
loss of motor and sensory in left foot

what vessel is compromised?
anterior cerebral artery
most common site of circle of Willis aneurysm
visual field defects
anterior communicating artery
common area of aneurysm, causes CN III palsy
posterior communicating artery
supply internal capsule, caudate, putamen, globus pallidus
"arteries of stroke"

what region is defective?
lateral striate
pure motor hemiparesis

what brain region is infarcted?
posterior limb of the internal capsule
upper leg/arm weakness
defect in higher-order visual processing
severe hypertension

what region is damaged?
watershed zones
"locked-in syndrome"
CN III still intact

what vessel is infarcted?
basilar artery
general sensory and motor dysfunction, aphasia

what vessel region is defective?
stroke of anterior circle
cranial nerve defecits (vertigo, visual defects)
coma
cerebellar deficits (ataxia in dominant hemisphere), neglect in nondominant

what vessel area is defective?
stroke of posterior circles
where do berry aneurysms occur?

what happens?
bifurcations in the circle of Willis, most common the anterior communicating artery

hemorrhagic stroke/subarachnoid hemorrhage
Adult polycystic kidney disease
Ehler-Danos syndrome
Marfans syndrome

associated with what?
Berry aneurysms
What complication is HTN associated with in the brain?

what regions?
Charcot-Bouchard microaneurysms (small vessels)

basal ganglia, thalamus
lucid interval, rapid expansion under systemic arterial pressure

what bone is fractured?
what vessel is ruptured?
what type of herniation?
what nerve palsy?
- temporal bone
- middle meningial artery (branch of maxillary)
- transtentorial herniation, CN III palsy

epidural hematoma
CT shows biconvex disk
doesn't cross suture lines
can cross falx, tentorium

condition?
epidural hematoma
delayed onset of symptoms
elderly, alcoholics, blunt trauma, shaken babies

predisposing factors?
what structures are damaged?
brain atrophy, shaking

bridging veins -> slow venous bleeding
less pressure = gradual hematoma

subdural hematoma
"worst headache of my life"
bloody or yellow spinal tap

cause?
risk of what 2-3 days later?
treat with what?
- rupture of an aneurysm (often Berry) or an AVM

- risk of vasospasm due to blood breakdown products 2-3 days later

- treat with Calcium Channel Blockers

(Subarachnoid hemorrhage)
hypertension
amyloid angiopathy
lobar strokes all over brain
diabetes mellitus

condition?
where in brina?
parenchymal hematoma

basal ganglia and internal capsule
how long does it take for ischemic brain disease to cause irreversible damage?
5 minutes
what regions of the brain are most vulnerable to ischemic brain injury?
hippocampus
neocortex
cerebellum
watershed areas
its 12-48 hrs after ischemic brain injury

what do you see histologically?
red neurons
its 24-72 hrs after ischemic brain injury

what do you see histologically?
necrosis + neutrophils
its 3-5 days after ischemic brain injury

what do you see histologically?
macrophages
its 1-2 weeks after ischemic brain injury

what do you see histologically?
reactive gliosis + vascular proliferation
its >2 weeks after ischemic brain injury

what do you see histologically?
glial scar
thrombi led to ischemic stroke with subsequent necrosis

formed cystic cavity with reactive gliosis

cause?
atherosclerosis
intracerebral bleeding, due to aneurysm rupture

secondary to ischemic stroke followed by reperfusion (^ vessel fragility)

name of event?
hemorrhage
cause of ischemic stroke for 1) large vessels 2) small vessles

treatment?
Large vessels (emboli)
- atrial fib
- carotid dissection
- patent foramen ovale
- endocarditis

small vessels
- lacunar strokes secondary to HTN

tx: tPA w/in 3 hrs
brief reversible episode of neurologic dysfunction due to focal ischemia

symptoms last for under 24 hrs
TIA (Transient Ischemic Attack)
bright on diffusion weighted-MRI in 3-30 min and remains bright for 10 days
dark on non-contrast CT in 24 hrs

condition?
stroke
bright areas on noncontrast CT

tx?
hemorrhage

tx: tPA
where do the venous sinuses run?

what is there order?
in the dura mater (where its meningeal and periosteal layers separate)

cerebral veins -> venous sinuses -> internal jugular vein
what are the branches eminating from the confluence of sinuses? what other branches do they form?
superior saggital sinus

straight sinus (becomes inferior saggital sinus and great cerebral vein of Galen)

transverse sinus -> sigmoid sinus -> internal jugular vein
what structure makes CSF?

what reabsorbs it?
choroid plexus

venous sinus arachnoid granulations
where does the lateral ventricle empty into? via what opening?

3rd ventricle " " "

4th ventricle
3rd ventricle via foramen of Monro

4th ventricle via cerebral aqueduct

subarachnoid space via:
1) Foramina of Luschka (Lateral)
2) Foramen of Magendie (Medial)
wet, wobbly and wacky
normal pressure hydrocephalus
does not result in increase in subarachnoid space volume

clinical triad of dementia, ataxia, and urinary incontinence (reversible cause of dementia in the elderly)

condition?
normal pressure hydrocephalus

expansion of ventricle distorts the fibers of the corona radiata
what causes the ^ intracranial pressure, papilledema, and hernitation (arachnoid scarring post-meningitis) in communicating hydrocephalus?
decreased CSF absorption by arachnoid villi
what is the problem in Obstructive (noncommunicating) hydrocephalus?
structural blockage of CSF circulation within the ventricular system (stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius)
^ CSF in atrophy of brain, normal intracranial pressure

what diseases have this?
hydrocephalus ex vacuo

AIDS
Pick's disease
how many spinal nerves are there?
cervical nerves?
thoracic?
lumbar?
sacral?
coccygeal?
31 spinal total

8 cervical
12 thoracic
5 lumbar
5 sacral
1 coccygeal
which groups of nerves exits via intervertebral foramina ABOVE the corresponding vertebrate while others exit below?
nerves C1-C7
patient has a herniated vertebral disk

mechanism?
where most common?
nucleus pulposus herniates through annulus fibrosus (b/w L5 and S1)
what vertebrate marks the end of the spinal cord?
subarachnoid space?

where is lumbar puncture performed?
spinal cord: L1-2
subarachnoid space: S2

lumbar puncture: L3--5 interspaces at the level of the cauda equina
patient can't sense pressure, vibration, touch, prioprioception

whats spinal cord tracts are compressed
dorsal columns
pt lost voluntary motor control

whats spinal cord tracts are compressed
lateral corticospinal tract
pt can't feel temperature or pain
spinothalamic tract
where is control of the legs in the spinal cord?
Legs are Lateral in Lateral corticospinal, spinothalamic tracts
Dorsal column - medial lemniscal pathway

senses?

1st order neuron?
synapse 1?
second order neuron?
synapse 2?
3rd order neuron?
pressure, vibration, touch, proprioception

1st order - sensory nerve ending -> cell body in dorsal root ganglion -> spinal cord

Synpase 1 - ipsilateral nucleus cuneatus or gracilis (medulla)

2nd order - decussates in medulla -> contralateral in medial lemniscus

Synapse 3 - VPL of thalamus

3rd order - sensory cortex
Spinothalamic tract

senses?

1st order neuron?
synapse 1?
second order neuron?
synapse 2?
3rd order neuron?
pain and temperature

1st order - sensory nerve endings (A-d, C fibers) -> cell body in dorsal root ganglion -> spinal cord

Synapse 1 - ipsilateral gray matter

2nd order neuron - decussates at anterior white commissure -> ascends contralaterally

Synapse 2 - VPL of thalamus

3rd order neuron - sensory cortex
Lateral corticospinal tract

senses?

1st order neuron?
synapse 1?
second order neuron?
synapse 2?
3rd order neuron?
descending voluntary movements of contralateral limbs

1st order - upper motor neuron in cortex -> descends ipsilateral (through internal capsule) -> decussates at caudal medulla (pyramidal decussation) -> descends contralateral

Synapse 1 - cell body of anterior horn

2nd order - lower motor neuron -> leaves spinal cord

Synapse 2 - neuromuscular junction
Motor neuron signs

weakness
UMN
LMN
Motor neuron signs

Atrophy
LMN
Motor neuron signs

Fasciculation
LMN
Motor neuron signs

Reflexes
^ in UMN
reduced in LMN
Motor neuron signs

Tone
^ in UMN
reduced in LMN
Motor neuron signs

Babinski sign

UMN or LMN?
UMN
Spastic paralysis
UMN
Clasp knife spasticity

UMN or LMN?
UMN
Motor neuron signs

everything lowered (less muscle mass, tone, reflexes, downgoing toes)
LMN
Motor neuron signs

everything up (tone, DTR, toes)
UMN
poliomyelitis and Werdnig-Hoffman disease

where is the lesion?
LMN
scanning speech, intention, tremor, nystagmus
where is the lesion?
white matter of cervical region from demyelination
ALS
combined UMN and LMN deficits

NO SENSORY DEFICIT (pure motor disease)
anterior spinal artery is occluded

what parts of spina cord are spared
dorsal columns
tract of Lissauer
what part of spinal cord is degenerated in tertiary syphillis

effects?
dorsal roots and columns
- impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia

tabes dorsalis
bilateral loss of pain and temperature sensation

seen in what diseases?
damage of white commissure of spinothalamic tract (2nd order neuron)
(C8-T1)

chiari type 1 and 2

(Syringomyelia)
ataxic gait
hyperreflexia
impaired position and vibration sense
Vitamine B12 neuropathy
Vitamine E deficiency
Friedreich's ataxia
polio virus

life cycle
fecal-oral

replicates in oropharynx and small intestine -> bloodstream -> CNS (spinal cord) -> destruction of anterior horn -> LMN destruction
malaise
headache
fever
nausea
abdominal pain
sore throat
+ LMN signs

what would you see in CSF?
where is virus recovered from?
lymphocytic pleocytosis
elevated protein
normal glucose

virus recovered from stool or throat

poliomyelitis
floppy baby
tongue fasciculations
median age of death 7 months

associated with what?
associated with degeneration of anterior horns (LMN involvement only)

Werdnig-Hoffman disease
(aka infantile spinal muscular atrophy)
Associated with BOTH UMN and LMN signs

no sensory, cognitive, or oculomotor deficits
AML
can be caused by a defect in superoxide dismutase 1 (SOD1)

fasciculations and eventual atrophy
progressive and fatal

tx and mechanisms?
Riluzole lengths survival by decreasing presynaptic glutamate release

AML
impaired proprioception and locomotor ataxia
Charcot's joints
shooting (lightening) pain

dx/mechanism?
Tabes dorsalis

degeneration of dorsal columns and dorsal roots due to teritary syphillis
pupils reactive to accomodation but not to light
absence of DTRs
positive Romberg
sensory ataxia at night
Tabes dorsalis

"Argyll Robertson pupils"
child with kyphoscoliosis and:

staggering gait
frequent falling
nystagmus
dysarthria
pes cavus
hammer toes
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

dx/mechanism?
Freidreich's ataxia

AR trinucleotide repeat disorder (GAA) in the frataxin gene --> impaired mitochondrial functioning

"Freidreich is your favorte FRAT brother, always staggering and falling"
1. ipsilateral UMN signs below lesion
2. ipsilateral loss of tactile, vibration, proprioception below lesion
3. contralateral pain and temp loss below lesion
4. ipsilateral loss of all sensation at level of lesion
5. LMN signs (flaccid paralysis) at level of lesion
Brown-Sequard syndrome
presents with Horner's syndrome if lesion occurs above T1
Brown-Sequard syndrome
Ptosis
Anhidrosis
Miosis

dx/mech?
Horner's syndrome

lesion of spinal cord above T1 (i.e. Pancoast, Brown-Sequard, late stage syringomyelia)

PAM is HORNY
describe the path of the 3-neuron oculosympathetic pathway
hypothalamus --> interomedial column of spinal cord --> superior cervical (sympathetic ganglion) --> pupil --> smooth muscle of eyelids --> sweat glands of forehead and face
landmark dermatomes

posterior half of a skull "cap"
C2
landmark dermatomes

high turtleneck shirt
C3
landmark dermatomes

low-collar shirt
C4
landmark dermatomes

at the nipple
T4
landmark dermatomes

at the xiphoid process
T7
landmark dermatomes

at the umbilicus
T10
landmark dermatomes

at the inguinal ligament
L1
landmark dermatomes

includes the kneecaps
L4
landmark dermatomes

erection and sensation of penile and anal zones
S2,3,4
where is pain in the diaphragm and gallbladder referred to?
right shoulder via the phrenic nerve
clinical reflexes

biceps
C5
clinical reflexes

triceps
C7
clinical reflexes

patella
L4
clinical reflexes

achilles

mediated by which spinal nerve?
S1
Babinski in 3 yo

cause?
UMN lesion
primitive reflexes

extend limbs when startled and then draw back together
Moro reflex
primitive reflexes

movement of the head toward one side if cheek or mouth is stroked (nipple seeking)
Rooting reflex
primitive reflexes

sucking response when roof of mouth is touched
Sucking reflex
primitive reflexes

curling of fingers/toes if palms of hands/feet are stroked
Palmar and plantar reflexes
primitive reflexes

dorsiflexion of large toe and fanning of other toes with plantar stimulation
Babinski reflex
reduced melatonin secretion and circadian rhythm

what structure is defective?
pineal gland
where is the vertical gaze center?

what is the name of the condition where you have a lesion here?
superior colliculi

Parinaud syndrome (i.e. from pinealoma)
where is the auditory center in the brain
inferior colliculi

eyes are above ears, superior is above inferior colliculus
pnemumonic for cranial nerves
Some Say Marry Money But My Brother Says Big Brains Matter Most

(CN I-XII)

S= sensory
M = motor
B = both
pt can't move SR, IR, MR, IO
can't constrict pupil
can't accomodate
can't open eyelid

what CN is defective?
CN III
pt can't move SO eye muscle

what CN is defective?
CN IV (trochlear)
- motor
pt can't chew
can't feel face

what CN is defective?
CN V (trigeminal)
- both
pt can't move LR

what CN is defective?
CN VI (abducens)
- motor
pt can't move face
can't taste from anterior 2/3 of tongue
can't lacrimate or salivate
can't close eyelids
trouble hearing

what CN is defective?
CN VIII (facial)
- both
pt has trouble hearing and maintaining balance

what CN is defective?
CN VIII (vestibulocochlear)
- sensory
pt has no taste from posterior 1/3 of tongue
can't swallow or salivate
defective carotid and baroreceptors and chemoreceptors
can't elevate pharynx and larynx

what CN is defective?
CN IX (glossopharyngeal)
- both
can't taste from epiglottic region
can't swallow or elevate palate
uvula deviated from midline
can't talk or cough
innervates thoracoabdominal viscera
monitors aortic arch chemo- and baroreceptors

what CN is defective?
CN X (vagus)
- both
pt can't turn head or shrug shoulders

what CN is defective?
CN XI (accessory)
- motor
pt can't move tongue

what CN is defective?
CN XII (hypoglossal)
- motor
midbrain is wiped out

which CN nuclei are affected?
CN III, IV
pons is wiped out

which CN nuclei are affected?
CN V, VI, VII, VIII
medulla is wiped out

which CN nuclei are affected?
CN IX, X, XI, XII
function different b/w lateral vs. medial nuclei in tegmentum
lateral = sensory (alar plate)

medial = motor (basal plate)
what CN control the afferent/efferent paths of the following reflex:

corneal
Afferent - V1(opthalmic - nasociliary branch controls levator palpebrae)

Efferent - VII (temporal branch controls orbicularis oculi)
what CN control the afferent/efferent paths of the following reflex:

lacrimation
Afferent - V1 (loss of reflex does not preclude emotional tears)

Efferent - VII
what CN control the afferent/efferent paths of the following reflex:

jaw jerk
Afferent - V3 (sensory - muscle spindle from masseter)

Efferent - V3 (motor - masseter)
what CN control the afferent/efferent paths of the following reflex:

pupillary
Afferent - II

Efferent - III
what CN control the afferent/efferent paths of the following reflex:

gag
Afferent - IX

Efferent - IX, X
defect in taste, baroreceotors, gut distension info (visceral sensory info)

which vagal nuclei is affected?
nucleus solitarius
defect in motor innervation of pharynx, larynx, and upper esophagus (swallowing, palate elevation)

which vagal nuclei is affected?
nucleus ambiguus
defect in sending autonomic (parasynpathetic) fibers to hear, lungs, and upper GI

which vagal nuclei is affected?
Dorsal motor nucleus
what CN's passes through the middle cranial fossa?
CN II-IV
what CN passes through the optic channel?
CN II
what CN's and vessels pass through the superior orbital fissure?
CN III, IV, V1, opthalmic vein, sympathetic fibers
what CN's passes through the foramen rotundum?
CN V2
what CN's passes through the foramen ovale?
CN V3
what vessel passes through the foramen spinosum?
middle meningeal artery
what CN's passes through the posterior cranial fossa (temporal or occipital bone)?
CN VII-XII
what CN's passes through the internal auditory meatus?
CN VII, VIII
what CN's and vessels pass through the jugular foramen?
CN IX, X, XI, jugular vein
what CN's passes through the hypoglossal canal?
CN XII
what CN's and vessels pass through the foramen magnum?
spinal roots of CN XI, brain stem, vertebral arteries
a collection of venous sinuses on either side of the pituitary

input/output for blood through this structure?
cavernous sinus

blood from eye and sueprficial cortex --> cavernous sinus --> internal jugular vein
what vessels pass through the cavernous sinus?
The nerves that control extraocular muscles (+V1,2)

CN III, IV, V1, V2m and VI
postganglionic sympathetic fibers
internal carotid

all en route to the orbit
opthalmoplegia
opthalmic and maxillary sensory loss

mechanism?
cavernous sinus syndrome from mass effect
tongue deviates TOWARD side of lesion (lick your wounds)

cause?
CN XII lesion (LMN)
- decussates before medulla and synapse on contralateral hypoglossal nucleus
jaw deviates TOWARD side of lesion,
CN V lesion

bilateral cortical input to lateral pterygoid muscle
uvula deviates AWAY from side of lesion, weak side collapses and uvula points away

cause?
CN X lesion
weakness turning head to contralateral side of lesion (SCM)
shoulder droop on same side as lesion (trapezius)

cause?
CN XI lesion
Contralateral paralysis of lower face only

type of lesion?
UMN

lesion of motor cortex or connection b/w cortex and facial muscles
- upper face receives bilateral UMN innervation
ipsilateral paralysis of upper and lower face

type of lesion?
LMN
Peripheral ipsilateral facial paralysis with inability to close eye on involved side

type of lesion?
prognosis?
complication of which diseases?
Bell's palsy

complete destruction of the facial nucleus itself or its branchial efferent fibers

- gradual recovery in most cases
- AIDS, Lyme disease, Herpes simplex, Sarcoidosis, Tumors, Diabetes (ALexander graHam Bell with STD)
can't say kuh-kuh-kuh

defect in which CN?
CN X (vagus)
- elevates palate
can't say la-la-la

defect in which CN?
CN XII - hypoglossal
can't say mi-mi-mi

defect in which CN?
CN VII - facial
pt can't close jaw

defect in which 3 muscles?
Masseter
teMporalis
Medial pterygoid

"M's Munch"
pt can't open jaw

defect in which muscle?
lateral pterygoid

"Lateral Lowers"
pt can't open OR close jaw

which NERVE is damaged?
V3 (trigeminal nerve)
retinal necrosis + edema --> atrophic scar

condition?
retinitis
systemic inflammation (i.e. Reiters)

condition?
Iritis
ciliary muscle contracts (zonular fibers relax --> lens relaxes --> more convex)

condition?
near vision
ciliary muscle relaxes (lens flattens)

condition?
distant vision
sclerosis and decrease in elasticity cause lens shape to change

condition?
aging
acute, painless monocular loss of vision; pale retina and cherry-red macula (has its own blood supply - choroid artery)
retinal artery occlusion
what structure absorbs aqueous humor?
trabecular meshwork
what structure collects aqueous humor from the trabecular network?
Canal of Schlemm
what structure produces aqueous humor?

what receptors are on it?
Ciliary process

B-adrenergic
what structure is responsible for accomodation?

what receptors are on it?
Ciliary muscle

M3
what structure is responsible for mydriasis?

what receptor is on it?
radial/dilator muscle

a1
what structure is responsible for miosis?

what receptor is on it?
Sphincter/circular/constrictor muscle

M3
where are the muscles responsible for mydriasis and miosis located?
iris
mechanism of glaucoma?

what would you see?
impaired flow of aqueous humor --> ^ intraocular pressure --> ocular disk atrophy with cupping
difference b/w open(wide angle) and closed (narrow angle) glaucoma?

How does each manifest clinically?

what conditions are each associated with?
open(wide angle) - obstructed outflow (e.g. canal of Schlemm)
- associated with myopia, old age, African-American
- silent, painless (more common)

closed(narrow angle) - obstruction of flow between iris and lens --> pressure buildup behind iris
- very painful, decrease in vision, rock-hard eye, frontal headache (opthalmologic emergency!)
what should you NOT give to treat someone with closed/narrow angle glaucoma?
epinephrine
painless, bilateral opacification of lens --> decrease in vision

what are some risk factors for this condition?
cataract

age, smoking, EtOH, diabetes (sorbitol), trauma, infection

random causes: sunlight, classic galactosemia, galactokinase deficiency,
^ in intracranial pressure --> elevated optic disk with blurred margins, bigger blind spot (can be seen in hydrocephalus)

dx?
papilledema
eye looks down and out
ptosis
pupillary dilation
loss of acommodation

where is the damage?
CN III
- problems reading newspaper or going down stairs
- eye drifts upward causing vertical diplopia

where is the damage?
CN IV
medially directed eye all the time

where is the damage?
CN VI
what are the mechanical functions of the superior oblique muscle in the eye?
abduct
intort
depress while adducted
which direction should you have the patient look if you want to test their inferior oblique?
Up
patient cannot constrict their pupil (miosis)

from what nucleus did the defective nerve originate?
Edinger-Westphal nucleus --> CN III --> ciliary ganglion
patient cannot dilate their pupil (mydriasis)

from what nucleus did the defective nerve originate?
T1 preganglionic sympathetic --> superior cervical ganglion --> postganglion sympathetic --> long ciliary nerve
which brain structures are involved in the pupillary light reflex?
CN II --> pretectal nucleus (midbrain) --> activate bilateral Edinger-Westphal nucleus --> pupils contract bilaterally (consensual reflex)

*normal: illumination of 1 eye results in bilateral pupillary constriction
decreased in bilateral pupillary constrictions when light is shone in affected eye

condition?
mechanism?
Marcus Gunn pupil

afferent pupillary defect (i.e. due to optical nerve damage or retinal detachment)
ocular muscles are not working

which part of CN III is affected?
possible causes?
central

vascular disease (diabetes: glucose --> sorbitol) due to increase in diffusion to interior
blown pupil

which part of CN III is affected?
possible causes?
peripheral - is responsible for parasympathetic output
- 1st to be affected by compression (i.e. PCA berry aneurysm, uncal herniation)

* check with pupillary light reflex
separation of neurosensory later of retina from pigment epithelium --> degeneration of photoreceptors --> vision loss. May be secondary to trauma, diabetes

condition?
retinal detachment
degeneration of macula (central area of retina)
loss of central vision (scotomas)

condition?
difference b/w 2 types?
Age-related macular degeneration (ARMD)

Dry/atrophic ARMD - slow, due to fat deposites --> causes gradual decrease in vision

Wet - rapid, due to neovascularization
pt can't see out of right eye

condition?
right anopia
patient can't see on lateral half of each eye

condition?
bitemporal hemianopia
patient can't see on left side of each eye

condition?
left homonymous hemianopia
pt can't see on upper left corner of each eye

condition and cause?
left upper quadrantic anopia

right temporal lobe lesion, MCA
pt can't see on lower left corner of each eye

condition and cause?
left lower quadrantic anopia

right parietall lobe lesion, MCA
pt can't see on left side or center in both eyes

condition and cause?
left hemianopia with macular sparing (PCA) --> macula --> bilateral projection to occiput
pt can't see out of left eye at all

condition?
central scotoma (macular degeneration)
what happens to an image when it hits the primary visual cortex?
becomes upside down and left-right reversed
What is Meyer's loop?
inferior retina, loops around inferior horn of lateral ventricle
What is the Dorsal optic radiation?
superior retina, takes shortest path via internal capsule
nystagmus in abducting eye
convergence is normal
pt has multiple sclerosis

condition?
mechanism?
internuclear opthalmoplegia (MLF syndrome)

lesion in the MLF --> medial rectus palsy on attempted lateral gaze
(aka patient's eye can't look to the other side)
decrease in cognitive ability, memory, or function with intact consciousness

condition?
dementia
most common cause of dementia in elderly

what type of pts have a higher risk of developing this condition?
Alzheimer's disease

Down syndrome patients
What are the familial forms of Alzheimers?

what genes are they associated with?
Early onset: APP (21), presenilin-1 (14), presenilin-2(1)

Late onset: ApoE4 (19)
- ApoE4 is protective
widespread cortical atrophy
decrease in Ach
Senile plaques

condition?
Alzheimer's disease
complication of senile plaques?
(extracellular B-amyloid core): may cause amyloid angiopathy --> intracranial hemorrhage
intracellular, abnormally phosphorylated tau protein

what are they and what do they correlate with?
neurofibrillary tangles (insoluble cytoskeletal elements)

correlate with degree of dementia
dementia
aphasia
parkinsonian aspects
change in personality

condition?
what parts of brain are spared?
Pick's disease

spares parietal lobe and posterior 2/3 of superior temporal gyrus
you see intracellular, aggregated tau protein and frontotemporal atrophy

condition?
Pick's disease (Pick bodies)
Parkinsonism with dementia and hallucinations

what is the defect in microscopically?
a-synuclein

Lewy body dementia
rapidly progressive (weeks to months) dementia with myoclonus

what would you see histologically?
what is the pathogen?
name of condition?
histo: spongiform cortex

pathogen: prions (a-helix --> B sheet[resistant to proteases])

Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
what is the second most common cause of demential in elderly?
multi-infarct
syphilis
HIV
vitamin B12 deficiency
Wilson disease

can all cause what?
dementia
optic neuritis (sudden loss of vision)
MLF syndrome (intranuclear opthalmoplegia)
hemiparesis
hemisensory symptoms
bladder/bowel incontinence

condition?
gold standard for diagnosis?
multiple sclerosis

MRI
- oligoclonal bands are also diagnostic
30 yo female
periventricular plaques (areas of oligodendrocyte loss and reactive gliosis) w/ preservation of axons
sudden loss of vision

tx?
B-interferon
or immunosuppressant therapy
+ symptomatic treatment for neurogenic bladder, spasticity, pain

multiple sclerosis
symmetric ascending muscle weakness beginning in distal lower extremities
facial paralysis

condition?
affects which part of spinal cord?
mechanism?
Guillain-Barre syndrome

inflammation and demyelination of peripheral nerves and motor fibers of ventral roots (sensory effect less severe than motor)
cardiac irregularities
HTN or hyPOtension

complications of what neurological disease that also has symmetric ascending muscle weakness beginning distally?
autonomic complications of Guillain-Barre syndrome
^ CSF protein w/ normal cell count
papilledema

symmetric ascending muscle weakness starting distally

condition?
Guillain-Barre syndrome
what external pathogens can prompt Guillain-Barre syndrome?

tx? (3)
inoculations, stress, infections like Campylobacter jejuni or herpesvirus --> molecular mimicry --> autoimmune attack on peripheral myelin

1. respiratory support is critical until recovery (weak diaphragm)
2. plasmapheresis
3. IV immune globulins
demyelinating diseases (4)
1. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
2. Acute disseminated (postinfectious) encephalomyelitis
3. Metachromatic leukodystrophy
4. Charcot-Marie-Tooth disease
- demyelination of CNS due to destruction of oligodendrocytes
- rapidly progressive, usually fatal

associated with what pathogen?
mechanism?
JC virus
- reactivation of latent viral infection in AIDS patients

Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)
multifocal perivenular inflammmation and demyelination after infection (i.e. chickenpox, measles) or certain vaccinations (rabies, smallpox)

condition?
Acute disseminated (postinfectious) encephalomyelitis
AR lysosomal storage disease due to arylsulfatase A deficiency. Buildup of sulfatides leads to impaired production of myelin sheath
Metachromatic leukodystrophy
synchronized, high-frequency neuronal firing

types?
1. partial
2. generalized
3. epilepsy

seizures
synchronized, high-frequency neuronal firing
1 area of the brain
preceded by aura

where does it originate from?
mesial temporal lobe

partial seizure
seizure
motor
sensory
autonomic
psychic

type of seizure?
simple partial
impaired consciousness
seizure originating in 1 part of brain

type?
complex partial
types of generalized seizures?
1. absence
2. myoclonic
3. tonic-clonic
4. tonic
5. atonic
generalized seizure

petit mal
3 Hz
no postical confusion
blank stare

condition?
absence seizure
generalized seizure
quick, repetitive jerks

condition?
myoclonic seizure
generalized seizure
alternating stiffening and movement

condition?
tonic-clonic seizure
generalized seizure
stiffening

condition?
tonic seizure
generalized seizure
sudden drops
commonly mistaken for fainting

condition?
atonic seizure
most common causes of seizures in children (3)
genetic
infection (febrile)
trauma
most common causes of seizures in adults (4)
tumors
trauma
stroke
infection
most common causes of seizures in elderly (5)
stroke
tumor
trauma
metabolic
infection
pt has a headache

mechanism?
pain due to irritation of structure such as dura, cranial nerves, or extracranial structures...NOT brain parenchyma itself
unilateral headache
4-72 hrs of pulsating pain
nausea
photophobia
phonophobia
aura of neurologic symptoms before headache

cause?
tx?
irritation of CN V and release of substance P, CGRP, vasoactive peptides

tx: propranolol, sumatriptan (acute), NSAIDS

Migraines
bilateral headache
>30 minutes of steady pain
not aggravated by light or noise
no aura

condition?
tension headache
unilateral headache
repetitive brief headaches
periorbital pain associated with ipsilateral lacrimation
rhinorrhea
Horner's syndrome
more common in males

tx?
sumatriptan

Cluster headache
common causes of headaches
1. subarrachnoid hemorrhage (worst headache of my life)
2. meningitis
3. hydrocephalus
4. neoplasia
5. arteritis
illusion of movement
(NOT dizziness or lightheadness)

condition?
vertigo
peripheral vertigo

cause?
diagnosis method?
inner ear etiology
1. semicircular canal debris
2. vestibular nerve infection
3. Meniere's disease

dx: positional testing --> delayed horizontal nystagmus
central vertigo

cause?
diagnosis method?
brain stem or cerebellar lesion
1. vestibular nuclei
2. posterior fossa tumor

dx: positional testing --> immediate nystagmus in any direction, may change directions
congential disorder with port-wine stains (aka nevus flammeus), typicall in V1 opthalmic distribution
ipsilateral leptomeningeal angiomas
pheochromocytomas

this condition can cause what complications?
glaucoma
seizures
hemiparesis
mental retardation

Sturge-Weber syndrome
- occurs sporadically
hamartomas in CNS, skin, organs
cardiac rhabdomyoma
renal angiomyolipoma
subependymal giant cell astrocytoma
mental retardation
seizures
hypopigmented "ash leaf spots"
shagreen patch

condition?
tuberous sclerosis
cafe-au-lait spots
lisch nodules (pigmented iris hamartomas)
neurofibromas in skin
optic gliomas
pheochromocytomas

defective gene and chromosome?
NF-1 on chromosome 17

Neurofibromatosis type I (von Recklinghausen's disease)
cavernous hemangiomas in skin, mucosa, organs
bilateral renal cell carcinoma
hemanigoblastoma in retina, brain stem, cerebellum
pheochromocytomas

defective gene and chromosome?
VHL tumor suppressor gene on chromosome 13

von Hippel-Landau disease
what are the typical symptoms of mass effects in the brain? (3)
seizures
dementia
focal lesions
primary brain tumors

chance of metastases?
location in adults?
location in kids?
- rarely undergo metastases (altho most brain tumors ARE the result of metastases)
- adult = supratentorial
- child = infratentorial
adult
most common primary brain tumor

prognosis?
location?
diagnosis method?
- very bad (<1 year life expectancy)
- cerebral hemispheres
- stain astrocytes for GFAP

glioblastoma multiforme (grade IV astrocytoma)
"butterfly glioma"

what would you see histologically?
"pseudopalisading" pleomorphic tumor cells - border central areas of necrosis and hemorrhage
adult
second most common primary brain tumor

location?
origin?
- convexities of hemispheres and parasaggital region
- arises from arachnoid cells external to brain

Menigioma
seizure, dementia, focus defects
you see spindle cells concentrically arranged in a whorled pattern
- psammoma bodies (laminated calcifications)

condition?
meningioma
3rd most common primary brain tumor
localized to CN VIII --> acoustic
- found at cerebellopontine angle
- S-100 positive

what condition would you find this in bilaterally?
neurofibromatosis type 2

Schwannoma
primary adult tumor in frontal lobes
chicken-wire capillary pattern
"fried egg" cells (round nuclei with clear cytoplasm)

what condition?
Oligodendroglioma
most common prolactinoma
adult primary brain tumor
bitemporal hemianopia (pressure on optic chiasm)
Rathke's pouch

condition?
Pituitary adenoma
childhood primary brain tumor
well circumscribed
GFAP positive
benign, good prognosis

what structures would you see histologically?
eosinophilic, corkscrew fibers (rosenthal fibers)

pilocytic astrocytoma
child primary brain tumor
highly malignant cerebellar tumor
a form of primitive neuroectoderm tumor (PNET)
can compress 4th ventricles --> hydrocephalus

what would you see histologically?
rosettes or perivascular pseudorosette
solid, small blue cells

medulloblastoma
childhood primary brain tumor
bordering 4th ventricle --> hydrocephalus
poor prognosis
perivascular rosettes
rod-shaped blepharoplasts (basal ciliary bodies) found near nucleus

type of tumor?
Ependymoma
childhood primary brain tumor
cerebellar
foamy cells and high vascularity
can produce EPO --> secondary polycythemia

what condition is this tumor associated with?
von Hippel-Landau angiomas

Hemangioblastoma
childhood primary brain tumor
benign
confused with pituitary adenoma (can also cause bitemporal hemianopia)
most common childhood supratentorial tumor
calcification common

origin?
Rathke's pouch

Craniopharyngioma
cingulate (subfalcine) hernitation under falx cerebri

what vessel is compressed?
anterior cerebral artery
uncal herniation

what vessel is compressed?
posterior cerebral artery
duret hemorrhages

result of what?
cerebellar tonsillar herniation into the foramen magnum
increased ICP
ipsilateral dilated pupil/ptosis

cause?
stretching of CN III (innervates levator palpebrae)

uncal herniation
increased ICP
contralateral homonymous hemianopia

cause?
compression of ipsilateral posterior cerebral artery
increased ICP
ipsilateral paresis

cause?
compression of contralateral crus cerebri (Kernoham's notch)
brain lesion
ring-enhancing

possibilities?
metastases
abscesses
toxoplasmosis (multiple)
AIDS lymphoma (single)
brain lesion
uniformly enhancing lesion

possibilities?
lymphoma
meningioma
metastases (usually ring enhancing)
brain lesion
heterogeneously enhancing

possibilities?
glioblastoma multiforme
glaucoma drugs
a-agonist
reduces aqueous humor synthesis due to vasoconstriction

contraindication?
epinephrine

do NOT use in closed-angle glaucoma!
glaucoma drugs
a-agonist
reduces aqueous humor synthesis
no vasoconstriction
Brimonidine
glaucoma drugs
b-blockers
reduce aqueous humor secretion (3)

adverse effects? (3)
timolol
betaxolol
carteolol

non-specific
1. bronchoconstriction
2. vasospasm
3. hypoglycemia
glaucoma drugs
diuretic

mechanism?
inhibit carbonic anhydrase --> decreased HCO3 --> decreased aqueous humor secretion

Acetazolamide
glaucoma drugs
cholinomimetics
increase outflow of aqueous humor
contract ciliary muscle and open trabecular meshwork

which would you use for emergencies and why?
pilocarpine - very effective at opening trabecular meshwork into canal of Schlemm

Direct: pilocarpine, carbachol
Indirect: physostigmine, echothiophate
glaucoma drugs
prostaglandin

mechanism?
would effect would you see?
increases outflow of aqueous humor
darkens color of iris (browning)

Latanoprost (PGF2a)
pt was treated for pain, cough, diarrhea, and acute pulmonary edema with drugs that open K+ channel, close Ca+ channels --> reduce synaptic transmission

toxicities of these type of drugs?
addiction
respiratory depression
constipation
miosis(pinpoint pupils)
CNS depression

opioids
opioids inhibit the release of what substances? (5)
1. ACh
2. NE
3. 5-HT
4. glutamate
5. substance P
partial agonist at opioid "mu" and "kappa" receptors

advantage over full opioid agonists?
causes less respiratory depression

Butorphanol
very weak opioid agonist
also inhibits serotonin and NE reuptake (works on multiple neurotransmitters)

use?
chronic pain

tramadol
pt has partial seizures

what drugs can you use?
everything except ethosuximide and benzodiazepines
pt has tonic-clonic seizures

first line drugs? (3)
phenytoin
carbamazepine
valproic acid
absence seizures

first line drug?
ethosuximide
status epilepticus

first line drug for prophylaxis?
phenytoin
status epilepticus

first line drug for acute?
benzodiazepines (diazepam or lorazepam)
antiepileptic drugs

which drugs inactivate Na channels?
phenytoin
carbamazapine
lamotrigine
topiramate
valproic acid
antiepileptic drugs

which drugs ^GABA transmission?
topiramate
phenobarbital
valproic acid
benzodiazepines
tiagabine (inhibits GABA reuptake)
levetiracetam
vigabatrin (irreversibly inhibits GABA transaminase)
antiepileptic drugs

which drugs primarily inhibits HVA Ca+ channels?
Gabapentin
antiepileptic drugs

which is first line for trigeminal neuralgia?
carbamazapine
antiepileptic drugs

which is also used for peripheral neuropath and bipolar disorder?
Gabapentin
antiepileptic drugs

first line for pregnant women, children
Phenobarbital
antiepileptic drugs

which drug is also used for myoclonic seizures?
valproic acid
antiepileptic drugs

which drugs are also used for seizures of eclampsia?
what is first line for these seizures?
Benzodiazepines

first line is MgSO4
epilepsy drug toxicities
sedation
tolerance
dependence
benzodiazepines
epilepsy drug toxicities

diplopia
ataxia
agranulocytosis
aplastic anemia
liver toxicity
induction of P450
SIADH
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Carbamazapine
epilepsy drug toxicities

GI distress
fatigue
headache
urticaria
Stevens-Johnson syndrome
Ethosuximide
epilepsy drug toxicities

sedation
tolerance
dependence
induction of cytochrome P450
Phenobarbital
epilepsy drug toxicities

Nystagmus
diplopia
ataxia
gingival hyerplasia
hirsutism
megaloblastic anemia
SLE-like
induction of cytochrome P450
teratogenesis (fetal hydantoin syndrome)
Phenytoin
epilepsy drug toxicities

GI distress
fetal hepatoxicity
neural tube defects (spinal bifida)
tremor
weight gain
CONTRADINDICATED in pregnancy
Valproic acid
epilepsy drug toxicities

Steven's Johnson syndrome
Lamotrigine
Carbamazapine
Ethosuximide
epilepsy drug toxicities

sedation
ataxia
Gabapentin
epilepsy drug toxicities

sedation
mental dulling
kidney stones
weight loss
topiramate
use-dependent blockage of Na channels
^ refractory period
inhibition of glutamate release from excitatory presynaptic neuron

clinical use?
toxicity?
tonic-clonic seizures
- also a class IB antiarrythmic
- nystagmus, ataxia, diplopia, SLE-like

phenytoin
phenobarbital
pentobarbital
thiopental
secobarbital

mechanism of action?
treatment of overdose?
^ GABA-A action by increasing the DURATION of Cl- channel opening --> decrease neuron firing

respiratory assistance
^ BP

Barbituates
in which condition are baribituates contraindicated?
porphyria
diazepam
lorazepam
triazolam
temazepam
midazolam

mechanism?
^ GABA-A action by ^ the frequency of Cl- channel opening
- reduces REM sleep
anxiety
spasticity
status epilepticus
detox
night terrors
sleepwalking
general anesthetic

what drug category do you use to treat these?
how do you treat an overdose?
benzodiazepines

- flumazenil (competitive antagonist at GABA receptor)
Zolpidem
zaleplon
eszopiclone

mechanism of action?
uses?
act via BZL receptor subtype, reversed by flumazenil
- insomnia

nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics
Anesthetic general principles
drug with low solubility in blood

induction speed?
recovery time?
rapid induction
rapid recovery
Anesthetic general principles

drug with high solubility in lipids

potency?
MAC?
high potency
low MAC
diazepam
lorazepam
triazolam
temazepam
midazolam

mechanism?
^ GABA-A action by ^ the frequency of Cl- channel opening
- reduces REM sleep
anxiety
spasticity
status epilepticus
detox
night terrors
sleepwalking
general anesthetic

what drug category do you use to treat these?
how do you treat an overdose?
benzodiazepines

- flumazenil (competitive antagonist at GABA receptor)
Zolpidem
zaleplon
eszopiclone

mechanism of action?
uses?
act via BZL receptor subtype, reversed by flumazenil
- insomnia

nonbenzodiazepine hypnotics
Anesthetic general principles
drug with low solubility in blood

induction speed?
recovery time?
rapid induction
rapid recovery
Anesthetic general principles

drug with high solubility in lipids

potency?
MAC?
high potency
low MAC
N20 vs. Halothane

blood & lipid solubility?
induction speed?
potency?
N20
- low solubility
- fast induction
- low potency

Halothane is opposite
mechanics of anesthetics

in lungs
^ rate+depth of ventilation = ^ gas tension
mechanics of anesthetics

in blood
^ blood solubility = ^ blood/gas partition coefficient = ^ solubility = ^ gas required to saturate blood = slower onset of action
mechanics of anesthetics

in tissue (e.g. brain)
AV concentration gradient ^ = ^ solubility = ^ gas required to saturate tissue = slower onset of action
Halothane
enflurane
isoflurane
sevoflurane
nitrous oxide

effects?
toxicity?
myocardial depression
respiratory depression
nausea/emesis
^ cerebral blood flow

tox:
- Hepatotoxicity (Halothane)
- Nephrotoxicity (Methoxyflurane)
- convulsions (enflurane)
- malignant hyperthermia
intravenous anesthetics

high potentcy, high lipid solubility, rapid entry into brain
- used for induction of anesthesia and short surgical procedures
- reduces cerebral blood flow
thiopental - barbituates
what are the main intravenous anesthetics? (5)
barbituates (thiopental)
benzodiazepines (midazolam)
ketamine
opiates
propofol
pt undergoing endoscopy

what anesthetic do you use?
what would you need to use with it?
adverse effects?
midazolam

- coupled with gaseous anesthetics and narcotics
- AE: severe postop respiratory depression, hypotension, and amnesia
how does ketamine work?
effect on CV system?

adverse effects?
block NMDA receptors
- cardiovascular stimulant, increases cerebral blood flow

AE: disorientation, hallucination, and nightmares
intravenous anesthetics
used for rapid anesthesia induction and short procedures

advantage?
less postop nausea than thiopental
- potentiates GABA

Propofol
procaine
cocaine
tetracaine
amides (all have two I's in their name)
- lidocaine
- mepivacine
- bupivacaine

mechanism?
block Na+ channels by binding preferentially to ACTIVATED channels --> most effective on rapidly firing neurons

local anesthetics
different in mechanism b/w regular local anesthetics (esters?) and teritary amines?
regular esters: block Na channels by binding to specific receptors on the INNER portion of the channel

teritary amines: penetrate membrane in unchanged form, then bind to ion channels as charged form, then bind to ion channels as charged form
effect of acidity on effectiveness of local anesthetics?
less effect in infected (acidic) tissue because alkaline anesthetics are charged and cannot penetrate membrane effectively --> more anesthetic is needed
local anesthetics

order of nerve blockade?
small > large
myelinated > unmyelinated
size > myelination

= small myelinated fibers > small unmyelinated > large myelinated > large unmyelinated fibers
local anesthetics

order of loss
pain (first) > temperature > touch > pressure (last)
local anesthetics

usually given with what?
exception?
usually given with vasoconstrictors (epinephrine) --> enhance local action to stop bleedng
pt has a local painful wound

pt is allergic to esters, what type of local anesthetics do you give them?
possible toxicities?
amides

CNS excitation
severe CV toxicity (bupivacaine)
HTN/hypotension, arrhythmias (cocaine)
need to immobilize pt during surgery

what type of receptor are these drugs selective for?
selective for motor (vs. autonomic) nicotinic receptor
pt got a depolarizing muscle relaxant drug
now has hypercalcemia and hyperkalemia

cause?
succinylcholine
pt experiencing negative effects from neuromuscular blocking drugs

what drugs can you use to reverse it and when?
cholinesterase inhibitors (neostigmine)

can only use in Phase II (repolarized but blocked) because Phase I is a prolonged depolarization (cholinesterase inhibitors would actually make the muscle blockade WORSE)
tubocurarine
atracurium
mivacurium
pancuronium

type of drugs?
mechanism?
how would you reverse it?
nondepolarizing neuromuscular blockers

- compete with ACh for receptors
- reversal: neostigmine, edrophonium, and other cholinesterase inhibitors
pt on operating table has malignant hyperthermia

what caused it?
how do you treat it?
cause - inhalation anesthetics (except N2O) and succinylcholine

treat w/ dantrolene
what would you use dantrolene to treat?

mechanism?
1. malignant hyperthermia
2. neuroleptic malignant syndrome (from antipsychotic drugs)

mechanism - prevents release of Ca from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle
condition from excess cholingeric activity and loss of dopaminergic neurons
Parkinson's disease
different strategies to treat Parkinson's disease? (4)
1. Agonize dopamine receptors
2. increase dopamine
3. prevent dopamine breakdown
4. curb excess cholingeric activity
pt w/ Parkinson's

you want to agonize dopaminer receptor

drug?
Bromocriptine
pramipexole
ropinirole (non-ergot, preferred)
pt w/ Parkinson's

you want to ^ dopamine. drug?
what is this drug also used for?
toxicity?

what other drug?
1. Amantidine
- also used as an antiviral against influenza A and rubella
- toxicity: ataxia

2. L-dopa/carbidopa (converted to dopamine in CNS)
pt w/ Parkinson's

want to prevent dopamine breakdown. drug? (2)

mechanism?
Selegiline (selective MAO type B inhibitor)
- entacapone, tolcapone (COMIT inhibitors - prevent L-dopa degradation --> increase dopamine availability)
pt w/ Parkinson's disease w/ sweating, diarrhea, etc

you want to curb excess cholingeric activity. drug?
Benztropine (Antimuscarinic - improves tremor and rigidity but has little effect on bradykinesia)
pt has essential and familial tremors

tx?
propranolol (Beta-blocker)
Parkinson's pt

you want to increase dopamine in the brain and something that can cross the blood-brain barrier

drug?
toxicity?
what is it given with to prevent these effects?
Levodopa (L-dopa)/carbidopa

tox - arrhythmias from peripheral conversion to dopamine. Long term use --> dyskinesia, akinesia

- given w/ carbidopa (peripheral decarboxylase inhibitor) --> ^ bioavailability of L-dopa in the brain and reduces peripheral effetcs
enzyme that preferentially metabolizes dopamine over NE and 5-HT

what drug inhibits this?
use?
Selegiline

MAO-B
Alzheimers drug
NMDA receptor antagonist
helps prevent excitotoxicity (mediated by Ca+2)

toxicity?
Dizziness
confusion
hallucinations

Memantine
Donapezil
galantamine
rivastigmine

mechanism?
toxicity?
acetylcholinesterase inhibitor

toxicity - nausea, dizziness, insomnia
dopamine - increased
GABA - decreased
ACh - decreased

what disease?
tx?
Huntington's

Reserpine + tetrabenazine = amine depleting
Haloperidol - dopamine receptor antagonist
5-HT1B/1D agonist
causes vasoconstriction
inhibition of trigeminal activation and vasoactive peptide release

drug?
use?
toxicity?
contraindications?
sumatriptan

for migraine, cluster headaches

tox - coronary vasospasm, mild tingling

contraindicated - in pt w/ CAD or prinzmetal's angina), mild tingling