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1323 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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what is the most important law applicable to the study of electricity?
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Ohms law ( I= e/r)
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what are the elements of ohms law ?
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voltage ( E ), current ( I ), and resistance ( R )
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what are the sources of electrical power
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mechanical(generator), chemical ( battery), photoelectric( light) , and thermal heat
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what does an electrical circuit consist of ?
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a source of electrical pressure or emf, resistance in the form of an energy-consuming electrical device and conductors, usually in the form of copper or aluminum wires, to provide a path for electron flow.
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what represents capacitance in an AC circuit?
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a capacitor (condenser)
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what is the function of a capacitor?
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to store electricity
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what is inductance ?
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voltage that is induced in a coil in an AC circuit. the induced voltage is opposite in direction to the applied voltage and opposes any change in the alternating current.
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what is impedance ?
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it is the combined affect of resistance, inductive reactance, and capacitive reactance in an AC circuit.
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what is the unit of measurement of power in a DC circuit?
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The watt. Amperes times volts equals watts (p= I x E) . 746 watts equals one horsepower |
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what is a kilowatt?
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It is 1,000 watts
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What are the three types of DC electrical circuits ? |
They are series, parallel, and series parallel circuits |
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A 24-volt lead acid battery has how many cells? |
Each cell is rated at 2 volts |
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What should be the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead acid battery? |
It should be between 1.275 and 1.300 |
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What types of lines are used on aircraft drawings to indicate hidden views, alternate positions, and center lines? |
Hidden view is a medium-width line made up of short dashes Alternate position lines ante medium-width lines composed of a long and two short evenly spaced dashes. Center lines are composed of alternate long and short dashes |
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Define tolerance as used in aircraft drawings ? |
The difference between the plus and the minus allowance figures when a dimension shows an allowable variation |
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Define clearance as used in aircraft drawings ? |
Clearance is the dimension given for the space between moving parts |
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What information is given to the title block of a blueprint ? |
Drawing number, name of part or assembly, the scale, the date, the name of firm, the name of the draftsman, the checker, and the approving official |
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Why are dimensions used, and how they are shown on the aircraft drawings? |
Dimensions are solid narrow lines, broken at midpoint for the insertion of measurements. They are used to indicate the size of an object |
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How can a change to an aircraft drawing be identified ? |
By its revision letter. The revision letters are usually listed in a table next to the title block or at one corner of the drawing . |
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What is a bill of material associated with aircraft blue prints? |
It is a list of materials and parts necessary for fabrication or assembly of a component or system |
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Why are symbols used when drawing aircraft blueprints ? |
Symbols are a type of shorthand used for drawing. They show the characteristics of a component with the minimum amount of drawing |
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How many views are required to determine the shape of an object ? |
Three views |
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What is the datum and its purpose? |
It is an imaginary vertical line or plane used in weight and balance calculations for which measurements are taken both fwd and aft to determine relative location of items. The distance from the datum is inches , to the weight center of an item is called the arm |
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What instrument is used to determine the specific gravity of electrolyte in a lead acid battery? |
A Hydrometer |
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What is the purpose of weight and balance control? |
Safety and efficiency in flight |
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What is the "moment" in weight and balance and how is it obtained ? |
Moment is a force that tends to rotate the aircraft about its center of gravity. WAM Weight x Arm= moment |
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What is the "ARM" of an item and how is it obtained ? |
It's the distance of an item that is located either fwd or aft of the datum. Found in the weight and balance records or actual measurement. WAM Weight/Moment=ARM |
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Why can't a hydrometer be used to determine the charge of a nickel cadmium battery |
The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a nickel cadmium battery does not change appreciably during charge of the battery |
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When using a hydrometer to check the charge of a lead acid battery, at what temperatures must a correction factor be applied to the reading |
Adjustments must be made if temperature of the electrolyte is above 90f or below 70f |
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What is electromagnetic induction |
It is the transfer of electrical energy by means of a magnetic field. This is the principle of transformer operation |
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How are battery compartments protected against corrosion? |
They are coated with special corrosion resistant paint such as bituminous paint |
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What should be the correct electrolyte level in a properly serviced battery |
It should be approximately 3/8 inches above the plates. If the battery has baffle plates above the cell plates, the electrolyte level should be up to the hole in the baffle plate in each cell. |
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What is paralleling generators ? |
This is when 2 or more generators are operated at the same time to supply power for a load that must be shared equally |
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Describe a no-trip circuit breaker(trip free) |
It is a breaker that cannot be reset while in flight |
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Can you store ni-cad and lead acid batteries together ? |
No, the fumes from the lead acid battery can contaminate the electrolyte in the ni-cad battery. |
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What should be the specific gravity of the electrolyte in a fully charged lead acid battery? |
It should be between 1.275 and 1.300 |
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What types of lines are used on aircraft drawings to indicate hidden views, alternate positions, and center lines? |
Hidden view is a medium-width line made up of short dashes Alternate position lines ante medium-width lines composed of a long and two short evenly spaced dashes. Center lines are composed of alternate long and short dashes |
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Define tolerance as used in aircraft drawings ? |
The difference between the plus and the minus allowance figures when a dimension shows an allowable variation |
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Define clearance as used in aircraft drawings ? |
Clearance is the dimension given for the space between moving parts |
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What information is given to the title block of a blueprint ? |
Drawing number, name of part or assembly, the scale, the date, the name of firm, the name of the draftsman, the checker, and the approving official |
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Why are dimensions used, and how they are shown on the aircraft drawings? |
Dimensions are solid narrow lines, broken at midpoint for the insertion of measurements. They are used to indicate the size of an object |
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How can a change to an aircraft drawing be identified ? |
By its revision letter. The revision letters are usually listed in a table next to the title block or at one corner of the drawing . |
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What is a bill of material associated with aircraft blue prints? |
It is a list of materials and parts necessary for fabrication or assembly of a component or system |
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Why are symbols used when drawing aircraft blueprints ? |
Symbols are a type of shorthand used for drawing. They show the characteristics of a component with the minimum amount of drawing |
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How many views are required to determine the shape of an object ? |
Three views |
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What is the datum and its purpose? |
It is an imaginary vertical line or plane used in weight and balance calculations for which measurements are taken both fwd and aft to determine relative location of items. The distance from the datum is inches , to the weight center of an item is called the arm |
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What instrument is used to determine the specific gravity of electrolyte in a lead acid battery? |
A Hydrometer |
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What is the purpose of weight and balance control? |
Safety and efficiency in flight |
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What is the "moment" in weight and balance and how is it obtained ? |
Moment is a force that tends to rotate the aircraft about its center of gravity. WAM Weight x Arm= moment |
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What is the "ARM" of an item and how is it obtained ? |
It's the distance of an item that is located either fwd or aft of the datum. Found in the weight and balance records or actual measurement. WAM Weight/Moment=ARM |
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What is "tare weight " how is it handled when making weight and balance calculations? |
Is the weight of extra equipment such as chocks, blocks, jacks, chains, ground locks. Tare weight is subtracted from the scale readings in order to obtain actual weight |
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Why can't a hydrometer be used to determine the charge of a nickel cadmium battery |
The specific gravity of the electrolyte in a nickel cadmium battery does not change appreciably during charge of the battery |
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When using a hydrometer to check the charge of a lead acid battery, at what temperatures must a correction factor be applied to the reading |
Adjustments must be made if temperature of the electrolyte is above 90f or below 70f |
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What is electromagnetic induction |
It is the transfer of electrical energy by means of a magnetic field. This is the principle of transformer operation |
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How are battery compartments protected against corrosion? |
They are coated with special corrosion resistant paint such as bituminous paint |
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What should be the correct electrolyte level in a properly serviced battery |
It should be approximately 3/8 inches above the plates. If the battery has baffle plates above the cell plates, the electrolyte level should be up to the hole in the baffle plate in each cell. |
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What is paralleling generators ? |
This is when 2 or more generators are operated at the same time to supply power for a load that must be shared equally |
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Describe a no-trip circuit breaker(trip free) |
It is a breaker that cannot be reset while in flight |
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Can you store ni-cad and lead acid batteries together ? |
No, the fumes from the lead acid battery can contaminate the electrolyte in the ni-cad battery. |
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What is meant by minimum fuel and how is it calculated for weight and Balance purposes? |
Is the amount of fuel that should be used in weight and balance computations when the aircraft is loaded for an extreme condition check. For recip engines this is the fuel necessary to operate the engines for a one-half hr at max continuous power |
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What is meant by residual fuel? |
It is the fuel remaining in the tanks, lines, and engines after being drained. Also called undrainable or unusable fuel. Part of aircrafts empty weight |
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How would you determine the empty weight and empty weight CG of an aircraft which has tricycle landing gear if all weight and balance records are missing? |
Use three scales and record each weight under each wheel. Then measure the distance in inches from the nose wheel to the main landing gear and multiply the figure by the combined weight on each main gears . Into this number Divide the total weight of aircraft the answer will be the number of inches the CG is located aft of the nose wheel. |
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How would you determine the empty weight and empty weight CG of an aircraft which has tricycle landing gear if all weight and balance records are missing? |
Use three scales and record each weight under each wheel. Then measure the distance in inches from the nose wheel to the main landing gear and multiply the figure by the combined weight on each main gears . Into this number Divide the total weight of aircraft the answer will be the number of inches the CG is located aft of the nose wheel. |
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What is a ballast ? |
Ballast is items of weight placed into the aircraft to attain a desired CG location. Lead bars, metal plates, shot bags, or even sandbags |
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What is the difference between fixed wing aircraft and helicopter CG ranges? |
The CG location in a helicopter is much more critical than fixed wing aircraft. |
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What is the difference between fixed wing aircraft and helicopter CG ranges? |
The CG location in a helicopter is much more critical than fixed wing aircraft. |
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When weighing an aircraft to determine the empty weight CG, which aircraft operations equipment must be included in the weight determination ? |
All fixed(non-portable) operations equipment whether required , optional, or special must be included in the aircrafts empty weight |
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What is the difference between fixed wing aircraft and helicopter CG ranges? |
The CG location in a helicopter is much more critical than fixed wing aircraft. |
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When weighing an aircraft to determine the empty weight CG, which aircraft operations equipment must be included in the weight determination ? |
All fixed(non-portable) operations equipment whether required , optional, or special must be included in the aircrafts empty weight |
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Why do some manufacturers specify an empty weight CG range even though the aircraft is not operated at its empty weight ? |
When the empty weight CG falls within the empty weight CG range, it is unnecessary to perform a weight and balance check if standard loading and seating arrangements are used |
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Why must the aircraft category be considered when computing weight and balance ? |
Some airplanes are certified in both normal and utility categories. This means a different maximum allowable gross weight, depending on which category the aircraft will be operated in . |
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What are aircraft plumbing lines usually made of? |
Metal tubing and fittings , or flexible hoses |
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How is metal tubing sized? |
By the outside diameter, which is measured fractionally in sixteenths of an inch, and by wall thickness. |
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How is metal tubing sized? |
By the outside diameter, which is measured fractionally in sixteenths of an inch, and by wall thickness. |
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What precautions should be taken when routing fluid lines adjacent to electrical wiring? |
Rotate the fluid lines below the electrical wiring and maintain a clearance of at least 6 inches whenever possible. In no case should the fluid lines and wiring be closer than one-half inch. Ensure that both the wiring and fluid lines are fastened to a/c structure by clamps or other methods of maintaining separation. |
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How is metal tubing sized? |
By the outside diameter, which is measured fractionally in sixteenths of an inch, and by wall thickness. |
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What precautions should be taken when routing fluid lines adjacent to electrical wiring? |
Rotate the fluid lines below the electrical wiring and maintain a clearance of at least 6 inches whenever possible. In no case should the fluid lines and wiring be closer than one-half inch. Ensure that both the wiring and fluid lines are fastened to a/c structure by clamps or other methods of maintaining separation. |
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What is the purpose of the identification stripe running along the length of a flexible hose? |
The stripe is used to determine if the hose has twisted during installation. He stripe should not spiral around the hose after installation is completed |
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How is metal tubing sized? |
By the outside diameter, which is measured fractionally in sixteenths of an inch, and by wall thickness. |
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What precautions should be taken when routing fluid lines adjacent to electrical wiring? |
Rotate the fluid lines below the electrical wiring and maintain a clearance of at least 6 inches whenever possible. In no case should the fluid lines and wiring be closer than one-half inch. Ensure that both the wiring and fluid lines are fastened to a/c structure by clamps or other methods of maintaining separation. |
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What is the purpose of the identification stripe running along the length of a flexible hose? |
The stripe is used to determine if the hose has twisted during installation. He stripe should not spiral around the hose after installation is completed |
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How are standard AN-type fittings identified ? |
AN fittings are colored either black or Blue while AC type fittings are usually gray or yellow. AN fittings have coarser threads and have a small shoulder between the threads and the flare cone. AC fittings are completely threaded. |
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How is metal tubing sized? |
By the outside diameter, which is measured fractionally in sixteenths of an inch, and by wall thickness. |
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What precautions should be taken when routing fluid lines adjacent to electrical wiring? |
Rotate the fluid lines below the electrical wiring and maintain a clearance of at least 6 inches whenever possible. In no case should the fluid lines and wiring be closer than one-half inch. Ensure that both the wiring and fluid lines are fastened to a/c structure by clamps or other methods of maintaining separation. |
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What is the purpose of the identification stripe running along the length of a flexible hose? |
The stripe is used to determine if the hose has twisted during installation. He stripe should not spiral around the hose after installation is completed |
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How are standard AN-type fittings identified ? |
AN fittings are colored either black or Blue while AC type fittings are usually gray or yellow. AN fittings have coarser threads and have a small shoulder between the threads and the flare cone. AC fittings are completely threaded. |
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What is the purpose of using quick disconnect couplings in the fluid systems? |
Quick disconnect couplings are installed where frequent uncoupling of the lines is required for inspection maintenance. Provide a means of quickly disconnecting a line without a loss of fluid or air entering the system. |
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How is a flexible hose sized? |
By the inside diameter in sixteenths of an inch increments. |
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How is a flexible hose sized? |
By the inside diameter in sixteenths of an inch increments. |
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How much slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation? |
5 to 8 percent of the total hose length must be allowed for freedom of movement under pressure. |
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How is a flexible hose sized? |
By the inside diameter in sixteenths of an inch increments. |
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How much slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation? |
5 to 8 percent of the total hose length must be allowed for freedom of movement under pressure. |
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What are the three parts of a military standard (MS) flareless tube fitting? |
The body, the sleeve, and the nut |
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What will be the result of over tightening a flareless tube fitting? |
The sleeve's cutting edge will cut too deeply into the tube and cause the tube to be weakened. |
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What are the two kinds of flares used in aircraft pluming systems? |
A single flare and a double flare. |
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What are the two kinds of flares used in aircraft pluming systems? |
A single flare and a double flare. |
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What is the advantage of flexible Teflon hose over rubber hose? |
It can be used in the same manner as a rubber hose , but it has a better operating strength . |
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What are the two kinds of flares used in aircraft pluming systems? |
A single flare and a double flare. |
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What is the advantage of flexible Teflon hose over rubber hose? |
It can be used in the same manner as a rubber hose , but it has a better operating strength . |
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What precaution should be taken when deburring the cut end of a tube? |
Care should be taken that the tubing is not cracked or that the wall thickness is not reduced by the deburring process. |
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What is the suitable nondestructive method for detecting surface cracks in aluminum castings or forgings ? |
Dye penetrant inspection method detects surface cracks with equal success on aluminum, magnesium, brass, copper, and titanium. It can also be used on ceramics, plastics, and glass. |
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What is the suitable nondestructive method for detecting surface cracks in aluminum castings or forgings ? |
Dye penetrant inspection method detects surface cracks with equal success on aluminum, magnesium, brass, copper, and titanium. It can also be used on ceramics, plastics, and glass. |
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List the steps in a dye penetrant inspection. |
1. Throughly clean the material 2. Apply the penetrant 3. Remove the penetrant with emulsifier cleaner. 4. Dry the part 5. Apply developer 6. Inspect the results |
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Describe the procedure for performing a magnetic particle inspection. |
Thoroughly clean all grease,oils and dirt from the metal part, which must be magnetic material such as iron or steel. Magnetize the part and then apply the ferromagnetic particles, either held in liquid suspension or in dry power from to the area to be inspected. If discontinuity is present, magnetized particles will form a pattern in the approximate shape of the discontinuity. |
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Describe the procedure for performing a magnetic particle inspection. |
Thoroughly clean all grease,oils and dirt from the metal part, which must be magnetic material such as iron or steel. Magnetize the part and then apply the ferromagnetic particles, either held in liquid suspension or in dry power from to the area to be inspected. If discontinuity is present, magnetized particles will form a pattern in the approximate shape of the discontinuity. |
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What is the general rule for using self-locking nuts ? |
Do not use self-locking nuts at joints which subject either the nut or bolt to rotation. |
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What type of cable is used in the primary control systems? |
Extra-flexible 7x19 cable |
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How can the correct grip length of s bolt be determined? |
Grip length is the unthreaded portion of the bolt shank. Generally speaking, the grip length should equal to the total thickness of the material being bolted together. |
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What is the smallest cable that can be used in primary flight control systems? |
Federal regulation states that no cable smaller than 1/8 inch in diameter may be used for this purpose. |
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What is the smallest cable that can be used in primary flight control systems? |
Federal regulation states that no cable smaller than 1/8 inch in diameter may be used for this purpose. |
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What should be the depth of penetration when making a butt weld ? |
Bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal, and there should be 100 percent penetration. |
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What is the smallest cable that can be used in primary flight control systems? |
Federal regulation states that no cable smaller than 1/8 inch in diameter may be used for this purpose. |
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What should be the depth of penetration when making a butt weld ? |
Bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal, and there should be 100 percent penetration. |
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What system is used to identify AN-type aircraft bolts? |
Aircraft bolts have code markings on the bolt heads for identification |
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What is the smallest cable that can be used in primary flight control systems? |
Federal regulation states that no cable smaller than 1/8 inch in diameter may be used for this purpose. |
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What should be the depth of penetration when making a butt weld ? |
Bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal, and there should be 100 percent penetration. |
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What system is used to identify AN-type aircraft bolts? |
Aircraft bolts have code markings on the bolt heads for identification |
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What are the steps for solution heat treating aluminum alloys? |
The alloy must be heated to a predetermined temperature , heat soaked for s specific period of time, and then rapidly quenched to a relatively low temperature. |
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What is the smallest cable that can be used in primary flight control systems? |
Federal regulation states that no cable smaller than 1/8 inch in diameter may be used for this purpose. |
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What should be the depth of penetration when making a butt weld ? |
Bead width should be 3 to 5 times the thickness of the base metal, and there should be 100 percent penetration. |
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What system is used to identify AN-type aircraft bolts? |
Aircraft bolts have code markings on the bolt heads for identification |
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What are the steps for solution heat treating aluminum alloys? |
The alloy must be heated to a predetermined temperature , heat soaked for s specific period of time, and then rapidly quenched to a relatively low temperature. |
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No what state is aluminum alloy immediately after solution heat treating and quenching? |
The alloy is in a comparatively soft state, so the material must be naturally aged or precipitation hardened . |
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What is done to prevent certain aluminum alloy rivets from becoming hard after heat treating and quenching? |
The rivets are stored in a refrigerator at a temperature lower than 32F. The rivets will remain soft for several days. |
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What are characteristics of s cold weld? |
Cold weld has improper penetration and cold laps caused by the insufficient heat. It appears rough and irregular and its edges are not feathered into the metal base. |
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What are characteristics of s cold weld? |
Cold weld has improper penetration and cold laps caused by the insufficient heat. It appears rough and irregular and its edges are not feathered into the metal base. |
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What tools are used to measure the outside dimensions of shafts, thickness of the sheet metal stock, diameter of drills, and for many other similar applications ? |
Outside micrometer or caliper |
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What should be used to make a visual inspection of s weld ? |
A magnifying glass of at least x10 power |
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What should be used to make a visual inspection of s weld ? |
A magnifying glass of at least x10 power |
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Name the types of non-destructive testing used on non-ferrous materials. |
Eddy current, dye penetrant, x-ray, and visual inspection. |
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What is the procedure for extinguishing an induction system fire that occurs during starting of a reciprocating aircraft engine? |
A fire guard should be standing by with a co2 fire extinguisher during engine start. If engine fire develops , continue cranking engine to blow out the fire. If fire persists discontinue start and fire guard should extinguish fire using the extinguisher. |
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What is the procedure for extinguishing an induction system fire that occurs during starting of a reciprocating aircraft engine? |
A fire guard should be standing by with a co2 fire extinguisher during engine start. If engine fire develops , continue cranking engine to blow out the fire. If fire persists discontinue start and fire guard should extinguish fire using the extinguisher. |
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What is the purpose of pulling a propeller through by hand for two or three revolutions prior to starting some reciprocating engines? |
Purpose is to detect a hydraulic lock if one is present. Any liquid present with the cylinder will be indicated by an abnormal effort required to rotate the prop. Or by the prop stopping abruptly during rotation. |
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What is the procedure for extinguishing an induction system fire that occurs during starting of a reciprocating aircraft engine? |
A fire guard should be standing by with a co2 fire extinguisher during engine start. If engine fire develops , continue cranking engine to blow out the fire. If fire persists discontinue start and fire guard should extinguish fire using the extinguisher. |
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What is the purpose of pulling a propeller through by hand for two or three revolutions prior to starting some reciprocating engines? |
Purpose is to detect a hydraulic lock if one is present. Any liquid present with the cylinder will be indicated by an abnormal effort required to rotate the prop. Or by the prop stopping abruptly during rotation. |
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What damage is most likely to occur if force is exerted on the crankshaft when there is liquid lock? |
The force can bend or break a connecting rod. |
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What information must be located on or near fuel filler openings? Oil filler openings? |
For normal category aircraft the word "fuel" and the minimum fuel grade or designation for the engine. Same for transport category. Oil filler openings require the word "oil" to be marked at or near the filler cover . |
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What would be the result of operating an aircraft reciprocating engine using a lower grade of gasoline than the specified for the engine? |
There would be a loss of engine power, efficiency, and possible detonation. |
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What would be the result of operating an aircraft reciprocating engine using a lower grade of gasoline than the specified for the engine? |
There would be a loss of engine power, efficiency, and possible detonation. |
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Why should an aviation mechanic know the meaning of the standard light signals that are used by the control towers ? |
If radio communication is not possible, the light signals may be used for taxi control when aircraft must be taxied to another part of the airport |
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Which publication lists the standard faa hand signals a taxi signalman should use ? |
The FAA airman's information manual (AIM) |
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What is the result of mixing aviation gasoline with jet fuel in a turbine engine? |
The lead in the gasoline will form deposits in the turbine blades and vanes. Can cause a loss of engine efficiency. |
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What May result of gasoline that is contaminated with jet fuel is used in a reciprocating engine? |
Gasoline that is contaminated with jet fuel is unsafe for use in a reciprocating engine and can result in complete engine failure. |
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What May result of gasoline that is contaminated with jet fuel is used in a reciprocating engine? |
Gasoline that is contaminated with jet fuel is unsafe for use in a reciprocating engine and can result in complete engine failure. |
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When towing an aircraft with a tow tractor. What brakes should be used to stop the aircraft? |
Tow tractor and aircraft brakes should both be used. Brake rider should coordinate the use of brakes. |
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What is matter ? |
Anything that occupies space and has weight . |
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What is matter ? |
Anything that occupies space and has weight . |
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What are the three states of matter? |
Solids, liquids, and gases |
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What is the standard atmospheric pressure at sea level? |
It is considered to be 14.7 psi or 29.92 inches of Hg |
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What is the name of the atmospheric phenomenon where cool air is trapped near the earth by warm air? |
A temperature inversion |
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What is the speed of sound through the air under standard sea level conditions? |
662 knots and 761 mph |
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What is the speed of sound through the air under standard sea level conditions? |
662 knots and 761 mph |
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What determines the density of the air (density air)? |
The temperature and pressure acting upon it. |
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What are the three basic parts of a lever ? |
The fulcrum, force of effort, and resistance |
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What is a first class lever, an give an example. |
A first class lever is when the fulcrum is located between the effort and the resistance. An example is a seesaw |
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In what direction is force transmitted in a confined fluid? |
Force is transmitted equally In all directions . |
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What is the formula for computing force, pressure, and area? |
Force equals pressure times area or F=PxA |
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What is absolute zero? |
It is the temperature at which all motion of the molecules will cease entirely in a given sample of gas. It is considered to be at -273C |
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What are two factors involved in work? |
Force and movement through a measurable distance. Work=force x distance |
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How is pressure expressed in hydraulics and pneumatics? |
It is expressed in pounds per square inch (PSI) |
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How is pressure expressed in hydraulics and pneumatics? |
It is expressed in pounds per square inch (PSI) |
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What are three methods of heat transfer? |
Conduction, convection, and radiation. |
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How is pressure expressed in hydraulics and pneumatics? |
It is expressed in pounds per square inch (PSI) |
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What are three methods of heat transfer? |
Conduction, convection, and radiation. |
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What are three types of friction? |
Rolling, sliding, and static |
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What is the purpose of airworthiness directives? |
They are used to correct unsafe conditions in aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances. |
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What is the purpose of airworthiness directives? |
They are used to correct unsafe conditions in aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances. |
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What publication is used to notify aircraft owners of unsafe conditions? |
Airworthiness directives |
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What is the purpose of airworthiness directives? |
They are used to correct unsafe conditions in aircraft, engines, propellers, and appliances. |
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What publication is used to notify aircraft owners of unsafe conditions? |
Airworthiness directives |
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When must an airworthiness directive be complied with ? |
The AD will include the time or period for corrective action. |
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Where can you find a list of approved engines for use in a specific model aircraft? |
In the type certificate data sheet for the aircraft. |
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Where can you find airworthiness standards for normal, utility, and acrobatic category aircraft? |
Far part 23 |
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Where can you find airworthiness standards for transport category aircraft? |
Far part 25 |
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What federal regulation defines the requirements for the issue of type certificates |
Far part 21 |
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Where would look to find out if a specific airplane can be certified in more than one category? |
On the aircraft specifications or type certificate data sheet |
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Where would look to find out if a specific airplane can be certified in more than one category? |
On the aircraft specifications or type certificate data sheet |
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What publication is issued by airframe, engine, and compartment manufacturers to notify aircraft owners of design defects? |
Service bulletins |
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What publication contains complete instructions for maintenance of all systems and components installed in an aircraft? |
The manufacturers aircraft maintenance manual |
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Where are FAA advisor circulars? |
They are publications containing non-regulatory material of interest to the Aviation public |
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Which federal regulation prescribes the certificate requirements for a mechanic ? |
Far part 65 |
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What are the limitations of s certified mechanic in regard to aircraft instruments? |
A Powerplant mechanic may make minor repairs and alterations, but may not make major repairs or major alterations to propellers |
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When a mechanic has a permanent change of address, what should you do ? |
Must notify the administrator of the FAA within 30 days |
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What is the duration of a certified mechanic? |
It is effective until surrendered, suspended, or revoked. |
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How long is a temporary mechanic certificate in effect? |
For a period of 120 days |
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What is used as a guide to determine if a repair is a major or a minor repair? |
Far part 43, appendix A |
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What is the recency of experience requirements dos mechanic ? |
May not exercise the privileges of his certificate and rating within the proceeding 24 months he has , for at least 6 months served as a mechanic |
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What may be used as a guide for 100-hour inspections |
Far part 43 appendix D |
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What are the privileges of a certified mechanic in regard to performing a 100 hr inspection and returning an aircraft to service ? An annual inspection? |
A certified A&P mechanic may perform 100 hr inspection and return aircraft to service. For an annual inspection an A&P mechanic with an inspection authorization may return an aircraft back to service. |
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Who has final responsibility for maintaining aircraft maintenance records? |
The owner or operator of the aircraft |
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May an airframe mechanic perform maintenance on engines? |
Yes, under the supervision of a Powerplant mechanic. |
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What species of wood is used as a standard for strength properties of other species of wood used in aircraft structures? |
Spruce is used as a standard |
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What type of wood quality must be used in repair of aircraft structures? |
The wood must be aircraft quality |
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What type of wood quality must be used in repair of aircraft structures? |
The wood must be aircraft quality |
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What is the difference between laminated and plywood? |
Laminated wood consists of tow or more layers of wood that have been glued together, with the grain of all layers approximately parallel. The grain of plywood runs 90 degrees with the adjacent ply |
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What type of wood quality must be used in repair of aircraft structures? |
The wood must be aircraft quality |
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What is the difference between laminated and plywood? |
Laminated wood consists of tow or more layers of wood that have been glued together, with the grain of all layers approximately parallel. The grain of plywood runs 90 degrees with the adjacent ply |
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What are the two types of glue used in aircraft wood structure repair? |
They are caseun and synthetic resin glue. The resin glues that are recommended for wood aircraft applications are the resorcinol formaldehyde-type glues |
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What method is used to prepare plywood for bending? |
The wood is soaked in hot water and then placed on a form until completely dry |
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What are the results of using insufficient gluing pressure when making a wood joint? |
The results will normally be thick glue lines, which indicate a weak joint |
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What are the results of using insufficient gluing pressure when making a wood joint? |
The results will normally be thick glue lines, which indicate a weak joint |
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How long should a wood glue joint be kept under pressure before removing the clamps ? |
The pressure will be vary depending on the temperature of the curing room. Curing temperature from 70F and above. Higher temps will cause glue to set faster. Recommended that it remain under pressure at 85F for a period of at least seven hrs. Full joint strength develops after conditioning for at least two days |
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What are some of the various methods used to apply pressure to joints in aircraft gluing operations? |
Brads, nails, screws, clamps, and hydraulic and electric power presses |
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Why does the strength of a scarf joint depend upon the accuracy of the two beveled surfaces? |
Because an inaccurate bevel will reduce the amount of effect in glue area |
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What type of patch is preferred for repair of stressed plywood skin and why? |
A properly prepared and inserted scarf patch is the best repair for plywood and is preferred for most skin repairs. It differs from a splayed patch in that the edges are scarfed to a 12 to 1 slope instead of a 5 to 1 slope, and uses reinforcements under the patch where the glue joints occur. |
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What type of patch is preferred for repair of stressed plywood skin and why? |
A properly prepared and inserted scarf patch is the best repair for plywood and is preferred for most skin repairs. It differs from a splayed patch in that the edges are scarfed to a 12 to 1 slope instead of a 5 to 1 slope, and uses reinforcements under the patch where the glue joints occur. |
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Are mineral streaks acceptable in aircraft wood |
Yes, providing careful inspection fails to reveal any decay |
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How can the moisture content of wood be determined? |
One way is to use a moisture meter. However most accurate method is to take a sample of the wood, weigh in, dry it in an oven at temps of 100 degree Celsius to 105 degree Celsius., reweigh it, then compute the moisture content by using filling formula: W1 - W2 x 100 / W2 = percent of moisture content W1 = weight before drying W2 = weight after drying |
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How can the moisture content of wood be determined? |
One way is to use a moisture meter. However most accurate method is to take a sample of the wood, weigh in, dry it in an oven at temps of 100 degree Celsius to 105 degree Celsius., reweigh it, then compute the moisture content by using filling formula: W1 - W2 x 100 / W2 = percent of moisture content W1 = weight before drying W2 = weight after drying |
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What area of the wood spar may not be spliced? |
It may not be spliced under wing attachment fittings, landing gear fittings, engine mount fittings, or lift and interplane strut fittings |
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How can the moisture content of wood be determined? |
One way is to use a moisture meter. However most accurate method is to take a sample of the wood, weigh in, dry it in an oven at temps of 100 degree Celsius to 105 degree Celsius., reweigh it, then compute the moisture content by using filling formula: W1 - W2 x 100 / W2 = percent of moisture content W1 = weight before drying W2 = weight after drying |
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What area of the wood spar may not be spliced? |
It may not be spliced under wing attachment fittings, landing gear fittings, engine mount fittings, or lift and interplane strut fittings |
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What type of joint is generally used in splicing structural members in aircraft? |
A scarf joint |
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What is compression wood and why is it not acceptable for aircraft structures? |
Compression wood is wood that is characterized by high specific gravity and has the appearance of an excessive growth of summer wood( hard non-porous). Reject all material containing compression wood |
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What is compression wood and why is it not acceptable for aircraft structures? |
Compression wood is wood that is characterized by high specific gravity and has the appearance of an excessive growth of summer wood( hard non-porous). Reject all material containing compression wood |
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What determines the required quality and strength of fabric that is to be used for covering aircraft? |
The required strength and quality of aircraft fabric is determined by the pounds per square foot of wing loading and the never-exceed airspeed of the aircraft |
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When are anti-tear strips recommended and where are they used? |
Used in aircraft with never-exceed speeds with excess of 250 mph, they are installed over ribs under reinforcing tape. |
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When are anti-tear strips recommended and where are they used? |
Used in aircraft with never-exceed speeds with excess of 250 mph, they are installed over ribs under reinforcing tape. |
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What is the maximum permissible deterioration of aircraft fabric before it is considered unworthy? |
Fabric covering is considered unworthy when it deteriorates more than 30 % from its originally required tensile strength. |
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When are anti-tear strips recommended and where are they used? |
Used in aircraft with never-exceed speeds with excess of 250 mph, they are installed over ribs under reinforcing tape. |
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What is the maximum permissible deterioration of aircraft fabric before it is considered unworthy? |
Fabric covering is considered unworthy when it deteriorates more than 30 % from its originally required tensile strength. |
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What should be the strength of the fabric used for re-covering an aircraft? |
Must be at least as good a quality and of equivalent strength as those originally used by the aircraft manufacturer |
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What is the purpose, location, and the method of installing drain grommets in aircraft fabric? |
Located on underside of airfoils at trailing edge as close to rib as practical. And at the lowest point along the center of the underside of each fuselage bay they allow the condensed moisture to leave the aircraft as well as furnish and ventilation. brass grommets should be mounted on fabric patches and then doped to the covering .plastic grommets are dealt directly to the covering both types are installed with the second coat of dope and the drain holes opened by cutting out the fabric with small knife |
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What is the purpose of reinforcing tape? |
Reinforcing tape is used over the ribs between the fabric covering and the rib stitching to prevent the stitching cord from cutting through the fabric. |
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What methods are used to check the strength of doped fabric? |
Fabric punch testers will provide a general indication of strength of the fabric, but if a punch tester indicates that the fabric strength is marginal, a laboratory test should be performed to determine the actual strength of the fabric. |
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What methods are used to check the strength of doped fabric? |
Fabric punch testers will provide a general indication of strength of the fabric, but if a punch tester indicates that the fabric strength is marginal, a laboratory test should be performed to determine the actual strength of the fabric. |
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What type of fabric is not affected by moisture or mildew? |
Fiberglass fabric is not affected by moisture, mildew, chemicals, or most acids. |
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What type of machine-sewed seams are used in aircraft covering? |
Plane overlap seam, folded- fell Seams, and French-fell seams. |
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What should be done with structure that will come in contact with doped fabric? |
Treat all parts of the structure that will come in contact with dope fabric with a protective coating such as aluminum for oil, dope proof paint, or cellulose tape. |
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If your original rib stitch spacing cannot be determined when re-covering an aircraft, what rib stitch spacing should be used? |
Use the rib stitch spacing chart in advisory circular 43. 13. |
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If your original rib stitch spacing cannot be determined when re-covering an aircraft, what rib stitch spacing should be used? |
Use the rib stitch spacing chart in advisory circular 43. 13. |
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What is the standard tie off knot used during rib stitching? |
A modified seine knot is used to tie off all stitches except the starting stitch |
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What do you call the edge of cloth, tape, or webbing that has been woven to prevent raveling ? |
Salvage edge |
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What do you call the edge of cloth, tape, or webbing that has been woven to prevent raveling ? |
Salvage edge |
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What types of fabric used for covering aircraft are organic and synthetic. Name two organic and two synthetic fibers . |
The organic fibers are cotton and linen. The synthetic fibers are fiber glass, nylon, Orlon, and Dacron. |
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When covering aircraft. Where is surface tape used? |
Sewed seams, lapped edges, and rib stitching or screws must be covered with pinked-edge surface tape. |
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Name the advantages of using the envelope method to cover fabric aircraft. |
It saves later because practically all sewing is done by machine. |
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Name the safety and health precautions to be observed in operating a dope room, including storage of material. |
Well lighted and ventilated, using spark proof motors, lights, and switches. Flammable material be stored in fireproof containers in protected areas. Dope and paint rooms should be isolated from the rest of the building by metal partitions and fireproof doors. |
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Name the safety and health precautions to be observed in operating a dope room, including storage of material. |
Well lighted and ventilated, using spark proof motors, lights, and switches. Flammable material be stored in fireproof containers in protected areas. Dope and paint rooms should be isolated from the rest of the building by metal partitions and fireproof doors. |
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What type of test can be performed to identify existing paint finishes? |
Apply a coat of engine oil to a small area. Nitrocellulose will soften in a few minutes, but acrylic and epoxy will show no effects. If not identified , next wipe down small area with MEK. MEK will pick up pigment from an acrylic finish, but will not affect epoxy coating. |
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Name the safety and health precautions to be observed in operating a dope room, including storage of material. |
Well lighted and ventilated, using spark proof motors, lights, and switches. Flammable material be stored in fireproof containers in protected areas. Dope and paint rooms should be isolated from the rest of the building by metal partitions and fireproof doors. |
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What type of test can be performed to identify existing paint finishes? |
Apply a coat of engine oil to a small area. Nitrocellulose will soften in a few minutes, but acrylic and epoxy will show no effects. If not identified , next wipe down small area with MEK. MEK will pick up pigment from an acrylic finish, but will not affect epoxy coating. |
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What causes blushing when applying dope or lacquer, and how can it be prevented? |
Blushing is possible when doping in humid conditions. Rapid evaporation of thinners and solvents lowers the temperature on the surface of a wet dope, cursing condensation of moisture from the air. Moisture causes a milky white appearance known as blush. Can be eliminated by heating the room to decrease humidity or using a blush retarding thinner to increase drying time. Also caused by moisture in air supply, drafts, or change in temperature. |
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What is the purpose of using fungicidal dope when finishing an aircraft fabric? |
To prevent microbiological deterioration (rotting) of the fabric. |
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What is the purpose of using fungicidal dope when finishing an aircraft fabric? |
To prevent microbiological deterioration (rotting) of the fabric. |
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What are the identification marking requirements for United States registered fixed wing aircraft? |
The Roman capital "N" followed by the registration number, must be displayed on both sides of the fuselage or on both sides of the vertical tail surfaces. The height of the characters must be equal in size at least 12 inches, and the characters must be 2/3 as wide as they are high, and the letters "M" and "W" which may be as wide as they are high. Characters must be formed by solid lines 1/6 as thick as they are high, and the spacing between each character may not be less that 1/4 of the character width. |
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What is the purpose of using fungicidal dope when finishing an aircraft fabric? |
To prevent microbiological deterioration (rotting) of the fabric. |
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What are the identification marking requirements for United States registered fixed wing aircraft? |
The Roman capital "N" followed by the registration number, must be displayed on both sides of the fuselage or on both sides of the vertical tail surfaces. The height of the characters must be equal in size at least 12 inches, and the characters must be 2/3 as wide as they are high, and the letters "M" and "W" which may be as wide as they are high. Characters must be formed by solid lines 1/6 as thick as they are high, and the spacing between each character may not be less that 1/4 of the character width. |
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What are three types of dope used in aircraft finishes? |
They are clear dope, semi-pigmented dope, and pigmented dope. |
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What would happen if dope was ever used over paint or enamel? |
It would have the tendency to lift and remove such materials. |
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What would happen if dope was ever used over paint or enamel? |
It would have the tendency to lift and remove such materials. |
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What is applied to metallic surfaces as a common resistant covering before the application of enamel or lacquer? |
Zinc chromate primer is normally used for this purpose. |
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What are the most common methods of applying aircraft finishes? |
They are dipping, brushing, or spraying. |
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What are the most common methods of applying aircraft finishes? |
They are dipping, brushing, or spraying. |
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What type of paint may be used over any paint system that is in good condition? |
Epoxy topcoats will adhere to all paint systems that are in good condition and may be used for general touch up , including touch up of defects in baked enamel coatings. |
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What are the most common methods of applying aircraft finishes? |
They are dipping, brushing, or spraying. |
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What type of paint may be used over any paint system that is in good condition? |
Epoxy topcoats will adhere to all paint systems that are in good condition and may be used for general touch up , including touch up of defects in baked enamel coatings. |
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What is normally the cause of runs and sags in a spray paint finish? |
Holding the gun too long in one place, causing too much paint to be applied . |
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What causes an "Orange peel" or "pebble" finish? |
The spray gun setting, incorrect air pressure, incorrect paint viscosity, and holding the gun too far from the work. |
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What causes an "Orange peel" or "pebble" finish? |
The spray gun setting, incorrect air pressure, incorrect paint viscosity, and holding the gun too far from the work. |
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What is used to thin chromate primer? |
Toluene |
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What causes an "Orange peel" or "pebble" finish? |
The spray gun setting, incorrect air pressure, incorrect paint viscosity, and holding the gun too far from the work. |
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What is used to thin chromate primer? |
Toluene |
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Which federal regulation prescribes the size and location requirements for aircraft identification numbers? |
Far part 45 |
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What type of materials should be thoroughly protected when using paint remover? |
Synthetic rubber surfaces, aircraft tires, fabric, and acrylics must be protected against possible contact with paint remover. |
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What is the grip length of a rivet ? |
The grip length is the combined thickness of the materials to be joined by the rivet. |
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Where are special rivets, suck as huck or cherry lock rivets used? |
Used in places where access to both sides of the riveted structure is impossible, or where limited space will not permit the use of s bucking bar. These rivet require special tools for installation and removal. Normally called blind rivets. |
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Where are special rivets, suck as huck or cherry lock rivets used? |
Used in places where access to both sides of the riveted structure is impossible, or where limited space will not permit the use of s bucking bar. These rivet require special tools for installation and removal. Normally called blind rivets. |
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What is bonded honeycomb(sandwich) construction? |
Lamar construction consisting of a combination of alternating dissimilar materials, assembled, and fixed in relation to each other so that the properties of each can be used to attain specific structural advantages for the whole assembly. |
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What types of materials are used in honeycomb construction? |
Honeycomb construction may employ stainless steel, titanium, magnesium, plywood, resin impregnated paper, glass, nylon, or cotton cloth in various combinations. |
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What types of materials are used in honeycomb construction? |
Honeycomb construction may employ stainless steel, titanium, magnesium, plywood, resin impregnated paper, glass, nylon, or cotton cloth in various combinations. |
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Where are sandwich construction assemblies used? |
They are used for such areas as bulkheads, control surfaces, fuselage panels, wing panels, radomes, empennage skins, or shear webs. |
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What procedures should be used to prevent damage to the hole when drilling through plexiglas? |
The plexiglas should be backed with wood and the feed slowed as the drill point breaks through the underside of the sheet. A drill that is to be used for this purpose should be modified to a 60 degrees tip angle, the cutting edge to a zero take angle, and the back lip clearance angle increased to 12 to 15 degrees. |
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What procedures should be used to prevent damage to the hole when drilling through plexiglas? |
The plexiglas should be backed with wood and the feed slowed as the drill point breaks through the underside of the sheet. A drill that is to be used for this purpose should be modified to a 60 degrees tip angle, the cutting edge to a zero take angle, and the back lip clearance angle increased to 12 to 15 degrees. |
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What calculations must be made when bending sheet metal? |
Setback, bend radius, degree of the bend and material thickness |
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What procedures should be used to prevent damage to the hole when drilling through plexiglas? |
The plexiglas should be backed with wood and the feed slowed as the drill point breaks through the underside of the sheet. A drill that is to be used for this purpose should be modified to a 60 degrees tip angle, the cutting edge to a zero take angle, and the back lip clearance angle increased to 12 to 15 degrees. |
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What calculations must be made when bending sheet metal? |
Setback, bend radius, degree of the bend and material thickness |
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What factors are used to determine setback? |
Huge radius of the bend and the thickness of the material Setback=Radius+thickness |
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What procedures should be used to prevent damage to the hole when drilling through plexiglas? |
The plexiglas should be backed with wood and the feed slowed as the drill point breaks through the underside of the sheet. A drill that is to be used for this purpose should be modified to a 60 degrees tip angle, the cutting edge to a zero take angle, and the back lip clearance angle increased to 12 to 15 degrees. |
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What calculations must be made when bending sheet metal? |
Setback, bend radius, degree of the bend and material thickness |
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What factors are used to determine setback? |
Huge radius of the bend and the thickness of the material Setback=Radius+thickness |
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What is a joggle? |
A joggle is an offset formed on an angle strip to allow clearance for a sheet or extrusion. |
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What procedures should be used to prevent damage to the hole when drilling through plexiglas? |
The plexiglas should be backed with wood and the feed slowed as the drill point breaks through the underside of the sheet. A drill that is to be used for this purpose should be modified to a 60 degrees tip angle, the cutting edge to a zero take angle, and the back lip clearance angle increased to 12 to 15 degrees. |
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What calculations must be made when bending sheet metal? |
Setback, bend radius, degree of the bend and material thickness |
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What factors are used to determine setback? |
Huge radius of the bend and the thickness of the material Setback=Radius+thickness |
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What is a joggle? |
A joggle is an offset formed on an angle strip to allow clearance for a sheet or extrusion. |
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What are several methods used in forming sheet metal? |
Folding, bumping, crimping, shrinking, and stretching. |
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What may cause plastic to craze? |
Subjecting plastic to large stresses and exposure to harmful solvents will cause crazing. |
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What rules apply to the replacement of 2017-T3 and 2024-T4 rivets with 2117-T3 rivets? |
May replace 2017-T3 rivets of 3/16 inch diameter or less 2024-T4 rivets 5/32 inch in diameter or less |
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Briefly describe the anodizing process and what purpose it serves. |
Aluminum alloys are placed in electrolytic bath which causes a thin film of hydroxide to form on the surface of the aluminum. This anodized coating not only provides excellent resistance to corrosion, but it also an excellent bond for paint. |
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What are the proper dimensions for a proper shop head? |
1 1/2 x the diameter of wide and 1/2 X the diameter thick after bucking . |
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When inspecting plexiglas, what should you look for ? |
Crazing and discoloration |
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When inspecting plexiglas, what should you look for ? |
Crazing and discoloration |
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What causes honeycomb structures to delaminate? |
Moisture |
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What are the acceptable repair methods for bonded honeycomb structure that has been damaged? |
The potted repair method and the laminated glass fabric cloth overlay. |
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What size drill should be used for the common shank rivet diameters of 3/32 inch, 4/32, and 5/32 inch ? |
For 3/32 a #40 For 4/32 a # 30 For 5/32 a #21 |
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What is used for hole filling in a bonded honeycomb repair? |
Potting compound |
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What is a lightning hole? |
Lightning holes are cut into rib sections, fuselage frames, and other structural parts to decrease weight. Flanges are pressed around the holes for strength |
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What is a lightning hole? |
Lightning holes are cut into rib sections, fuselage frames, and other structural parts to decrease weight. Flanges are pressed around the holes for strength |
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What type of weld joint must be used to weld magnesium? |
Only butt welds are used. This is to prevent the possibility of trapping contaminants. |
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What is a lightning hole? |
Lightning holes are cut into rib sections, fuselage frames, and other structural parts to decrease weight. Flanges are pressed around the holes for strength |
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What type of weld joint must be used to weld magnesium? |
Only butt welds are used. This is to prevent the possibility of trapping contaminants. |
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Why must all flux be removed from the metal after Welding magnesium? |
Any flux left on the metal will result in severe corrosion. |
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What must be done in order to successfully weld titanium? |
The weld zone must be shielded with an inert gas such as helium or argon. |
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What must be done in order to successfully weld titanium? |
The weld zone must be shielded with an inert gas such as helium or argon. |
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What is gas shielded arc welding? |
A gas is used as a covering shield around the arc to prevent atmosphere from contaminating the weld |
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What are the advantages of gas shielded arc weld? |
It results in a stronger, more ductile, and more corrosion-resistant weld. |
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What must be done in order to successfully weld titanium? |
The weld zone must be shielded with an inert gas such as helium or argon. |
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What is gas shielded arc welding? |
A gas is used as a covering shield around the arc to prevent atmosphere from contaminating the weld |
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What are the advantages of gas shielded arc weld? |
It results in a stronger, more ductile, and more corrosion-resistant weld. |
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What is an advantage of electric arc welding over gas welding? |
It causes less buckling and warping of the welded material. |
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What determines the amount of heat that will be applied to the work when welding by the oxy-acetylene method? |
The torch tip's orifice size or diameter |
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What will result of using a torch tip that is too large or too small? |
If tip is too large, the heat will be too great and the holes may be burned in the metal. If too small, the heat provided may be insufficient to produce penetration to the proper depth, causing a Low-strength weld. |
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What will result of using a torch tip that is too large or too small? |
If tip is too large, the heat will be too great and the holes may be burned in the metal. If too small, the heat provided may be insufficient to produce penetration to the proper depth, causing a Low-strength weld. |
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How do you determine the correct size filler rod to be used in welding? |
Welding rods are made in standard 36 inch lengths and diameters from 1/16 to 3/8 inch. Diameter of the rod is governed by the thickness of metals being joined. |
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What will result of using a torch tip that is too large or too small? |
If tip is too large, the heat will be too great and the holes may be burned in the metal. If too small, the heat provided may be insufficient to produce penetration to the proper depth, causing a Low-strength weld. |
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How do you determine the correct size filler rod to be used in welding? |
Welding rods are made in standard 36 inch lengths and diameters from 1/16 to 3/8 inch. Diameter of the rod is governed by the thickness of metals being joined. |
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What is brazing? |
Brazing is a metal joining process in which the bonding material is a non-ferrous metal with a melting point lower than that of the metals being used. Includes silver soldering, copper brazing, and aluminum brazing. Can be used by metals that are damaged by high heat. |
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What will result of using a torch tip that is too large or too small? |
If tip is too large, the heat will be too great and the holes may be burned in the metal. If too small, the heat provided may be insufficient to produce penetration to the proper depth, causing a Low-strength weld. |
|
|
How do you determine the correct size filler rod to be used in welding? |
Welding rods are made in standard 36 inch lengths and diameters from 1/16 to 3/8 inch. Diameter of the rod is governed by the thickness of metals being joined. |
|
|
What is brazing? |
Brazing is a metal joining process in which the bonding material is a non-ferrous metal with a melting point lower than that of the metals being used. Includes silver soldering, copper brazing, and aluminum brazing. Can be used by metals that are damaged by high heat. |
|
|
What is one method of controlling expansion when welding a joint? |
By tack welding at intervals along the joint. |
|
|
What will result of using a torch tip that is too large or too small? |
If tip is too large, the heat will be too great and the holes may be burned in the metal. If too small, the heat provided may be insufficient to produce penetration to the proper depth, causing a Low-strength weld. |
|
|
How do you determine the correct size filler rod to be used in welding? |
Welding rods are made in standard 36 inch lengths and diameters from 1/16 to 3/8 inch. Diameter of the rod is governed by the thickness of metals being joined. |
|
|
What is brazing? |
Brazing is a metal joining process in which the bonding material is a non-ferrous metal with a melting point lower than that of the metals being used. Includes silver soldering, copper brazing, and aluminum brazing. Can be used by metals that are damaged by high heat. |
|
|
What is one method of controlling expansion when welding a joint? |
By tack welding at intervals along the joint. |
|
|
Why is it especially desirable to use a soft flame when welding aluminum? |
To avoid blowing holes in the metal when the puddle is formed. |
|
|
What will result of using a torch tip that is too large or too small? |
If tip is too large, the heat will be too great and the holes may be burned in the metal. If too small, the heat provided may be insufficient to produce penetration to the proper depth, causing a Low-strength weld. |
|
|
How do you determine the correct size filler rod to be used in welding? |
Welding rods are made in standard 36 inch lengths and diameters from 1/16 to 3/8 inch. Diameter of the rod is governed by the thickness of metals being joined. |
|
|
What is brazing? |
Brazing is a metal joining process in which the bonding material is a non-ferrous metal with a melting point lower than that of the metals being used. Includes silver soldering, copper brazing, and aluminum brazing. Can be used by metals that are damaged by high heat. |
|
|
What is one method of controlling expansion when welding a joint? |
By tack welding at intervals along the joint. |
|
|
Why is it especially desirable to use a soft flame when welding aluminum? |
To avoid blowing holes in the metal when the puddle is formed. |
|
|
What is the purpose of using flux when welding aluminum? |
Is designed to remove aluminum oxide by chemically combining with it . Fluxes de solve below the surface of the puddle and float the oxides to the surface where they can be removed. |
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|
What is the maximum safe pressure for acetylene gas when welding? |
Dangerously unstable at a pressure greater than 15psi . At 29.4 psi is self-explosive and only a slight shock can cause it to explode. |
|
|
How can dents at a steel tube cluster joint be repaired? |
Weld a specifically formed steel patch over the dented area and surrounding tubes. |
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|
What type of flame should be used in silver soldering? |
Neutral flame |
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|
What is the procedure for preparing a metal fuel tank for welding? |
Interior washed thoroughly with hot water and a detergent, and then steamed for a minimum of 30 minutes. Fill the tank with CO2 gas from a fire extinguisher and seal the tank except for a small vent hole. |
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|
What is the procedure for preparing a metal fuel tank for welding? |
Interior washed thoroughly with hot water and a detergent, and then steamed for a minimum of 30 minutes. Fill the tank with CO2 gas from a fire extinguisher and seal the tank except for a small vent hole. |
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When splicing tubing for the inner sleeve method, what method can be used to insert a tight- fitting inner sleeve into the replacement tube? |
The sleeve can be chilled with dry ice or in cold water. |
|
|
What is the procedure for preparing a metal fuel tank for welding? |
Interior washed thoroughly with hot water and a detergent, and then steamed for a minimum of 30 minutes. Fill the tank with CO2 gas from a fire extinguisher and seal the tank except for a small vent hole. |
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When splicing tubing for the inner sleeve method, what method can be used to insert a tight- fitting inner sleeve into the replacement tube? |
The sleeve can be chilled with dry ice or in cold water. |
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|
Why is flux used over silver solder? |
It clears the base metal of oxide to insure a good bond. |
|
|
What are the three types of commonly used flight control systems? |
Cable, push-pull, and the torque tube systems. |
|
|
What are the three types of commonly used flight control systems? |
Cable, push-pull, and the torque tube systems. |
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|
What is used in large metal aircraft to keep control cable tension within acceptable limits? |
Cable tension regulators. Designed to maintain a given cable tension. |
|
|
What are the three types of commonly used flight control systems? |
Cable, push-pull, and the torque tube systems. |
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|
What is used in large metal aircraft to keep control cable tension within acceptable limits? |
Cable tension regulators. Designed to maintain a given cable tension. |
|
|
What is a fairlead? |
It is a cable guide to guide cables in a straight line through or between structural members of the aircraft. Should never deflect more than 3 degrees from a straight line. |
|
|
Where does breakage of control cables occur most frequently? |
Where they pass over pulleys and through fairleads |
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|
Where does breakage of control cables occur most frequently? |
Where they pass over pulleys and through fairleads |
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|
Which flight control surfaces are considered the primary group? |
Elevators, ailerons, and rudder |
|
|
Where does breakage of control cables occur most frequently? |
Where they pass over pulleys and through fairleads |
|
|
Which flight control surfaces are considered the primary group? |
Elevators, ailerons, and rudder |
|
|
Which flight controls are included in the auxiliary group? |
Wing flaps, speed brakes, spoilers, slats, leading edge flaps, and slots |
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Which flight controls are considered the secondary group? |
Trim tabs and spring tabs |
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|
How do wing flaps affect landing speed and approach angle of an aircraft? |
Increases the camber of the wing. The lift of the wing makes it possible for the speed of aircraft to be decreased without stalling. Permits a steeper glider angle to be obtained for landing approach. |
|
|
What is a balance tab? |
It's an auxiliary control with fixed linkage that moves in the opposite direction than the control surface. Assists pilot in moving the controls |
|
|
What is a balance tab? |
It's an auxiliary control with fixed linkage that moves in the opposite direction than the control surface. Assists pilot in moving the controls |
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|
What is a trim tab? |
An auxiliary control attached to trailing edge of control surface positioned by movement of the cockpit control to balance forces acting on the control surfaces. |
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|
What is the purpose of the collective pitch control in a helicopter? |
Use to change the lift( pitch ) or the main rotor blades. |
|
|
What unit on a helicopter is used to compensate for torque created by the main rotor? |
The tail rotor. |
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|
What unit on a helicopter is used to compensate for torque created by the main rotor? |
The tail rotor. |
|
|
What operates the helicopter's tail rotor? |
Tyne anti-torque pedals |
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|
What are the three axis of an aircraft, and which control surfaces cause the A/C to move about each axis? |
Longitudinal axis is controlled by the ailerons "roll" Lateral axis is controlled by the elevators "pitch" Vertical axis is controlled by the rudder "yaw" |
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|
What are the three axis of an aircraft, and which control surfaces cause the A/C to move about each axis? |
Longitudinal axis is controlled by the ailerons "roll" Lateral axis is controlled by the elevators "pitch" Vertical axis is controlled by the rudder "yaw" |
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|
When installing an aircraft bolt, what precaution would you take regarding the position of the bolt? |
Bolt head be position on top when installed vertically, and the bolt head should be forward when installed horizontally. |
|
|
What are the three axis of an aircraft, and which control surfaces cause the A/C to move about each axis? |
Longitudinal axis is controlled by the ailerons "roll" Lateral axis is controlled by the elevators "pitch" Vertical axis is controlled by the rudder "yaw" |
|
|
When installing an aircraft bolt, what precaution would you take regarding the position of the bolt? |
Bolt head be position on top when installed vertically, and the bolt head should be forward when installed horizontally. |
|
|
How is the propeller torque corrected during assembly and rigging in some single engine aircraft? |
The leading edge of the vertical fin offset to the longitudinal center line to counteract engine torque. |
|
|
What are the three axis of an aircraft, and which control surfaces cause the A/C to move about each axis? |
Longitudinal axis is controlled by the ailerons "roll" Lateral axis is controlled by the elevators "pitch" Vertical axis is controlled by the rudder "yaw" |
|
|
When installing an aircraft bolt, what precaution would you take regarding the position of the bolt? |
Bolt head be position on top when installed vertically, and the bolt head should be forward when installed horizontally. |
|
|
How is the propeller torque corrected during assembly and rigging in some single engine aircraft? |
The leading edge of the vertical fin offset to the longitudinal center line to counteract engine torque. |
|
|
What reference publications should be used to rig an aircraft, including the control system? |
Tcds, maintenance manual, aircraft specifications |
|
|
What are vortex generators? |
Small, low aspect ratio airfoils mounted on the upper surface of the wings. Their function is to dampen shock induced separation. |
|
|
What are vortex generators? |
Small, low aspect ratio airfoils mounted on the upper surface of the wings. Their function is to dampen shock induced separation. |
|
|
What factors are used to determine the proper cable tension? |
The size of the cable and the outside temperature |
|
|
What needs to be done to prepare an aircraft for an annual 100 hour inspection? |
Aircraft and engines should be cleaned thoroughly cleaned. Remove or open all necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairings, and cowling. |
|
|
What needs to be done to prepare an aircraft for an annual 100 hour inspection? |
Aircraft and engines should be cleaned thoroughly cleaned. Remove or open all necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairings, and cowling. |
|
|
What is the difference between an annual and a 100-hour inspection? |
They are identical in scope other than the difference in time. |
|
|
Who has the authority to sign off and return to service a 100 hr inspection? |
A certified A&P mechanic |
|
|
Who has the authority to sign off and return to service a 100 hr inspection? |
A certified A&P mechanic |
|
|
What are the operating conditions that make the 100 hour inspection mandatory ? |
Required for aircraft that are for hire and used for flight instruction. |
|
|
Who has the authority to sign off and return to service a 100 hr inspection? |
A certified A&P mechanic |
|
|
What are the operating conditions that make the 100 hour inspection mandatory ? |
Required for aircraft that are for hire and used for flight instruction. |
|
|
Where can you find a checklist for a 100 hour inspection? |
In FAR part 43 appendix D |
|
|
Where would you find the recommended statement for recording the approval or disapproval for return to service of an aircraft for a 100 hour inspection? |
In FAR part 43.11 |
|
|
Who can approve an aircraft for return to service after an annual inspection? |
An A&P mechanic with an inspection authorization. |
|
|
Who can approve an aircraft for return to service after a progressive inspection? |
A certified mechanic holding a IA, the aircraft manufacturer, or a certified repair station. |
|
|
Who can approve an aircraft for return to service after a progressive inspection? |
A certified mechanic holding a IA, the aircraft manufacturer, or a certified repair station. |
|
|
Does an aircraft being operated under a progressive inspection program require a 100hr inspection if it is used to give flight instruction for hire ? |
No |
|
|
Who can approve an aircraft for return to service after a progressive inspection? |
A certified mechanic holding a IA, the aircraft manufacturer, or a certified repair station. |
|
|
Does an aircraft being operated under a progressive inspection program require a 100hr inspection if it is used to give flight instruction for hire ? |
No |
|
|
What is the maximum time that a 100hr inspection may be extended? |
No more than 10 hrs . The 10 hrs may be used to ferry the aircraft to the next inspection site . |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What is used to inflate an oleo-type landing gear shock strut? |
Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen. |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What is used to inflate an oleo-type landing gear shock strut? |
Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen. |
|
|
Where would you look to find proper tire inflation information? |
In the operation manual and the aircraft maintenance manual in special tire inflation pressure charts based on gross weight. |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What is used to inflate an oleo-type landing gear shock strut? |
Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen. |
|
|
Where would you look to find proper tire inflation information? |
In the operation manual and the aircraft maintenance manual in special tire inflation pressure charts based on gross weight. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a hydraulic shimmy damper? |
It is a unit designed to prevent nose wheel vibration or shimmy during taxiing, landing, or taking off. |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What is used to inflate an oleo-type landing gear shock strut? |
Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen. |
|
|
Where would you look to find proper tire inflation information? |
In the operation manual and the aircraft maintenance manual in special tire inflation pressure charts based on gross weight. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a hydraulic shimmy damper? |
It is a unit designed to prevent nose wheel vibration or shimmy during taxiing, landing, or taking off. |
|
|
What type care should be given to landing gear shock struts? |
They should be inspected regularly for leakage of fluid and proper extension. Exposed portion of the strut of the piston should be wiped clean daily and inspected for scoring or corrosion. |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What is used to inflate an oleo-type landing gear shock strut? |
Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen. |
|
|
Where would you look to find proper tire inflation information? |
In the operation manual and the aircraft maintenance manual in special tire inflation pressure charts based on gross weight. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a hydraulic shimmy damper? |
It is a unit designed to prevent nose wheel vibration or shimmy during taxiing, landing, or taking off. |
|
|
What type care should be given to landing gear shock struts? |
They should be inspected regularly for leakage of fluid and proper extension. Exposed portion of the strut of the piston should be wiped clean daily and inspected for scoring or corrosion. |
|
|
What is the effect of under-inflated tires? |
More likely to creep or slip on the wheel when landing or when brakes are applied. Under-inflation can cause rapid or uneven wear at or near the edges of the tread. |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What is used to inflate an oleo-type landing gear shock strut? |
Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen. |
|
|
Where would you look to find proper tire inflation information? |
In the operation manual and the aircraft maintenance manual in special tire inflation pressure charts based on gross weight. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a hydraulic shimmy damper? |
It is a unit designed to prevent nose wheel vibration or shimmy during taxiing, landing, or taking off. |
|
|
What type care should be given to landing gear shock struts? |
They should be inspected regularly for leakage of fluid and proper extension. Exposed portion of the strut of the piston should be wiped clean daily and inspected for scoring or corrosion. |
|
|
What is the effect of under-inflated tires? |
More likely to creep or slip on the wheel when landing or when brakes are applied. Under-inflation can cause rapid or uneven wear at or near the edges of the tread. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the rubber peaking mounted on the mating surface of the outer wheel half of s split-type wheel? |
To prevent air leakage from the tubeless tire used in this wheel |
|
|
What are two sources of power to extend or retract landing gear? |
They are electrical and hydraulic |
|
|
What is used to inflate an oleo-type landing gear shock strut? |
Inflate the strut with a high-pressure source of dry air or nitrogen. |
|
|
Where would you look to find proper tire inflation information? |
In the operation manual and the aircraft maintenance manual in special tire inflation pressure charts based on gross weight. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a hydraulic shimmy damper? |
It is a unit designed to prevent nose wheel vibration or shimmy during taxiing, landing, or taking off. |
|
|
What type care should be given to landing gear shock struts? |
They should be inspected regularly for leakage of fluid and proper extension. Exposed portion of the strut of the piston should be wiped clean daily and inspected for scoring or corrosion. |
|
|
What is the effect of under-inflated tires? |
More likely to creep or slip on the wheel when landing or when brakes are applied. Under-inflation can cause rapid or uneven wear at or near the edges of the tread. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the rubber peaking mounted on the mating surface of the outer wheel half of s split-type wheel? |
To prevent air leakage from the tubeless tire used in this wheel |
|
|
What are three types of aircraft brakes? |
Independent, power boost, and power control. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is used to prevent the nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position? |
Center devices, such as an internal centering can or an external track, that straighten the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is used to prevent the nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position? |
Center devices, such as an internal centering can or an external track, that straighten the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well. |
|
|
What is the purpose of fusible plugs in some aircraft wheels? |
Designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire from blowing out or breaking the wheel. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is used to prevent the nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position? |
Center devices, such as an internal centering can or an external track, that straighten the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well. |
|
|
What is the purpose of fusible plugs in some aircraft wheels? |
Designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire from blowing out or breaking the wheel. |
|
|
What are two methods of bleeding brakes? |
The gravity or pressure method |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is used to prevent the nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position? |
Center devices, such as an internal centering can or an external track, that straighten the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well. |
|
|
What is the purpose of fusible plugs in some aircraft wheels? |
Designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire from blowing out or breaking the wheel. |
|
|
What are two methods of bleeding brakes? |
The gravity or pressure method |
|
|
When inspecting brakes, what do you look for? |
1. Check for leaks while system is pressurized. 2. Check flex hoses for swelling, cracking, or soft spots. 3. Check brake pedals for spongy actuation ( indication of air in the system) |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is used to prevent the nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position? |
Center devices, such as an internal centering can or an external track, that straighten the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well. |
|
|
What is the purpose of fusible plugs in some aircraft wheels? |
Designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire from blowing out or breaking the wheel. |
|
|
What are two methods of bleeding brakes? |
The gravity or pressure method |
|
|
When inspecting brakes, what do you look for? |
1. Check for leaks while system is pressurized. 2. Check flex hoses for swelling, cracking, or soft spots. 3. Check brake pedals for spongy actuation ( indication of air in the system) |
|
|
What do you watch for when disassembling an oleo strut? |
Pressure discharge |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is used to prevent the nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position? |
Center devices, such as an internal centering can or an external track, that straighten the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well. |
|
|
What is the purpose of fusible plugs in some aircraft wheels? |
Designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire from blowing out or breaking the wheel. |
|
|
What are two methods of bleeding brakes? |
The gravity or pressure method |
|
|
When inspecting brakes, what do you look for? |
1. Check for leaks while system is pressurized. 2. Check flex hoses for swelling, cracking, or soft spots. 3. Check brake pedals for spongy actuation ( indication of air in the system) |
|
|
What do you watch for when disassembling an oleo strut? |
Pressure discharge |
|
|
What are the three types of hydraulic fluid currently being used in civil aircraft? |
Vegetable base, mineral base, and phosphate ester base fluids |
|
|
What is the purpose of a shuttle valve in a power control system? |
To isolate the emergency brake system from the normal brake system. |
|
|
What component in the landing gear system keeps the landing gear in alignment? |
The landing gear torque links . |
|
|
What is used to prevent the nose gear from being retracted with the wheel out of the center position? |
Center devices, such as an internal centering can or an external track, that straighten the nose wheel before it enters the wheel well. |
|
|
What is the purpose of fusible plugs in some aircraft wheels? |
Designed to melt at specific elevated temperatures and relieve air pressure to prevent the tire from blowing out or breaking the wheel. |
|
|
What are two methods of bleeding brakes? |
The gravity or pressure method |
|
|
When inspecting brakes, what do you look for? |
1. Check for leaks while system is pressurized. 2. Check flex hoses for swelling, cracking, or soft spots. 3. Check brake pedals for spongy actuation ( indication of air in the system) |
|
|
What do you watch for when disassembling an oleo strut? |
Pressure discharge |
|
|
What are the three types of hydraulic fluid currently being used in civil aircraft? |
Vegetable base, mineral base, and phosphate ester base fluids |
|
|
What is the color of mineral base hydraulic fluid? |
Red |
|
|
How do you determine which type of hydraulic fluid to use in a specific system? |
In aircraft maintenance manual or on the instruction plate attached to the reservoir or unit being serviced. |
|
|
How do you determine which type of hydraulic fluid to use in a specific system? |
In aircraft maintenance manual or on the instruction plate attached to the reservoir or unit being serviced. |
|
|
What will happen to seals in a vegetable base hydraulic system if it is serviced with mineral base or phosphate water base? |
The seals will swell brake down and block the system. |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
What methods are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? |
Some use air pressure from the cabin pressurization system, or from the engine compressor in the turbine powered aircraft. Another method is an aspiration or venture-tee |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
What methods are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? |
Some use air pressure from the cabin pressurization system, or from the engine compressor in the turbine powered aircraft. Another method is an aspiration or venture-tee |
|
|
Name three types of hydraulic accumulators. |
Diaphragm, bladder, and piston type. |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
What methods are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? |
Some use air pressure from the cabin pressurization system, or from the engine compressor in the turbine powered aircraft. Another method is an aspiration or venture-tee |
|
|
Name three types of hydraulic accumulators. |
Diaphragm, bladder, and piston type. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve in a hydraulic system? |
To limit the amount of pressure in the system. It is in effect a system safety valve |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
What methods are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? |
Some use air pressure from the cabin pressurization system, or from the engine compressor in the turbine powered aircraft. Another method is an aspiration or venture-tee |
|
|
Name three types of hydraulic accumulators. |
Diaphragm, bladder, and piston type. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve in a hydraulic system? |
To limit the amount of pressure in the system. It is in effect a system safety valve |
|
|
What is the purpose of an unloading valve in a closed hydraulic system? |
Unloading valve is designed to provide a low pressure path for the fluid to flow from the pump back the reservoir when system has no flow requirements . Also acts as a pressure regulator |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
What methods are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? |
Some use air pressure from the cabin pressurization system, or from the engine compressor in the turbine powered aircraft. Another method is an aspiration or venture-tee |
|
|
Name three types of hydraulic accumulators. |
Diaphragm, bladder, and piston type. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve in a hydraulic system? |
To limit the amount of pressure in the system. It is in effect a system safety valve |
|
|
What is the purpose of an unloading valve in a closed hydraulic system? |
Unloading valve is designed to provide a low pressure path for the fluid to flow from the pump back the reservoir when system has no flow requirements . Also acts as a pressure regulator |
|
|
What is the function of a wing flap overload valve? |
To prevent possible structural damage to the flaps or flap system that might result from the flaps being lowered at excessive speeds. |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
What methods are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? |
Some use air pressure from the cabin pressurization system, or from the engine compressor in the turbine powered aircraft. Another method is an aspiration or venture-tee |
|
|
Name three types of hydraulic accumulators. |
Diaphragm, bladder, and piston type. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve in a hydraulic system? |
To limit the amount of pressure in the system. It is in effect a system safety valve |
|
|
What is the purpose of an unloading valve in a closed hydraulic system? |
Unloading valve is designed to provide a low pressure path for the fluid to flow from the pump back the reservoir when system has no flow requirements . Also acts as a pressure regulator |
|
|
What is the function of a wing flap overload valve? |
To prevent possible structural damage to the flaps or flap system that might result from the flaps being lowered at excessive speeds. |
|
|
What protects a direct-pressure type hydraulic pressure gauge Folsom pressure surges? |
A dampening device in the form of a very small restrictor is installed in the line leading to the gauge or at the inlet to the gauge itself. |
|
|
When the hydraulic lines have been disconnected, what precautions should be taken to prevent contamination of the system ? |
Should be capped or plugged immediately after disconnecting |
|
|
What happens to the hydraulic fluid flow of the filter element becomes clogged with foreign matter? |
Gets routed to the bypass valve which routed the inlet to the outlet port |
|
|
Why are some hydraulic reservoirs pressurized? |
To ensure a positive flow of fluid to the engine-driven pump at high altitudes |
|
|
What methods are used to pressurize the hydraulic reservoirs? |
Some use air pressure from the cabin pressurization system, or from the engine compressor in the turbine powered aircraft. Another method is an aspiration or venture-tee |
|
|
Name three types of hydraulic accumulators. |
Diaphragm, bladder, and piston type. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a pressure relief valve in a hydraulic system? |
To limit the amount of pressure in the system. It is in effect a system safety valve |
|
|
What is the purpose of an unloading valve in a closed hydraulic system? |
Unloading valve is designed to provide a low pressure path for the fluid to flow from the pump back the reservoir when system has no flow requirements . Also acts as a pressure regulator |
|
|
What is the function of a wing flap overload valve? |
To prevent possible structural damage to the flaps or flap system that might result from the flaps being lowered at excessive speeds. |
|
|
What protects a direct-pressure type hydraulic pressure gauge Folsom pressure surges? |
A dampening device in the form of a very small restrictor is installed in the line leading to the gauge or at the inlet to the gauge itself. |
|
|
What are pneumatic systems used for in aircraft ? |
Used to operate brakes, opening and closing doors, starting, pump driving, or operating emergency devices. |
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|
What happens to the air when a unit in a pneumatic system is operated? |
The air is exhausted or dumped overboard. |
|
|
Why should a pneumatic system be purged periodically? |
To remove contamination, moisture, or oil from the components and lines. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the relief valve in a pneumatic system? |
Relief valve protects system against over-pressurization (thermal expansion) by bleeding excess pressure to the atmosphere. |
|
|
What is the principal control element in a cabin pressurization system? |
The cabin outflow valve |
|
|
What is the principal control element in a cabin pressurization system? |
The cabin outflow valve |
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|
What is the purpose of the negative pressure relief valve ins pressurization system? |
Prevents cabin pressure from obtaining higher pressure than the aircraft altitude |
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|
What is the principal control element in a cabin pressurization system? |
The cabin outflow valve |
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|
What is the purpose of the negative pressure relief valve ins pressurization system? |
Prevents cabin pressure from obtaining higher pressure than the aircraft altitude |
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|
What control changed te position of the outflow valve ? |
The pressurization controller is the source of control signals for the pressurization system |
|
|
What are two groups of independent compressors and centrifugal compressors? |
They are positive displacement compressors and centrifugal compressors |
|
|
What are two groups of independent compressors and centrifugal compressors? |
They are positive displacement compressors and centrifugal compressors |
|
|
What method is used by turbine powered aircraft for pressurization ? |
Bleed air from engine compressor |
|
|
What are two groups of independent compressors and centrifugal compressors? |
They are positive displacement compressors and centrifugal compressors |
|
|
What method is used by turbine powered aircraft for pressurization ? |
Bleed air from engine compressor |
|
|
What limits the degree of cabin pressurization? |
The structural design features of the fuselage and by the cspacity of the superchargers to maintain a constant volume of airflow to the fuselage. |
|
|
What are three methods of supplying heat to the conditioned air when the heat of compression is not sufficient for this purpose? |
Gasoline combustion heaters, electric heaters, and exhaust gas air to air heat exchangers |
|
|
What are three methods of supplying heat to the conditioned air when the heat of compression is not sufficient for this purpose? |
Gasoline combustion heaters, electric heaters, and exhaust gas air to air heat exchangers |
|
|
What is the function of ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
Ventilating air is used to carry the heat to the places where it is needed |
|
|
What are three methods of supplying heat to the conditioned air when the heat of compression is not sufficient for this purpose? |
Gasoline combustion heaters, electric heaters, and exhaust gas air to air heat exchangers |
|
|
What is the function of ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
Ventilating air is used to carry the heat to the places where it is needed |
|
|
What are the sources for ventilating air ? |
A blower for air circulation and heater operation on the ground, and ram air inlet or the cabin compressors in pressurized aircraft |
|
|
What are three methods of supplying heat to the conditioned air when the heat of compression is not sufficient for this purpose? |
Gasoline combustion heaters, electric heaters, and exhaust gas air to air heat exchangers |
|
|
What is the function of ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
Ventilating air is used to carry the heat to the places where it is needed |
|
|
What are the sources for ventilating air ? |
A blower for air circulation and heater operation on the ground, and ram air inlet or the cabin compressors in pressurized aircraft |
|
|
What are the components of an air cycle cooling system? |
An expansion turbine ( cooling system) , air to air heat exchanger, and various valves which control airflow through the system |
|
|
What are three methods of supplying heat to the conditioned air when the heat of compression is not sufficient for this purpose? |
Gasoline combustion heaters, electric heaters, and exhaust gas air to air heat exchangers |
|
|
What is the function of ventilating air in a combustion heater? |
Ventilating air is used to carry the heat to the places where it is needed |
|
|
What are the sources for ventilating air ? |
A blower for air circulation and heater operation on the ground, and ram air inlet or the cabin compressors in pressurized aircraft |
|
|
What are the components of an air cycle cooling system? |
An expansion turbine ( cooling system) , air to air heat exchanger, and various valves which control airflow through the system |
|
|
What causes a temperature drop in an air cycle cooling system? |
When it passes through the expansion turbine |
|
|
What are the components in a vapor cycle (freon) cooling system? |
Compressor, condenser, receiver/dryer, expansion valve, and the evaporator |
|
|
How do you determine the liquid level in a vapor cycle cooling system? |
Operate system to reach stable conditions observe the flow of freon through the sight glass . Steady flow indicates sufficient . If freon is low bubbles will appear in the sight glass |
|
|
How do you determine the liquid level in a vapor cycle cooling system? |
Operate system to reach stable conditions observe the flow of freon through the sight glass . Steady flow indicates sufficient . If freon is low bubbles will appear in the sight glass |
|
|
What is a continuous flow oxygen system ? |
Oxygen flows continuously |
|
|
What must be done if an oxygen system has been depleted and not recharged within 2 hours? |
System must be purged with dry nitrogen or dry air and oxygen |
|
|
How are high and low pressure oxygen cylinders identified ?? |
High pressure are at 1800-1850 psi and are painted green and low pressure 400-425 and cylinders are light yellow |
|
|
What three flight instruments are normally operated from the pitot-static system? |
Airspeed indicator, connected to the pitot and static pressure sources. The altimeter and the vertical speed indicator, which are connected to the static pressure source only. |
|
|
What instrument indications will result of the pitot static pressure line becomes disconnected inside the cabin of a pressurized aircraft? |
Altimeter and airspeed indicators will both be lower than normal. Vertical speed indicator will indicate momentary decent and then return to zero. |
|
|
What is required after replacement of components connected to the pitot static system? |
A leak test is required |
|
|
What are the sources of power to gyroscopic instrument operation? |
Gyroscopic instruments can be operated either by vacuum, electricity, or by air pressure. |
|
|
What causes an electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned? |
Gyroscopic precession |
|
|
What three flight instruments are normally operated from the pitot-static system? |
Airspeed indicator, connected to the pitot and static pressure sources. The altimeter and the vertical speed indicator, which are connected to the static pressure source only. |
|
|
What instrument indications will result of the pitot static pressure line becomes disconnected inside the cabin of a pressurized aircraft? |
Altimeter and airspeed indicators will both be lower than normal. Vertical speed indicator will indicate momentary decent and then return to zero. |
|
|
What is required after replacement of components connected to the pitot static system? |
A leak test is required |
|
|
What are the sources of power to gyroscopic instrument operation? |
Gyroscopic instruments can be operated either by vacuum, electricity, or by air pressure. |
|
|
What causes an electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned? |
Gyroscopic precession |
|
|
What is used as a guide for range markings of aircraft instruments? |
Aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheet, maintenance manual, or flight manual. |
|
|
What three flight instruments are normally operated from the pitot-static system? |
Airspeed indicator, connected to the pitot and static pressure sources. The altimeter and the vertical speed indicator, which are connected to the static pressure source only. |
|
|
What instrument indications will result of the pitot static pressure line becomes disconnected inside the cabin of a pressurized aircraft? |
Altimeter and airspeed indicators will both be lower than normal. Vertical speed indicator will indicate momentary decent and then return to zero. |
|
|
What is required after replacement of components connected to the pitot static system? |
A leak test is required |
|
|
What are the sources of power to gyroscopic instrument operation? |
Gyroscopic instruments can be operated either by vacuum, electricity, or by air pressure. |
|
|
What causes an electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned? |
Gyroscopic precession |
|
|
What is used as a guide for range markings of aircraft instruments? |
Aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheet, maintenance manual, or flight manual. |
|
|
Where are instrument range markings placed? |
To the outer edge of the cover glass or over calibrations on the dial face of the instrument. |
|
|
What three flight instruments are normally operated from the pitot-static system? |
Airspeed indicator, connected to the pitot and static pressure sources. The altimeter and the vertical speed indicator, which are connected to the static pressure source only. |
|
|
What instrument indications will result of the pitot static pressure line becomes disconnected inside the cabin of a pressurized aircraft? |
Altimeter and airspeed indicators will both be lower than normal. Vertical speed indicator will indicate momentary decent and then return to zero. |
|
|
What is required after replacement of components connected to the pitot static system? |
A leak test is required |
|
|
What are the sources of power to gyroscopic instrument operation? |
Gyroscopic instruments can be operated either by vacuum, electricity, or by air pressure. |
|
|
What causes an electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned? |
Gyroscopic precession |
|
|
What is used as a guide for range markings of aircraft instruments? |
Aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheet, maintenance manual, or flight manual. |
|
|
Where are instrument range markings placed? |
To the outer edge of the cover glass or over calibrations on the dial face of the instrument. |
|
|
What other type mark is required when range markings are applied to the glass instrument cover? |
An index mark, which is a white line that extends from the glass cover onto the instrument case to indicate slippage of the glass. Glass slippage would cause range markings to be in error. |
|
|
What three flight instruments are normally operated from the pitot-static system? |
Airspeed indicator, connected to the pitot and static pressure sources. The altimeter and the vertical speed indicator, which are connected to the static pressure source only. |
|
|
What instrument indications will result of the pitot static pressure line becomes disconnected inside the cabin of a pressurized aircraft? |
Altimeter and airspeed indicators will both be lower than normal. Vertical speed indicator will indicate momentary decent and then return to zero. |
|
|
What is required after replacement of components connected to the pitot static system? |
A leak test is required |
|
|
What are the sources of power to gyroscopic instrument operation? |
Gyroscopic instruments can be operated either by vacuum, electricity, or by air pressure. |
|
|
What causes an electric-driven gyro rotor to tilt when the aircraft is turned? |
Gyroscopic precession |
|
|
What is used as a guide for range markings of aircraft instruments? |
Aircraft specifications, type certificate data sheet, maintenance manual, or flight manual. |
|
|
Where are instrument range markings placed? |
To the outer edge of the cover glass or over calibrations on the dial face of the instrument. |
|
|
What other type mark is required when range markings are applied to the glass instrument cover? |
An index mark, which is a white line that extends from the glass cover onto the instrument case to indicate slippage of the glass. Glass slippage would cause range markings to be in error. |
|
|
What is a synchro-type remote indicating system ? |
Is an electrical system used for transmitting information from one point to another. The three most common synchro systems are autosyn , selsyn, and the magnesyn. These systems are used to show movement and position of landing gear, flaps, oil cooler doors, or other moveable parts of aircraft. |
|
|
What type of fuel quantity system is an electric fuel measuring device that accurately determines the weight of the fuel in the ranks of an aircraft? |
Capacitor type fuel quantity system. |
|
|
What type of fuel quantity system is an electric fuel measuring device that accurately determines the weight of the fuel in the ranks of an aircraft? |
Capacitor type fuel quantity system. |
|
|
What is meant by swinging a compass? |
It's the adjustment of the north-south and east-west magnets in order to reduce deviation, which is magnetic influences of the aircraft structure and electrical systems. |
|
|
When inspecting a magnetic compass, the bowl should be filled with liquid and should not contain any bubbles or discoloration. What is the purpose of the liquid in the bowl? |
It is to dampen the oscillation of the float. |
|
|
Which instrument is used to indicate the speed of the crankshaft of a reciprocating engine and the speed of the main rotor assembly in a turbine engine? |
A tachometer |
|
|
What type of indicating system is used to indicate turbine engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT)? |
A thermocouple system |
|
|
What type of indicating system is used to indicate turbine engine exhaust gas temperature (EGT)? |
A thermocouple system |
|
|
What does the manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating? |
Indicates atmospheric pressure |
|
|
What is used to check a manifold pressure gauge for correct indication when the engine is not operating? |
A barometer or an altimeter after it has been set to zero. |
|
|
What is the meaning of the yellow range markings on the air speed indicator? |
The yellow arc designates the cautionary range |
|
|
What is the meaning of the yellow range markings on the air speed indicator? |
The yellow arc designates the cautionary range |
|
|
What does a Mach meter indicate? |
The ratio of the aircraft speed to the speed of sound at the particular altitude and temperature existing at any time during flight. |
|
|
Name the basic components of a communication system. |
Microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver, and headset or loud speaker. |
|
|
Name the basic components of a communication system. |
Microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver, and headset or loud speaker. |
|
|
What is the most common communication system in use today? |
VHF(very high frequency) system. |
|
|
Name the basic components of a communication system. |
Microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver, and headset or loud speaker. |
|
|
What is the most common communication system in use today? |
VHF(very high frequency) system. |
|
|
Which radio system is used for long range communication? |
The HG (high frequency) system. |
|
|
Name the basic components of a communication system. |
Microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver, and headset or loud speaker. |
|
|
What is the most common communication system in use today? |
VHF(very high frequency) system. |
|
|
Which radio system is used for long range communication? |
The HG (high frequency) system. |
|
|
What is a transceiver? |
It is a self contained transmitter and receiver that share the same power supply, antenna, and the tuning. |
|
|
Name the basic components of a communication system. |
Microphone, transmitter, transmitting antenna, receiving antenna, receiver, and headset or loud speaker. |
|
|
What is the most common communication system in use today? |
VHF(very high frequency) system. |
|
|
Which radio system is used for long range communication? |
The HG (high frequency) system. |
|
|
What is a transceiver? |
It is a self contained transmitter and receiver that share the same power supply, antenna, and the tuning. |
|
|
What are the components of a typical VOR system? |
Receiver, a visual indicator, antennas, and power supply. |
|
|
What are the basic components of an autopilot system? |
Gyros, servos, and the amplifier |
|
|
What are the basic components of an autopilot system? |
Gyros, servos, and the amplifier |
|
|
What are the sensing elements of an autopilot system? |
Directional gyro, turn and bank gyro, attitude gyro, and the altitude control are the sensing elements. These units sense movement of aircraft and automatically generate signals to keep these movements under control |
|
|
What are the output elements of an autopilot system? |
The output elements of an autopilot system are the servos which actuate the control surfaces. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a bonding jumper on a radio shock mount? |
To provide a low impedance ground return and minimize radio interference from static electricity. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a bonding jumper on a radio shock mount? |
To provide a low impedance ground return and minimize radio interference from static electricity. |
|
|
What is the frequency of an emergency locator transmitter(ELT)? |
121.5 MHz |
|
|
What is the purpose of a bonding jumper on a radio shock mount? |
To provide a low impedance ground return and minimize radio interference from static electricity. |
|
|
What is the frequency of an emergency locator transmitter(ELT)? |
121.5 MHz |
|
|
How can you determine when the batteries of an ELT should be replaced, even though the set operated? |
The useful life of the batteries is determined by the battery manufacturer, and the battery replacement date must be marked on the outside of the transmitter. Time is computed from the date of manufacture of the battery. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a bonding jumper on a radio shock mount? |
To provide a low impedance ground return and minimize radio interference from static electricity. |
|
|
What is the frequency of an emergency locator transmitter(ELT)? |
121.5 MHz |
|
|
How can you determine when the batteries of an ELT should be replaced, even though the set operated? |
The useful life of the batteries is determined by the battery manufacturer, and the battery replacement date must be marked on the outside of the transmitter. Time is computed from the date of manufacture of the battery. |
|
|
Describe the proper method of routing coaxial cable from the antenna to the receiver. |
When installing a coaxial cable secure the cables firmly along their entire length at intervals of approximately two feet. To assure optimum operation coaxial cables should not be routed or tied to other wire bundles. When bending coaxial cable, be sure that the bend is at least 10 times the size of the cable diameter. |
|
|
Where is the preferred location for mounting a VOR antenna on a small aircraft? |
The VOR antenna is vee-shaped, and the preferred location is on the top of the fwd part of the cabin with the apex of the vee towards the front. An acceptable alternate location is on top of the vertical stabilizer. |
|
|
Where is the preferred location for mounting a VOR antenna on a small aircraft? |
The VOR antenna is vee-shaped, and the preferred location is on the top of the fwd part of the cabin with the apex of the vee towards the front. An acceptable alternate location is on top of the vertical stabilizer. |
|
|
Where should DME antennas be located? |
They should be mounted on the lower surface of the aircraft in a position that will not be blanketed by the wings when the aircraft is banked. |
|
|
What are market beacons? |
Part of the ILS system and are used to indicate the aircraft position on the approach to the runway. |
|
|
What are market beacons? |
Part of the ILS system and are used to indicate the aircraft position on the approach to the runway. |
|
|
What is the indication of the middle market beacon? |
It is an amber light and an audible tone |
|
|
What are market beacons? |
Part of the ILS system and are used to indicate the aircraft position on the approach to the runway. |
|
|
What is the indication of the middle market beacon? |
It is an amber light and an audible tone |
|
|
What is an ADF? |
An automatic direction finder |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel dump system? |
An emergency system provided so that the flight crew can quickly bring the weight of the aircraft down to the maximum landing weight if an emergency occurs during or shortly after takeoff |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel dump system? |
An emergency system provided so that the flight crew can quickly bring the weight of the aircraft down to the maximum landing weight if an emergency occurs during or shortly after takeoff |
|
|
Other than reducing weight what other function can be accomplished with a fuel jettisoning system ? |
Fuel can be dumped from the heavy wing in order to maintain lateral stability . Fuel dump system is required for all transport airplanes if the max takeoff weight is more than 105% of the max landing weight. Airplane must be free of fire hazards during dumping, and fuel must dump free and clear of airplane. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel dump system? |
An emergency system provided so that the flight crew can quickly bring the weight of the aircraft down to the maximum landing weight if an emergency occurs during or shortly after takeoff |
|
|
Other than reducing weight what other function can be accomplished with a fuel jettisoning system ? |
Fuel can be dumped from the heavy wing in order to maintain lateral stability . Fuel dump system is required for all transport airplanes if the max takeoff weight is more than 105% of the max landing weight. Airplane must be free of fire hazards during dumping, and fuel must dump free and clear of airplane. |
|
|
What are two types of fuel cells? |
Bladder type fuel cells and integral fuel cells also called wet wing tanks. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel dump system? |
An emergency system provided so that the flight crew can quickly bring the weight of the aircraft down to the maximum landing weight if an emergency occurs during or shortly after takeoff |
|
|
Other than reducing weight what other function can be accomplished with a fuel jettisoning system ? |
Fuel can be dumped from the heavy wing in order to maintain lateral stability . Fuel dump system is required for all transport airplanes if the max takeoff weight is more than 105% of the max landing weight. Airplane must be free of fire hazards during dumping, and fuel must dump free and clear of airplane. |
|
|
What are two types of fuel cells? |
Bladder type fuel cells and integral fuel cells also called wet wing tanks. |
|
|
How is the weight of a bladder type cell supported ? |
Depends on the structure of the cavity in which it sits to support the weight of the fuel within it. Made of rubber or nylon |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel dump system? |
An emergency system provided so that the flight crew can quickly bring the weight of the aircraft down to the maximum landing weight if an emergency occurs during or shortly after takeoff |
|
|
Other than reducing weight what other function can be accomplished with a fuel jettisoning system ? |
Fuel can be dumped from the heavy wing in order to maintain lateral stability . Fuel dump system is required for all transport airplanes if the max takeoff weight is more than 105% of the max landing weight. Airplane must be free of fire hazards during dumping, and fuel must dump free and clear of airplane. |
|
|
What are two types of fuel cells? |
Bladder type fuel cells and integral fuel cells also called wet wing tanks. |
|
|
How is the weight of a bladder type cell supported ? |
Depends on the structure of the cavity in which it sits to support the weight of the fuel within it. Made of rubber or nylon |
|
|
What is a "wet wing" construction? |
Is when the fuel cells are built Into the wings of the aircraft structure. They are an integral part of the aircraft structure and are not removable. |
|
|
What are the advantages of a single-point pressure fueling system? |
Pressure fueling, sometimes referred to as single point or underwing fueling, greatly reduces the time required to service the time required to service large aircraft. Eliminates aircraft skin damage from hoses and hose nozzles, and reduces the chance of fuel contamination |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel temperature indicator on a turbine engine? |
It is a means for checking the fuel temperature in the tanks and at the engine to determine there may be danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel temperature indicator on a turbine engine? |
It is a means for checking the fuel temperature in the tanks and at the engine to determine there may be danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel |
|
|
What is the purpose of warning lights in connection with fuel systems? |
Warning lights may be used to indicate when the fuel pressure is too low or to indicate when the fuel quantity in a tank is below a certain amount. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a fuel temperature indicator on a turbine engine? |
It is a means for checking the fuel temperature in the tanks and at the engine to determine there may be danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel |
|
|
What is the purpose of warning lights in connection with fuel systems? |
Warning lights may be used to indicate when the fuel pressure is too low or to indicate when the fuel quantity in a tank is below a certain amount. |
|
|
Where are electrical operated valve-in-transit indicator lights used? |
On large multiengine aircraft, each of the fuel cross feed and line valves may be provided with valve-in-transit indicator lights. The light is on only during the time the valve is in motion and is off when movement is complete. |
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What is the purpose of a fuel temperature indicator on a turbine engine? |
It is a means for checking the fuel temperature in the tanks and at the engine to determine there may be danger of ice crystals forming in the fuel |
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What is the purpose of warning lights in connection with fuel systems? |
Warning lights may be used to indicate when the fuel pressure is too low or to indicate when the fuel quantity in a tank is below a certain amount. |
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Where are electrical operated valve-in-transit indicator lights used? |
On large multiengine aircraft, each of the fuel cross feed and line valves may be provided with valve-in-transit indicator lights. The light is on only during the time the valve is in motion and is off when movement is complete. |
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What are four types of fuel quantity gauges? |
Sight glass, mechanical, electrical, and electronic. |
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Which type of fuel quantity gauge is considered to be the most accurate than the other types? |
The electronic capacitance type, because it measures by weight instead of gallons. |
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Which type of fuel quantity gauge is considered to be the most accurate than the other types? |
The electronic capacitance type, because it measures by weight instead of gallons. |
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What is a drip gauge ? |
An under-wing bayonet-type fuel gauge that consists of a hollow drip tube that is drawn out from the lower wing surface. Fuel enters the top of the tube when it reaches the level of fuel. |
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Which type of fuel quantity gauge is considered to be the most accurate than the other types? |
The electronic capacitance type, because it measures by weight instead of gallons. |
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What is a drip gauge ? |
An under-wing bayonet-type fuel gauge that consists of a hollow drip tube that is drawn out from the lower wing surface. Fuel enters the top of the tube when it reaches the level of fuel. |
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What is a crossfeed system? |
An interconnected fuel system designed so that fuel can be fed from various tanks to any engine. |
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Which type of fuel quantity gauge is considered to be the most accurate than the other types? |
The electronic capacitance type, because it measures by weight instead of gallons. |
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What is a drip gauge ? |
An under-wing bayonet-type fuel gauge that consists of a hollow drip tube that is drawn out from the lower wing surface. Fuel enters the top of the tube when it reaches the level of fuel. |
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What is a crossfeed system? |
An interconnected fuel system designed so that fuel can be fed from various tanks to any engine. |
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What is the purpose of the baffles in a fuel tank? |
To prevent the fuel from surging as a result of changes in the attitude of the aircraft. |
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How can a fuel tank be checked for leaks after repair? |
By a pressure check using air pressure not over one-half psi and liquid soap or bubble solution to identify the leak. |
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What is the purpose of a circuit breaker? |
Is to open the circuit when an overload exists |
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What tool is used to measure the size of unmarked electrical wire? |
A wire gauge can be used to measure wires ranging in size from zero to number 36. |
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What are the colors of aircraft position lights and where are the mounted? |
Green light right wing tip, red light left wing tip, and a white light is on the rear of the aircraft |
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What are the factors to be considered when selecting wire size for electrical power? |
One factor is the allowable power loss in the line, second factor is the permissible voltage drop in the line, and the third factor is the current carrying ability of the conductor. |
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When is a circuit breaker or fuse designed to open the circuit? |
Should open before the conductor emits smoke. The time current characteristics of the protective device must fall below that of the associated conductor. |
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What are the three most common faults that occur in an electrical circuit? |
They are open circuits, in which leads or wires are broken; shorted circuits, in which ground leads cause current to be returned by shortcuts to the source of power, and low power circuits causing lights to burn dimly and relays to chatter |
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What are the three most common faults that occur in an electrical circuit? |
They are open circuits, in which leads or wires are broken; shorted circuits, in which ground leads cause current to be returned by shortcuts to the source of power, and low power circuits causing lights to burn dimly and relays to chatter |
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What size electrical conduit should be used for a specific cable bundle? |
To allow for ease of maintenance and possible future circuit expansion, the conduit should have an inside diameter that is 25% larger than the max diameter of the conductor bundle . |
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What are the three most common faults that occur in an electrical circuit? |
They are open circuits, in which leads or wires are broken; shorted circuits, in which ground leads cause current to be returned by shortcuts to the source of power, and low power circuits causing lights to burn dimly and relays to chatter |
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What size electrical conduit should be used for a specific cable bundle? |
To allow for ease of maintenance and possible future circuit expansion, the conduit should have an inside diameter that is 25% larger than the max diameter of the conductor bundle . |
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When should electrical switches be derated from their normal current rating ? |
For high rush- in circuits such as circuits containing incandescent lamps, for inductive circuits that have magnetic energy stored in solenoid coils , or relays, and for DC motor circuits which draw several times in their rated current during starting |
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When do DC electronic motors draw several times their rated current? |
During starting |
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When do DC electronic motors draw several times their rated current? |
During starting |
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What would cause an AC electric motor to run too fast? |
An excessive supply voltage, defective wiring, or no lubrication. |
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When do DC electronic motors draw several times their rated current? |
During starting |
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What would cause an AC electric motor to run too fast? |
An excessive supply voltage, defective wiring, or no lubrication. |
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How is output voltage of an alternator controlled? |
By using a voltage regulator to control the exciter field current and thus regulate the exciter output voltage applied to the alternator field |
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When do DC electronic motors draw several times their rated current? |
During starting |
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What would cause an AC electric motor to run too fast? |
An excessive supply voltage, defective wiring, or no lubrication. |
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How is output voltage of an alternator controlled? |
By using a voltage regulator to control the exciter field current and thus regulate the exciter output voltage applied to the alternator field |
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What should be checked before any aircraft electrical load is increased ? |
The associated wires, cables, and circuit protective devices should be checked to determine that the new load will not exceed the rated limits of these units |
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When do DC electronic motors draw several times their rated current? |
During starting |
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What would cause an AC electric motor to run too fast? |
An excessive supply voltage, defective wiring, or no lubrication. |
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How is output voltage of an alternator controlled? |
By using a voltage regulator to control the exciter field current and thus regulate the exciter output voltage applied to the alternator field |
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What should be checked before any aircraft electrical load is increased ? |
The associated wires, cables, and circuit protective devices should be checked to determine that the new load will not exceed the rated limits of these units |
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What is the main advantage of using AC for aircraft electric power systems? |
Principal advantage is that the voltage of AC power systems is easily changed by the use of transformers. Therefore you can transmit power at a high voltage and a low current, thus reducing the size and weight of the wiring in the circuit |
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In AC power systems, how is DC obtained for battery charging? |
The alternating current is changed to direct current by the use of rectifiers . |
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How long should bonding jumper wires be made? |
As short as possible |
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Describe the operating principle of inflatable deice boots. |
Pneumatic deicing system use rubber inflatable boots attached to the leading edge of the wings and stabilizers. Tubes are inflated with pressurized air and deflated in an alternating cycle. This inflation and deflation causes the ice to break off and it is carried away by the air stream. |
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What are the two ways of inflating pneumatic deicer boots ? |
Pressurized air is provided by an engine driven air pump(vacuum pump) or by bleed air from a tubing engine compressor. |
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What methods are used to attach deicer boots to the leading edges of wing and tail surfaces? |
They are attached by bonding to the surface with cement, with Fairing strips and screws, or a combination of both methods. |
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What is the purpose of an air-oil separator in a pneumatic deicing system? |
The purpose of removing the oil from the air of the deicing system is to prevent deterioration of the rubber deicing boots caused by contact with oil. |
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What is the purpose of an air-oil separator in a pneumatic deicing system? |
The purpose of removing the oil from the air of the deicing system is to prevent deterioration of the rubber deicing boots caused by contact with oil. |
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What is used to clean deicer boots? |
A mild soap and water solution. |
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What is the purpose of an air-oil separator in a pneumatic deicing system? |
The purpose of removing the oil from the air of the deicing system is to prevent deterioration of the rubber deicing boots caused by contact with oil. |
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What is used to clean deicer boots? |
A mild soap and water solution. |
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What must be done before you can make a cold patch repair to a deice boot? |
The deicer boot must be relieved from its installed tension before applying the patch. |
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Well component of a pneumatic deicer system normally allows suction to be supplied to the boots to hold them down in flight? |
The solenoid distributor valve |
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Describe the operating principle of thermal anti-icing systems? |
Thermal anti-icing systems are used primarily for the purpose of preventing ice from forming on the leading edges. However, they are designed to also deice the leading edges by supplying much hotter than normal air for short periods on the cyclic system. The Airfoils that are to be protected are usually provided with closely spaced double skin. The hot air is passed through the space between skins, and the heat is sufficient to prevent formation of ice or to melt any ice next to the skin. The heated air is supplied continuously as long as the anti-icing system is turned on. |
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What methods are used to supply heated air for thermal anti-icing systems? |
Bleed air from the turbine engine compressor, engine exhaust heat exchangers and ram air heated by combustion heaters . |
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How is overheating prevented in a thermal anti-icing system using bleed air? |
A thermal switch will cause the shut off valve to close and stop the flow of bleed air when the temperature of the leading edge reaches approximately 185 degrees Fahrenheit. When the temperature drops, the valve opens, and hot bleed air enters the wing once again. |
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In a thermal anti-icing system, what happens to the air after it has heated the leading edge of the wing? |
The air is then exhausted to the atmosphere at the wingtip or at points where ice formation could be critical . |
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In a thermal anti-icing system, what happens to the air after it has heated the leading edge of the wing? |
The air is then exhausted to the atmosphere at the wingtip or at points where ice formation could be critical . |
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What problems are associated with electricity heated windshields? |
De lamination, arcing, scratches, and discoloration |
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What is windshield Delamination? |
De lamination is the separation of the plies |
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What does arcing usually indicate in an electrical heated windshield? |
Arcing usually indicates that there is a breakdown in the conductive coating. |
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What type of power is used to operate the windshield wiper systems? |
Electrical or hydraulic power |
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What are common problems with windshield wipers ? |
The tendency of the slipstream aerodynamic forces to reduce the wiper blade loading pressure on the windshield, causing ineffective wiping or streaking. Another problem is achieving fast enough wiper oscillation. |
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How does a pneumatic rain removal system work? |
This method uses uses high pressure, high temperature engine compressor bleed air which is blown across windshields. The air blast forms a barrier that prevents rain drops from striking the windshield surface |
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In what area of an aircraft would you find carbon monoxide detectors? |
CO detectors are commonly used to check for the presence of carbon monoxide gas in aircraft cabins and cockpits |
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What type of power is used to operate the windshield wiper systems? |
Electrical or hydraulic power |
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What are common problems with windshield wipers ? |
The tendency of the slipstream aerodynamic forces to reduce the wiper blade loading pressure on the windshield, causing ineffective wiping or streaking. Another problem is achieving fast enough wiper oscillation. |
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How does a pneumatic rain removal system work? |
This method uses uses high pressure, high temperature engine compressor bleed air which is blown across windshields. The air blast forms a barrier that prevents rain drops from striking the windshield surface |
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In what area of an aircraft would you find carbon monoxide detectors? |
CO detectors are commonly used to check for the presence of carbon monoxide gas in aircraft cabins and cockpits |
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What color does the CO detector change to when carbon monoxide fumes are present? |
A reliable CO detector is an indicator tube which contains yellow silica that is impregnated with selico-olybdate compound. When air, containing carbon monoxide, is drawn through the tube, the silica gel turns a shade of green. Other types change from a tan color to gray or black . |
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What are two types of smoke detectors? |
Photoelectric and visual |
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What are two types of smoke detectors? |
Photoelectric and visual |
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Where are smoke detectors used in the aircraft? |
In cargo and baggage compartments. |
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How are thermal switches wired in a thermal switch fire detection system? |
The switches are wired in parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights. |
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How are thermal switches wired in a thermal switch fire detection system? |
The switches are wired in parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights. |
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Describe the operating principle of a thermal switch fire detection system. |
The thermal switch system consists of one or more wires embedded in a special ceramic core within an inconel tube. In case of fire or an overheat condition, the core resistance drops, and current flows between the signal wire and ground, energizing the alarm system. |
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How are thermal switches wired in a thermal switch fire detection system? |
The switches are wired in parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights. |
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Describe the operating principle of a continuous loop fire detection system. |
The continuous loop detector consists of one or more wires embedded in a special ceramic core within an inconel tube. In case of fire or an overheat condition, the core resistance drops, and current flows between the signal wire and ground, energizing the alarm system. |
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How does a thermal fire detection system differ from the thermal switch system? |
A thermocouple depends upon the rate of temperature rise and will not give a warning when an engine overheats slowly or a short circuit develops. |
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What are two types of fire extinguishing systems? |
He high rate discharge (HRD) system, which is a highly effective system most currently used, and the conventional systems, which are those systems first used in aircraft and are still in use. |
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How are thermal switches wired in a thermal switch fire detection system? |
The switches are wired in parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights. |
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Describe the operating principle of a continuous loop fire detection system. |
The continuous loop detector consists of one or more wires embedded in a special ceramic core within an inconel tube. In case of fire or an overheat condition, the core resistance drops, and current flows between the signal wire and ground, energizing the alarm system. |
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How does a thermal fire detection system differ from the thermal switch system? |
A thermocouple depends upon the rate of temperature rise and will not give a warning when an engine overheats slowly or a short circuit develops. |
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What are two types of fire extinguishing systems? |
He high rate discharge (HRD) system, which is a highly effective system most currently used, and the conventional systems, which are those systems first used in aircraft and are still in use. |
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What type extinguishing agent is usually found in an HRD system? |
The extinguishing agent is usually one of the halogenated hydrocarbons (Halons) sometimes boosted by high pressure dry nitrogen. |
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What type extinguishing agent is usually associated with a conventional type extinguishing system? |
This system usually contains CO2 but may use any other adequate agent |
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What is the purpose of the yellow disk in a CO2 fire extinguisher system? |
It is the system discharge indicator disk, and it indicates which bank of bottles has been emptied. |
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What is the purpose of the yellow disk in a CO2 fire extinguisher system? |
It is the system discharge indicator disk, and it indicates which bank of bottles has been emptied. |
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In a turbine engine freon fire extinguishing system, how are bottles discharged? |
By an explosive discharge cartridge which is detonated electrically. |
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How is freon fire extinguishing system protected from temperature rises in excess of set limits? |
A high temperature valve will sense the overheat condition and rupture a safety disk |
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How can you determine the service life of a fire extinguisher discharge cartridge ? |
The service life of the cartridge is usually recommended in terms of hours below a predetermined temperature calculated from the manufacturer's date stamp, which usually place on the face of the cartridge. |
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What types of handheld fire extinguishers are available for extinguishing interior aircraft fires. |
The three most common hand fire extinguishers use water, carbon dioxide (CO2) and dry chemical extinguisher agents. |
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What types of handheld fire extinguishers are available for extinguishing interior aircraft fires. |
The three most common hand fire extinguishers use water, carbon dioxide (CO2) and dry chemical extinguisher agents. |
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What type of fire detection system gives a more complete coverage of a fire hazard? |
A continuous-loop detector system. |
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What are the major components of a typical gas turbine engine? |
Air inlet, compressor, combustion section, turbine section , exhaust section, accessory section |
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What are the major components of a typical gas turbine engine? |
Air inlet, compressor, combustion section, turbine section , exhaust section, accessory section |
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What are the two principle types of compressors used in turbojet aircraft? |
Centrifugal flow and axial flow compressors |
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What are the major components of a typical gas turbine engine? |
Air inlet, compressor, combustion section, turbine section , exhaust section, accessory section |
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What are the two principle types of compressors used in turbojet aircraft? |
Centrifugal flow and axial flow compressors |
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What are three types of combustion chamber systems? |
Can type, can-annular, and annular type. |
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What is the purpose of the interconnecting tubes between can-type combustion chambers? |
To spread the flame ( flame propagation) to the combustion chambers are not equipped with igniter plugs during engine start |
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What is the purpose of the interconnecting tubes between can-type combustion chambers? |
To spread the flame ( flame propagation) to the combustion chambers are not equipped with igniter plugs during engine start |
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What prevents burning of the liner walls in can-type combustion chambers? |
Louvers are provided along the axial length of the liners to direct a cooling layer of air along the inside of the wall liner. |
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What is the purpose of the interconnecting tubes between can-type combustion chambers? |
To spread the flame ( flame propagation) to the combustion chambers are not equipped with igniter plugs during engine start |
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What prevents burning of the liner walls in can-type combustion chambers? |
Louvers are provided along the axial length of the liners to direct a cooling layer of air along the inside of the wall liner. |
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What types of damage may be found when inspecting compressor blades? |
Dents, scratches, gouges, galling, burns, burrs, pitting, and cracks. |
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What is the location and function of the diffuser section in a turbine? |
The diffuser is the divergent section of the engine located between the compressor section and burner cans. It's function is to change the high velocity compressor discharge air to static pressure. |
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What is the location and function of the diffuser section in a turbine? |
The diffuser is the divergent section of the engine located between the compressor section and burner cans. It's function is to change the high velocity compressor discharge air to static pressure. |
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What are stress rupture cracks most likely to occur on turbine blades? |
They usually appear as small hairline cracks on or across the leading or trailing edge of the blades. The cracks appear at right angles to the edge length. |
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How are compressor blades attached to a disk-type rotor? |
The compressor blades are fitted into the disks by either bulb-type or fir tree type roots. The blades are then locked by means of screws, peening, locking wires, pins, or keys. |
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How are compressor blades attached to a disk-type rotor? |
The compressor blades are fitted into the disks by either bulb-type or fir tree type roots. The blades are then locked by means of screws, peening, locking wires, pins, or keys. |
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What is the purpose of the nozzle diaphragm or turbine nozzle? |
The turbine nozzle prepares the combustion mass airflow to drive the turbine rotor. They change a portion of the heat and pressure energy to velocity energy. The fixed vanes are shaped and set to such an angle that they form a number of small nozzles that discharge the gases at extremely high speeds. The second purpose is to deflect the gases so they strike the turbine at the most efficient angle for maximum tubing rotation. |
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How are compressor blades attached to a disk-type rotor? |
The compressor blades are fitted into the disks by either bulb-type or fir tree type roots. The blades are then locked by means of screws, peening, locking wires, pins, or keys. |
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What is the purpose of the nozzle diaphragm or turbine nozzle? |
The turbine nozzle prepares the combustion mass airflow to drive the turbine rotor. They change a portion of the heat and pressure energy to velocity energy. The fixed vanes are shaped and set to such an angle that they form a number of small nozzles that discharge the gases at extremely high speeds. The second purpose is to deflect the gases so they strike the turbine at the most efficient angle for maximum tubing rotation. |
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What is the major difference between a turboprop and turbojet engine? |
Turboprop engines usually have more turbine stages than a turbojet |
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What is a turbofan engine? |
Same as a turboprop except that instead of a propellor it uses a duct enclosed axial flow fan. |
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What is the effect of air density on the thrust of a turbine engine? |
Air density determines the mass of air that is used by a jet engine. The factors that affect density are the temperature and pressure of the air. If density increases, thrust increases, and vice versa. An increase in air temperature entering engine will cause a decrease in density and thrust. With a given power setting, engine thrust will vary if the temperature or pressure of the air entering the engine changes |
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What are two most common thrust reversers? |
Mechanical blockage and aerodynamic blockage type. |
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What is a split compressor system in a turbine engine? |
Requires two concentric shafts joining of the turbine stages to their respective compressors. |
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What is a split compressor system in a turbine engine? |
Requires two concentric shafts joining of the turbine stages to their respective compressors. |
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What is one method of relieving thermal stress on a turbine disk? |
One means is to bleed cooling air back onto the face of the disk . |
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What is a split compressor system in a turbine engine? |
Requires two concentric shafts joining of the turbine stages to their respective compressors. |
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What is one method of relieving thermal stress on a turbine disk? |
One means is to bleed cooling air back onto the face of the disk . |
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What may be indications of a turbojet engine is out of trim? |
The engine has high exhaust gas temperature (EGT) at target engine pressure ratio (EPR) for takeoff. |
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What is a free turbine? |
A turbine wheel that, rather than driving the compressor rotor, drives a propellor or helicopter transmission |
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What steps must be taken in order to prepare an aircraft for a 100 hr or annual inspection ? |
Remove or open the necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairing and cowling. Then thoroughly cleans the aircraft and the engine. |
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What steps must be taken in order to prepare an aircraft for a 100 hr or annual inspection ? |
Remove or open the necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairing and cowling. Then thoroughly cleans the aircraft and the engine. |
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What may be used as a guide for a 100 hr inspection on an aircraft engine? |
FAR part 43 appendix D |
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What steps must be taken in order to prepare an aircraft for a 100 hr or annual inspection ? |
Remove or open the necessary inspection plates, access doors, fairing and cowling. Then thoroughly cleans the aircraft and the engine. |
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What may be used as a guide for a 100 hr inspection on an aircraft engine? |
FAR part 43 appendix D |
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What additional inspection must be performed if the cylinder compression is weak? |
You must make an. Internal cylinder inspection for improper internal tolerance. |
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Where are engine orating limitations found? |
In the aircraft specification or type certificate data sheets |
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What can a mechanic look to identify on an aircraft engine? |
On the engine identification plate that is affixed to the engine at an accessible location. |
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What can a mechanic look to identify on an aircraft engine? |
On the engine identification plate that is affixed to the engine at an accessible location. |
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What publication is needed to inspect an engine for conformity with specifications? |
The engine specifications or engine type certificate data sheet |
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What type of FAA approval is required when a change to an engine type design is not enough to require a new type certificate? |
A supplemental type certificate is required |
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What type of FAA approval is required when a change is made to the engine principle operation? |
A new type certificate must be obtained |
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What are the units in an engine fuel flow system? |
The system consists of a transmitter and an indicator for each engine. |
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Where is the fuel flow transmitter located ? |
It is mounted in the fuel line between the engine driven pump and the carburetor. |
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What type of read out is indicated on a fuel flow system ? |
The indicator is calibrated to record the fuel flow in pounds of fuel per hour. |
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What is the reason for monitoring the fuel flow? |
In addition to fuel consumption the operator can determine from fuel flow indication whether the engine is operating at the correct fuel- air mixture for a given power setting |
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What does a manifold pressure gauge indicate? |
It measures absolute pressure in the intake manifold |
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What does a manifold pressure gauge indicate? |
It measures absolute pressure in the intake manifold |
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What would be the effect of a broken manifold pressure gauge line? |
A broken line will cause the gauge to indicate atmospheric pressure |
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What does a manifold pressure gauge indicate? |
It measures absolute pressure in the intake manifold |
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What would be the effect of a broken manifold pressure gauge line? |
A broken line will cause the gauge to indicate atmospheric pressure |
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What does the engine tachometer indicate? |
It indicates crankshaft speed (RPM) |
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What does a manifold pressure gauge indicate? |
It measures absolute pressure in the intake manifold |
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What would be the effect of a broken manifold pressure gauge line? |
A broken line will cause the gauge to indicate atmospheric pressure |
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What does the engine tachometer indicate? |
It indicates crankshaft speed (RPM) |
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What are turbine engine tachometer designed to indicate? |
They are designed to indicate percent of rotor rpm |
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What is a turbojet EPR? |
It is a ratio between total turbine discharge pressure to total inlet pressure and is a indication of thrust being developed by the engine |
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|
What is a turbojet EPR? |
It is a ratio between total turbine discharge pressure to total inlet pressure and is a indication of thrust being developed by the engine |
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What is the electric source for a cylinder head temperature gauge ? |
The gauge is connected to a thermocouple attached to the cylinder which tests show to be the hottest on the engine |
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|
Where is a carburetor air temperature bulb located? |
It is located in the air intake passage to the engine |
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|
How can a turbine engine EGT be checked without operating the engine? |
By checking resistance to thermocouples and circuits |
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|
How would you seat newly installed generator brushes to the commutator? |
When new brushes are installed in a generator the face of the brushes must be shaped to provide an area of maximum contact with the commutator. To seat the brushes, use fine grain sand paper placed around the commutator with the sanding surface facing outward. Turn the armature in the normal direction of rotation until the face of the brushes is properly contoured. Remove sand paper and blow out any residue with compressed air. |
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How would you seat newly installed generator brushes to the commutator? |
When new brushes are installed in a generator the face of the brushes must be shaped to provide an area of maximum contact with the commutator. To seat the brushes, use fine grain sand paper placed around the commutator with the sanding surface facing outward. Turn the armature in the normal direction of rotation until the face of the brushes is properly contoured. Remove sand paper and blow out any residue with compressed air. |
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Where is the generator rating and performance data located? |
It is stamped on the data plate attached to the generator |
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|
What units make up a DC generator three unit regulator? |
The voltage regulator, the current limiter, and the reverse current cut out. |
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|
What units make up a DC generator three unit regulator? |
The voltage regulator, the current limiter, and the reversed current cut out |
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|
What method is used to control the voltage in an aircraft alternator? |
The voltage regulator |
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|
What determines the frequency of the voltage in an alternator? |
The frequency depends upon the speed of rotation of the rotor and the number of poles. |
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|
What determines the frequency of the voltage in an alternator? |
The frequency depends upon the speed of rotation of the rotor and the number of poles. |
|
|
How was the alternator frequency maintained? |
By installing a constant speed drive unit between the engine and the alternator. |
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|
What are the three basic types of DC motors? |
Series motors, Shunt motors, and compound motors |
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Name the parts of a DC motor? |
The Armature, the field, the brushes, and the frame |
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Name the parts of a DC motor? |
The Armature, the field, the brushes, and the frame |
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What is a starter generator system, used on many turbine engines? |
The system uses a starter generator which operates as a starter motor to drive the engine during starting, and after the engine has reached a self-sustaining speed, it operates as a generator to supply the electrical system power |
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Name the parts of a DC motor? |
The Armature, the field, the brushes, and the frame |
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What is a starter generator system, used on many turbine engines? |
The system uses a starter generator which operates as a starter motor to drive the engine during starting, and after the engine has reached a self-sustaining speed, it operates as a generator to supply the electrical system power |
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What is the American wire gauge system of a designating electrical wire size? |
A gauge number is assigned to the wire according to its cross-sectional area. The smaller the gauge number, the larger the wire. |
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What is open wiring? |
Open wiring is any wire, wire group, or wire bundle not enclosed in conduit. |
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What method is used to control the voltage of the DC aircraft generator? |
The only practical means of regulating generator voltage is to control the strength of the medical field. Field strength is determined by the amount of current flowing through the field coils, and the current is controlled by placing some form of variable or intermittent resistance in the external field circuit of the generator. |
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What are the causes of excessive arcing at the generator brushes? |
Arcing can be caused by a commentator that is dirty, rough, or out of round. A more common cause of arcing is a worn or binding brushes or the brush spring tension to low |
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What method is used to control the voltage of the DC aircraft generator? |
The only practical means of regulating generator voltage is to control the strength of the medical field. Field strength is determined by the amount of current flowing through the field coils, and the current is controlled by placing some form of variable or intermittent resistance in the external field circuit of the generator. |
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What are the causes of excessive arcing at the generator brushes? |
Arcing can be caused by a commentator that is dirty, rough, or out of round. A more common cause of arcing is a worn or binding brushes or the brush spring tension to low |
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When installing the single wire and wire bundles, how much slack is normally allowed between supports? |
Slack between supports should normally not exceed 1/2 inch |
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What precautions should be taken when running wires close to a heat ducts or exhaust stacks? |
The wire should be insulated with a high temperature material. |
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What precautions should be taken when running wires close to a heat ducts or exhaust stacks? |
The wire should be insulated with a high temperature material. |
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What is the primary purpose of a lubricant in an aircraft engine? |
To reduce friction between moving parts |
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What is the most important property that aircraft reciprocating engine oil must possess? |
Viscosity |
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What factors must be considered in determining the proper grade of oil to use in a specific engine? |
The operating load,Rotational speeds,And operating temperatures are the most important factors to be considered |
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What factors must be considered in determining the proper grade of oil to use in a specific engine? |
The operating load,Rotational speeds,And operating temperatures are the most important factors to be considered |
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What is the purpose of the oil flow control valve? |
The oil flow control valve, Located on the oil cooler, regulates the flow of oil either into or around the oil cooler |
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What are the main oil contaminants? |
They are gasoline,moisture, acid, dirt, carbon, and metallic particles. |
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What are the main hoe contaminants? |
They are canceling, moisture, acid, dirt, carbon, and the metallic particles. |
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From what location on a reciprocating engine is the oil temperature usually taken? |
In a dry sump lubricating system, the oil temperature bulb is located anywhere in the oil inlet line between the oil tank and the engine. Wet sump systems have the temp bulb located where it senses the temperature after the oil passes through the oil cooler. In either system, the bulb is located where it measures oil temperature before it enters the hot sections of the engine. |
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With the metallic particles in an oil screen indicate? |
Metallic particles may be an indication of internal failure of the engine |
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What could cause oil foaming? |
Foaming can because by diluted oil, contaminated oil, or the oil level to high |
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What would be an indication of an inadequate oil supply? |
Low oil pressure and high oil temperature. |
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What would be an indication of an inadequate oil supply? |
Low oil pressure and high oil temperature. |
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What would be an indication of blocked oil cooler passage? |
High oil temperature. |
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What type of oil is used in turbine engine lubricating systems? |
Specially developed synthetic oils |
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What type of oil is used in turbine engine lubricating systems? |
Specially developed synthetic oils |
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What are two types of oil coolers used in turbine engine lubrication system? |
Air cooled oil cooler and the fuel cooled oil cooler |
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What type of oil is used in turbine engine lubricating systems? |
Specially developed synthetic oils |
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What are two types of oil coolers used in turbine engine lubrication system? |
Air cooled oil cooler and the fuel cooled oil cooler |
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What is the meaning of oil flash point? Fire point? |
Oil flash point is that temperature at which the oil will begin to give off ignitable vapors. The fire point is that temperature at which these are sufficient vapors to support a continuous flame. |
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What are the functions of engine oil in a reciprocating engine? |
In addition to lubrication, oil cools various parts of the engine, helps to seal the combustion chamber by providing a film between the cylinder walls and the rings, and aid in cleaning the engine by carrying engine residues I the oil filter. |
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What is the weight of an aircraft engine oil? |
Approximately 7.5 pounds per US gallon |
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What is the purpose of an oil dilution system? |
The oil dilution system sends the oil by introducing feel into the lubricating system which makes cold weather starting easier. |
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What is the purpose of an oil dilution system? |
The oil dilution system sends the oil by introducing feel into the lubricating system which makes cold weather starting easier. |
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What is a magneto? |
A magneto is a special type of engine driven AC generator that uses a permanent magnet is a source of energy. The magneto develops a high-voltage that is used to fire the spark plugs. |
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What is the purpose of the condenser in a high tension magneto electrical system? |
To prevent arcing at the points and to Hasten the collapse of the magnetic field around the primary coil. |
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What is the purpose of the condenser in a high tension magneto electrical system? |
To prevent arcing at the points and to Hasten the collapse of the magnetic field around the primary coil. |
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Where is the E-gap position in a magneto? |
The E-gap position is when the poles of the rotating magnet are a few degrees passed a neutral position. |
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What is the purpose of the condenser in a high tension magneto electrical system? |
To prevent arcing at the points and to Hasten the collapse of the magnetic field around the primary coil. |
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Where is the E-gap position in a magneto? |
The E-gap position is when the poles of the rotating magnet are a few degrees passed a neutral position. |
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What are the three major circuits of a high tension magneto system.? |
The magnetic circuit, The primary electrical circuit, and this secondary electrical circuit. |
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What is the purpose of the condenser in a high tension magneto electrical system? |
To prevent arcing at the points and to Hasten the collapse of the magnetic field around the primary coil. |
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Where is the E-gap position in a magneto? |
The E-gap position is when the poles of the rotating magnet are a few degrees passed a neutral position. |
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What are the three major circuits of a high tension magneto system.? |
The magnetic circuit, The primary electrical circuit, and this secondary electrical circuit. |
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What happens when the primary breaker points open in a magneto? |
Opening the breaker points, stops the flow of current in the primary coil. The magnetic field that was emitted by the primary coil collapses. As this magnetic field collapses, it's flux lines cut across the windings of the secondary coil, inducing the poles of high voltage current in the secondary coil needed to fire the spark plugs. |
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What is the piston position when the spark occurs in a cylinder? |
The piston is a specified number of crankshaft degrees before the top dead center of the compression stroke |
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What is the piston position when the spark occurs in a cylinder? |
The piston is a specified number of crankshaft degrees before the top dead center of the compression stroke |
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What is a dual magneto ignition system? |
The dual magneto system incorporates to magnetos in one housing, and one rotating magnet, and a cam are common to two sets of breaker points and coils. On radial engines, the right magneto fires all the front plugs and the left magneto fires all the rear plugs. |
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What is the piston position when the spark occurs in a cylinder? |
The piston is a specified number of crankshaft degrees before the top dead center of the compression stroke |
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What is a dual magneto ignition system? |
The dual magneto system incorporates to magnetos in one housing, and one rotating magnet, and a cam are common to two sets of breaker points and coils. On radial engines, the right magneto fires all the front plugs and the left magneto fires all the rear plugs. |
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What is the difference between low tension in the high tension ignition system? |
In the high tension system, the high-voltage is generated in magneto and flows to the plugs through the high tension leads. In a low tension system the low-voltage is generating to the magneto and flows through the low tension leads to the primary winding up transformer coil located near spark plug. There the voltage is increased to high-voltage by transformer action and is conducted to the plugswhen you commissions which is in the opposition, what is the condition of the primary circuit? by very short high tension leads. |
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When you ignition switch is in the opposition, what is the condition of the primary circuit? |
It is completed through the ignition switch to ground |
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With three conditions are required to file your plugs in a cylinder when the piston is in the prescribed position? |
The magnetos magnetic poles must be in the E-gap position, the breaker points must open, and the distributor rotor must be aligned with the distributor electrode for that cylinder. |
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In a duel magneto ignition system, what part of the system is grounded when the ignition switch is placed in the right position? |
The left Magneto circuit will be grounded |
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In a duel magneto ignition system, what part of the system is grounded when the ignition switch is placed in the right position? |
The left Magneto circuit will be grounded |
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With three conditions are required to fireplugs in a cylinder when the piston is in the prescribed position? |
The magnetos magnet poles must be in the E-gap position, the breaker points must be open, and the distributor rotor must be aligned with the distributor electric for that cylinder |
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What is internal timing of a magneto? |
It is adjusting the breaker points to open when the polls of the rotating magnet are in the E-gap position. |
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What is the purpose of an impulse coupling used with the magneto? |
The purpose of an impulse coupling is to retard the time of the spark for starting the engine, and then spin the magneto rapidly to produce a hotter spark. |
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What is the purpose of an impulse coupling used with the magneto? |
The purpose of an impulse coupling is to retard the time of the spark for starting the engine, and then spin the magneto rapidly to produce a hotter spark. |
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What is staggered ignition timing? |
It is the firing of one spark plug before the other one instead of firing them simultaneously |
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What is the proper spark plug reach? |
The proper spark plug reach is when the electrode end of the plug inside the cylinder is in the best position to achieve the ignition |
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What type ignition system is used in most turbine engines ? |
A typical engine is equipped with an electronic capacitor-type ignition system |
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What type ignition system is used in most turbine engines ? |
A typical engine is equipped with an electronic capacitor-type ignition system |
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What is the function of the igniter plugs in a turbine engine? |
The function of the igniter plugs is to provide a discharge gap for the current which is stored in the capacitor. The district results in a high-intensity spark which ignites the fuel air mixture |
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When are determined engine ignition systems normally in use? |
The ignition system is normally required only for starting and restarting an engine |
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What are two types of igniter plugs? |
Annular gap- long reach plug that extends into the combustion chamber. Constrained gap- A short reach plug that does extend into the chamber because the spark does not remain close to the plug |
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Where are the fuel spray nozzles located in a turbine engine? |
They are located either externally or internally on the combustion chamber in such a way that the few can be sprayed into the combustion area |
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Then the heat sources for the operation of fuel heaters used in turbine engines. |
Turbine engine fuel heaters operate as heat exchangers. Few lines are routed through the fuel heater, which uses as a heat source either bleed air or engine lubricating oil. If bleed air is used as a heat source, it is called an air to liquid heat exchanger, and when oil is used it is called a liquid to liquid heat exchanger. |
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What engine variables are sensed by a hydromechanical fuel control? |
If you control since his power level position, RPM, compressor inlet pressure or temperature, burner pressure or compressor discharge pressure, and EGT or TI T. |
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What engine variables are sensed by a hydromechanical fuel control? |
If you control since his power level position, RPM, compressor inlet pressure or temperature, burner pressure or compressor discharge pressure, and EGT or TI T. |
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What are the two most commonly used carburetors and a small reciprocating engine? |
They are the float-type carburetor and the pressure-type carburetor |
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What engine variables are sensed by a hydromechanical fuel control? |
If you control since his power level position, RPM, compressor inlet pressure or temperature, burner pressure or compressor discharge pressure, and EGT or TI T. |
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What are the two most commonly used carburetors and a small reciprocating engine? |
They are the float-type carburetor and the pressure-type carburetor |
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What type of fuel control unit is used in a turbine engine? |
Both hydromechanical and electric fuel control units are in use today. However, the most commonly used fuel control unit is a completely hydromechanical type. |
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What engine variables are sensed by a hydromechanical fuel control? |
If you control since his power level position, RPM, compressor inlet pressure or temperature, burner pressure or compressor discharge pressure, and EGT or TI T. |
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What are the two most commonly used carburetors and a small reciprocating engine? |
They are the float-type carburetor and the pressure-type carburetor |
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What type of fuel control unit is used in a turbine engine? |
Both hydromechanical and electric fuel control units are in use today. However, the most commonly used fuel control unit is a completely hydromechanical type. |
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What is the purpose of a mixer control and a float type carburetor? |
It is to control the fuel air mixture or as air density changes with the changes in altitude |
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What is the purpose of an Accelerating system on a float type of carburetor? |
When the throttle is opened rapidly, the fuel air mixture or will lean out momentarily. To overcome this tendency, a charge of fuel from the accelerating pump will temporarily enrich the mixture in the Venturi. |
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Describe the purpose and operation of a Venturi? |
The Venturi performs three functions. It proportions the fuel air mixture or, lowers the pressure at the discharge nozzle, and limits airflow at full throttle. |
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Describe the purpose and operation of a Venturi? |
The Venturi performs three functions. It proportions the fuel air mixture or, lowers the pressure at the discharge nozzle, and limits airflow at full throttle. |
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What is the function of a metering jet? |
The main metering jet is placed in the fuel passage between the float chamber and the discharge nozzle. It's purpose is to limit the fuel flow when throttle valve is wide open |
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What is the fuel metering force in a float type carburetor? |
It is the differential pressure between the pressure in the float chamber in that at the nozzle |
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What will be the result of using excessively Rich idle mixtures? |
Excessively Rich Idle mixtures will cause carbon fouling on your spark plug |
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What is the purpose of the economizer system and a float carburetor? |
The economizer is essentially a valve which is closed at throttle settings below 60% to 70% of rated power, but provide additional fuel for cooling the engine to prevent detonation at higher throttle settings. |
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What is the purpose of the economizer system and a float carburetor? |
The economizer is essentially a valve which is closed at throttle settings below 60% to 70% of rated power, but provide additional fuel for cooling the engine to prevent detonation at higher throttle settings. |
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Where does a pressure in Junction carburetor obtain fuel pressure? |
Obtains feel pressure from the boost pump for starting and from the engine driven fuel pump for normal operation of the engine |
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What operates an automatic mixture control (AMC) on a pressure carburetor? |
The automatic mixer control contains a sealed Bellows that expands or contracts with changes and atmospheric pressure. The movement of the Bellows operates a tapered needle that controls the impact air pressure into the "A" chamber of the carburetor |
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What operates an automatic mixture control (AMC) on a pressure carburetor? |
The automatic mixer control contains a sealed Bellows that expands or contracts with changes and atmospheric pressure. The movement of the Bellows operates a tapered needle that controls the impact air pressure into the "A" chamber of the carburetor |
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In what position do you place the mixture control of the pressure injection carburetor to stop the engine? |
In the idle cut off position |
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What rpm indication should result when the mixture control is placed in the idle cut off position when the idle mixture is set correctly? |
There should be a slight increase in rpm, followed by a rapid drop of rpm to zero. |
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What is the purpose of filling a pressure injection carburetor full of fuel and allowing it to soak for a period of about eight hours prior to installation? |
This is done in order to soften the diaphragms and make them as pliable as they were when the carburetor was originally calibrated. |
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What is the purpose of filling a pressure injection carburetor full of fuel and allowing it to soak for a period of about eight hours prior to installation? |
This is done in order to soften the diaphragms and make them as pliable as they were when the carburetor was originally calibrated. |
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What are three types of carburetor icing? |
Throttle icing, impact icing, and fuel evaporator icing |
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What is the typical feel pressure in a float type carburetor? |
3-5 psi |
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What is the purpose of strainers in a fuel system? |
They are used to prevent foreign matter from entering the carburetor |
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What is the purpose of a fuel selector valve? |
They provide a means of shutting off fuel flow, for the tank in the engine selection, for crossfeed, and for fuel transfer |
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We should be looked for when inspecting an engine driven fuel pump? |
Look for fuel leaks and security of mounting |
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What is the purpose of an engine driven fuel pump? |
The engine driven fuel pump must deliver a continuous supply a few at the proper pressure at all times during engine operation |
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What is the purpose of an engine driven fuel pump? |
The engine driven fuel pump must deliver a continuous supply a few at the proper pressure at all times during engine operation |
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What type of fuel pump is generally used with large reciprocating engines? |
A positive displacement rotary vane- type pump |
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What happened to the excess fuel not required by the engine in a constant displacement pump? |
The pressure relief valve opens and the fuel is routed back to the inlet side of the pump |
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What is the most common type a fuel boost pump? |
The electrically driven centrifugal-type pump |
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What is the most common type a fuel boost pump? |
The electrically driven centrifugal-type pump |
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What is the purpose of the bypass valve in the engine driven fuel pump? |
The bypass valve provides a path around the vanes for starting the engine and to allow fuel to bypass the pump in case fuel pump failure |
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What is the purpose of using boost pumps in a fuel system? |
Electronic boost pumps are used to supply fuel to a pressure carburetor during engine starting and in case of engine driven pump failure. However, a main function of a boost pump is to keep the pressure of the suction side of the engine driven pump from becoming low enough to permit the fuel to boil when operating at high altitudes. |
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What is the purpose of using boost pumps in a fuel system? |
Electronic boost pumps are used to supply fuel to a pressure carburetor during engine starting and in case of engine driven pump failure. However, a main function of a boost pump is to keep the pressure of the suction side of the engine driven pump from becoming low enough to permit the fuel to boil when operating at high altitudes. |
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What are the three general causes of vapor lock? |
They are low fuel pressure, High fuel temperatures, and excessive fuel turbulence |
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Turbine engine fuel pumps may be divided into what two distinct system categories? |
Constant displacement and variable displacement |
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What are three general causes of vapor lock ? |
They are low fuel pressure, high fuel temperatures, and excessive fuel turbulence |
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What category is a turbine engine driven gear type pump? |
Constant displacement |
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What type fuel pump can be made to vary the fuel flow at any speed? |
A variable displacement pump |
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What category is a turbine engine driven gear type pump? |
Constant displacement |
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What part of a gas turbine engine fuel system is very susceptible to formation of ice? |
The fuel filter |
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What part of a gas turbine engine fuel system is very susceptible to formation of ice? |
The fuel filter |
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How is the engine fuel system protected from ice formation? |
By the use of fuel heaters |
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Why is the micron fuel filter provided with a bypass valve as a necessary safety factor? |
Because the small openings in this type of filter make it very susceptible to clogging |
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What are the three major parts of a reciprocating engine induction system? |
The air scoop and ducting, the carburetor, and the intake manifold |
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What effect does induction system icing have an engine performance? |
Induction system icing can cause an engine to act erradically and lose power |
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What effect does induction system icing have an engine performance? |
Induction system icing can cause an engine to act erradically and lose power |
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What method is used to prevent or remove induction system ice and a reciprocating engine? |
The most common method of preventing or removing ice formation and induction system is by the use of heated air |
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How is ice cleared in some aircraft systems if the carburetor heat is too low to clear the ice? |
A fluid such as alcohol, anilol, or Mercil is sprayed into the induction system ahead of the carburetor . The fluid will dislodge the ice which is ingested by the engine. |
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What engine indication can be the result of a dirty air filter? |
Low power |
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What is the danger of using carburetor heat when operating at high power settings? |
The higher air temperatures could cause detonation and possible engine failure. |
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What is the danger of using carburetor heat when operating at high power settings? |
The higher air temperatures could cause detonation and possible engine failure. |
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Carburetor throttle ice is most likely to form when the throttle is in which position? |
During part throttle operation when the throttle is near the closed position |
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What are the two general classifications of superchargers used in reciprocating engine duction systems? |
They are classified as internally driven or externally driven (turbocharger )supercharger systems. |
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What are the two general classifications of superchargers used in reciprocating engine duction systems? |
They are classified as internally driven or externally driven (turbocharger )supercharger systems. |
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What is the purpose of a distribution impeller in a supercharger? |
It is designed to break up the fuel globules into finer particles for better distribution to the cylinders |
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What is the purpose of a distribution impeller in a supercharger? |
It is designed to break up the fuel globules into finer particles for better distribution to the cylinders. |
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What is the purpose of a distribution impeller in a supercharger? |
It is designed to break up the fuel globules into finer particles for better distribution to the cylinders. |
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How does a internally driven supercharger get its power? |
The exhaust gases are directed against a turbine. For this reason, they are commonly called turbochargers. |
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How does internally driven supercharger boost air pressure? |
A high speed impeller is driven through a gear train from the crankshaft at a gear ratio that varies from 6:1 to 12: 1 |
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What does an externally driven supercharger get its power ? |
The exhaust gases are directed against a turbine. For this reason, they are commonly called turbochargers. |
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What does an externally driven supercharger get its power ? |
The exhaust gases are directed against a turbine. For this reason, they are commonly called turbochargers. |
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What unit regulates the amount of exhaust gases to the turbine of a turbocharger? |
The waste gate |
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What type of power is used to control the position of a turbocharger wastegate on some engines? |
Oil pressure to an actuating piston. |
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What type of power is used to control the position of a turbocharger wastegate on some engines? |
Oil pressure to an actuating piston. |
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What is the most common means of regulating the cooling air flow through the radial engine? |
By the use of cowl flaps |
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What is the most common means of regulating the cooling air flow through a radial engine? |
By the use of cowl flaps. |
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What is the most common means of regulating the cooling air flow through a radial engine? |
By the use of cowl flaps. |
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What is the purpose of the fins on engine cylinders ? |
To increase the effective size of the cylinder for cooling. |
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What other engine characteristics are designed to aid in engine cooling besides cooling fins? |
The engine cowling and fables are designed to force air over the the cylinder cooling fins. |
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What is the purpose of the fins on engine cylinders? |
To increase the effective size of the cylinder for cooling. |
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Why is the "open and close" adjustment during installation of cowl flaps important? |
For each engine installation, the cowl flaps are set for tolerance that will permit them to open and close the correct amount to keep the cylinder head temperature within allowable limits. |
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Why is the "open and close" adjustment during installation of cowl flaps important? |
For each engine installation, the cowl flaps are set for tolerance that will permit them to open and close the correct amount to keep the cylinder head temperature within allowable limits. |
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What should be done to cylinders when too much of the cooling fin area is broken off? |
The cylinder should be replaced because it cannot cool properly and a hotspot will develop. |
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What should be done to cylinders when too much of the cooling fin area is broken off? |
The cylinder should be replaced because it cannot cool properly and a hotspot will develop. |
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What should be done to cylinders when too much of the cooling fin area is broken off? |
The cylinder should be replaced because it cannot cool properly and a hotspot will develop. |
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When should cowl flaps be kept in the fully open position? |
Normally during all ground operations . |
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What should be done to cylinders when too much of the cooling fin area is broken off? |
The cylinder should be replaced because it cannot cool properly and a hotspot will develop. |
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When should cowl flaps be kept in the fully open position? |
Normally during all ground operations . |
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What publication should be referred to before reprofiling cylinder cooling fins? |
The manufacturer's service or overhaul manual should be used to obtain the allowable limits. |
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What publication should be referred to before reprofiling cylinder cooling fins? |
The manufacturer's service or overhaul manual should be used to obtain the allowable limits. |
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What power sources are used to operate the cowl flaps? |
Cowl flaps may be operated by electrical power, hydraulic power, or manually. |
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What power sources are used to operate the cowl flaps? |
Cowl flaps may be operated by electrical power, hydraulic power, or manually. |
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What's the purpose of blast tubes that are built into the baffles in reciprocating engine? |
To direct jets of cooling air into the rear spark plug elbows of each cylinder to prevent overheating of the ignition leads. |
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What is the purpose of blast tubes that are built into the baffles on a reciprocating engine? |
To direct jets of cooling air on to the rear spark plug elbows of each cylinder to prevent overheating ignition leads |
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What are the main reasons that excessive heat in a reciprocating engine is undesirable? |
Excessive heat shortens the life of the engine parts, impairs lubrication, and effects combustion. |
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What are the main reason said excessive heat in the reciprocating engine is undesirable? |
Excessive heat shortens the life of the engine parts, and impairs lubrication, and affects combustion. |
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Describe the augmenter system. |
Augmentors consist of two pairs of tubes running from the engine compartment to the rear of a nacelle. The exhaust gas collector feats exhaust gases into the inner augmentor tubes. Air that has passed over the engine is fed into the outer tubes where it is heated by the exhaust tubes then expelled to mix with the exhaust gases. The heating of the air causes it to form a high temperature, low-pressure, jet-like exhaust which draws additional cooling air over the engine. The heated air is sometimes used for cabin heating , defrosting, and anti-icing. |
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Describe the augmenter system. |
Augmentors consist of two pairs of tubes running from the engine compartment to the rear of a nacelle. The exhaust gas collector feats exhaust gases into the inner augmentor tubes. Air that has passed over the engine is fed into the outer tubes where it is heated by the exhaust tubes then expelled to mix with the exhaust gases. The heating of the air causes it to form a high temperature, low-pressure, jet-like exhaust which draws additional cooling air over the engine. The heated air is sometimes used for cabin heating , defrosting, and anti-icing. |
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What is the source of air that is directed to engine bearings for cooling? |
It is bleed air from the compressor section of the engine |
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What is the source of air that is directed to engine bearings for cooling? |
It is bleed air from the compressor section of the engine. |
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What is the purpose of installation on the exhaust duct of a turbine engine ? |
To reduce the temperature of the structure in the vicinity of the exhaust duct or afterburners and to eliminate the possibility of fuel or oil coming into contact with the hot parts of the engine. |
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What is the purpose of installation on the exhaust duct of a turbine engine? |
To reduce the temperature of the structure in the vicinity of the exhaust duct or afterburner and to eliminate the possibility of fuel or oil coming into contact with the hot parts of the engine. |
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What types of materials are used to make insulation blankets for turbine engines? |
They are made of stainless steel, with layers of aluminum foil, fiberglass, and silver foil. |
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What types of materials are used to make insulation blankets for turbine engines? |
They are made of stainless steel, with layers of aluminum boil, fiberglass, and silver foil. |
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What areas of a turbine engine are cooled by the secondary air passing through the engine? |
The combustion chambers and the turbines |
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What areas of a turbine engine are cooled by the secondary air passing through the engine? |
The combustion chambers and the turbines |
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What is the purpose of an engine cowling? |
It streamlines the engine to reduce drag and it forms an envelope around the engine, which forces air around and between the cylinders to cook them. |
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What areas of a turbine engine are cooled by the secondary air passing through the engine? |
The combustion chambers and the turbines |
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What is the purpose of an engine cowling? |
It streamlines the engine to reduce drag and it forms an envelope around the engine, which forces air around and between the cylinders to cook them. |
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What is the purpose of an oil cooler bypass valve? |
It allows the thick oil to bypass the cooler when the oil is cold |
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What is the purpose of an oil cooler bypass valve? |
It allows the thick oil to bypass the cooler when the oil is cold. |
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What is the purpose of an oil cooler bypass valve? |
It allows the thick oil to bypass the cooler when the oil is cold. |
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What an the two types of reciprocating engine exhaust systems? |
The short stack system and the collector system |
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What is the purpose of an oil cooler bypass valve ? |
It allows the thick oil to bypass the cooler when oil is cold. |
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What are the two types of reciprocating engine exhaust systems? |
The short stack system and the collector system . |
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What are the possible hazards of the exhaust system failure? |
Depending on the location and type of exhaust system failure, it can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of the crew and passengers, partial or complete loss of engine power, and an aircraft fire. |
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What are the possible hazards of the exhaust system failure? |
Depending on the location and type of exhaust system failure, it can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of the crew and passengers, partial or complete loss of engine power, and an aircraft fire. |
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What type exhaust system is generally used on low powered non-supercharged engines? |
The short (open) stack system. |
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What type exhaust system is generally used on low powered non-supercharged engines? |
The short(open) stack system. |
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What type exhaust system is generally used on low powered non-supercharged engines? |
The short(open) stack system. |
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What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system |
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What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
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|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
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|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
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|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
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|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
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What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
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|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
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What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
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|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
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|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
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|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
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How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
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|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
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How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
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What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
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|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
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What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
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|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
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|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the waste gate on a turbocharger exhaust ? |
This is the valve that controls the amount of exhaust gases forced through the turbocharger turbine. When the gate is fully closed, all gases must pass through the turbine. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the waste gate on a turbocharger exhaust ? |
This is the valve that controls the amount of exhaust gases forced through the turbocharger turbine. When the gate is fully closed, all gases must pass through the turbine. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a propeller ? |
To create thrust and push or pull the airplane through the air |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the waste gate on a turbocharger exhaust ? |
This is the valve that controls the amount of exhaust gases forced through the turbocharger turbine. When the gate is fully closed, all gases must pass through the turbine. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a propeller ? |
To create thrust and push or pull the airplane through the air |
|
|
What are two types of propeller configurations? |
Tractor type and pusher type |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the waste gate on a turbocharger exhaust ? |
This is the valve that controls the amount of exhaust gases forced through the turbocharger turbine. When the gate is fully closed, all gases must pass through the turbine. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a propeller ? |
To create thrust and push or pull the airplane through the air |
|
|
What are two types of propeller configurations? |
Tractor type and pusher type |
|
|
What type of propeller has he blade angle built into the propeller and cannot be changed ? |
A fixed pitch propeller |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the waste gate on a turbocharger exhaust ? |
This is the valve that controls the amount of exhaust gases forced through the turbocharger turbine. When the gate is fully closed, all gases must pass through the turbine. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a propeller ? |
To create thrust and push or pull the airplane through the air |
|
|
What are two types of propeller configurations? |
Tractor type and pusher type |
|
|
What type of propeller has he blade angle built into the propeller and cannot be changed ? |
A fixed pitch propeller |
|
|
What is the purpose of the metal tipping on a leading edge of s wooden propeller? |
It is to protect the propeller from damage caused by flying particles in the air during landing, taxiing, and takeoff |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the waste gate on a turbocharger exhaust ? |
This is the valve that controls the amount of exhaust gases forced through the turbocharger turbine. When the gate is fully closed, all gases must pass through the turbine. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a propeller ? |
To create thrust and push or pull the airplane through the air |
|
|
What are two types of propeller configurations? |
Tractor type and pusher type |
|
|
What type of propeller has he blade angle built into the propeller and cannot be changed ? |
A fixed pitch propeller |
|
|
What is the purpose of the metal tipping on a leading edge of s wooden propeller? |
It is to protect the propeller from damage caused by flying particles in the air during landing, taxiing, and takeoff |
|
|
What tools is used to determine propeller blade angle ? |
A universal propeller protractor |
|
|
What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
|
|
What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
|
|
What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
|
|
How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
|
|
What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
|
|
What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
|
|
What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
|
|
What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
|
|
What type of exhaust system is used on turbocharged engines? |
The exhaust collector system . |
|
|
What are the probes in a turbine exhaust tailpipe used for? |
They are used to measure exhaust gas temperature (EGT) |
|
|
Why do you disassemble and inspect the collector type? |
Exhaust system failure can result in carbon monoxide poisoning of crew and passengers. |
|
|
What is the purpose of the waste gate on a turbocharger exhaust ? |
This is the valve that controls the amount of exhaust gases forced through the turbocharger turbine. When the gate is fully closed, all gases must pass through the turbine. |
|
|
What is the purpose of a propeller ? |
To create thrust and push or pull the airplane through the air |
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What are two types of propeller configurations? |
Tractor type and pusher type |
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What type of propeller has he blade angle built into the propeller and cannot be changed ? |
A fixed pitch propeller |
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What is the purpose of the metal tipping on a leading edge of s wooden propeller? |
It is to protect the propeller from damage caused by flying particles in the air during landing, taxiing, and takeoff |
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What tools is used to determine propeller blade angle ? |
A universal propeller protractor |
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What are the aerodynamic forces acting on a rotating propeller blade? |
Centrifugal force, torque bending force, thrust bending force, aerodynamic twisting, centrifugal twisting. |
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What type of exhaust system creates a higher exhaust back pressure? |
The collector system. |
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What is the purpose of a reciprocating engine exhaust system? |
To dispose of high temperature, noxious gases that are discharged by the engine. |
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What happens when lead, zinc, or galvanized marks are made on an exhaust system? |
The mark is absorbed by the metal when it is heated and causes a change in the molecular structure of the metal . |
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What type of visual indication can usually be seen in the area of an exhaust leak? |
Exhaust leaks usually leave flat gray or sooty black streaks on the pipes in the area of the leak. |
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How are ceramic-coated exhaust stacks cleaned ? |
By degreasing only |
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What is the usual cause of muffler and heat exchanger failure? |
They are usually caused by thermal and vibration cracking or ruptures in areas of stress concentration. |
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What are the manifold and stack failures most likely to occur? |
At welded or clamped points in the system |
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What is a common cause of the waste gate unit malfunctioning in a turbocharger system? |
The most common cause of waste gate malfunctioning is carbon build up , causing the waste gate valve to stick in the closed position. |
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What factors are affected if the area of the exhaust nozzle of a turbine is changed ? |
The size of the exhaust nozzle affects both engine performance and the exhaust gas temperature. |
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What is the meaning of propeller blade "back" and "face"? |
Cambered or curved side of the prop blade is called the back . Flat side of the prop is know as the blade face. |
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What is the meaning of propeller blade "back" and "face"? |
Cambered or curved side of the prop blade is called the back . Flat side of the prop is know as the blade face. |
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What should be used to clean aluminum and steel propeller blades and hubs ? |
They should be washed with a suitable cleaning solvent using a brush or a cloth . |
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What is the meaning of propeller blade "back" and "face"? |
Cambered or curved side of the prop blade is called the back . Flat side of the prop is know as the blade face. |
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What should be used to clean aluminum and steel propeller blades and hubs ? |
They should be washed with a suitable cleaning solvent using a brush or a cloth . |
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What positions are used on a balance stand to check a two bladed propeller for static balance ? |
Vertical position, and horizontal position |
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When centrifugal force acts on the counterweights of a hydraulic propeller, if tends to rotate the blades in which direction? |
Centrifugal force tends to increase the pitch of the blades |
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When centrifugal force acts on the counterweights of a hydraulic propeller, if tends to rotate the blades in which direction? |
Centrifugal force tends to increase the pitch of the blades |
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Why do you put the blades of a counterweight propeller into high pitch before stopping the engine ? |
To protect the cylinder from corrosion |
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Why are cones installed on splined shafts with a propeller? |
The cones center the propeller on the shaft as they are forced toward each other by the tightening of the retaining nut. |
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How is feathering accomplished on a constant speed counterweight propeller? |
Releasing governor oil pressure allows the counterweights and feathering spring to move the blades to the feathered position. |
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How is feathering accomplished on a constant speed counterweight propeller? |
Releasing governor oil pressure allows the counterweights and feathering spring to move the blades to the feathered position. |
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What type of systems are used for deicing systems ? |
Fluid or electrical deicing systems. |
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How is feathering accomplished on a constant speed counterweight propeller? |
Releasing governor oil pressure allows the counterweights and feathering spring to move the blades to the feathered position. |
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What type of systems are used for deicing systems ? |
Fluid or electrical deicing systems. |
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What is the purpose of a slinger ring on some propeller installations? |
Propeller deicing fluid ejected from a stationary nozzle on the engine into a scoop attached to the rear of the propeller assembly. The U-shaped channel is called the slinger ring . The fluid under pressure of centrifugal force is transferred through a tube to the propeller blades. |
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How is feathering accomplished on a constant speed counterweight propeller? |
Releasing governor oil pressure allows the counterweights and feathering spring to move the blades to the feathered position. |
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What type of systems are used for deicing systems ? |
Fluid or electrical deicing systems. |
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What is the purpose of a slinger ring on some propeller installations? |
Propeller deicing fluid ejected from a stationary nozzle on the engine into a scoop attached to the rear of the propeller assembly. The U-shaped channel is called the slinger ring . The fluid under pressure of centrifugal force is transferred through a tube to the propeller blades. |
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What is "blade tracking"? |
It is the process of determining the position of the tips of the propeller blades relative to each other. |
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How is feathering accomplished on a constant speed counterweight propeller? |
Releasing governor oil pressure allows the counterweights and feathering spring to move the blades to the feathered position. |
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What type of systems are used for deicing systems ? |
Fluid or electrical deicing systems. |
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What is the purpose of a slinger ring on some propeller installations? |
Propeller deicing fluid ejected from a stationary nozzle on the engine into a scoop attached to the rear of the propeller assembly. The U-shaped channel is called the slinger ring . The fluid under pressure of centrifugal force is transferred through a tube to the propeller blades. |
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What is "blade tracking"? |
It is the process of determining the position of the tips of the propeller blades relative to each other. |
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Do the counterweights on a constant speed propeller increase or decrease the blade angle? |
The centrifugal force of the counterweights is used to increase the pitch of the blades |
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How is feathering accomplished on a constant speed counterweight propeller? |
Releasing governor oil pressure allows the counterweights and feathering spring to move the blades to the feathered position. |
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What type of systems are used for deicing systems ? |
Fluid or electrical deicing systems. |
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What is the purpose of a slinger ring on some propeller installations? |
Propeller deicing fluid ejected from a stationary nozzle on the engine into a scoop attached to the rear of the propeller assembly. The U-shaped channel is called the slinger ring . The fluid under pressure of centrifugal force is transferred through a tube to the propeller blades. |
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What is "blade tracking"? |
It is the process of determining the position of the tips of the propeller blades relative to each other. |
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Do the counterweights on a constant speed propeller increase or decrease the blade angle? |
The centrifugal force of the counterweights is used to increase the pitch of the blades |
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What should be adjusted if a pilot requests 50 more rpm on a constant speed propeller equipped aircraft engine? |
Adjust the governors prop lever set screw |
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What is the typical relationship between an aircraft's auxiliary power unit (APU) generator and the engine driven generator? |
They are identical |
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Where does the APU fuel supply normally come from? |
The airplanes main fuel supply |
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Where does the APU fuel supply normally come from? |
The airplanes main fuel supply |
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How is the APU rotated during start up? |
With an electric starter |
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What is the function of an APU air inlet plenum ? |
To stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor |
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Where does the APU fuel supply normally come from? |
The airplanes main fuel supply |
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How is the APU rotated during start up? |
With an electric starter |
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What is the function of an APU air inlet plenum ? |
To stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor |
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When operating at high loads, what is the speed of an APU? |
The APU remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition. |
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Where does the APU fuel supply normally come from? |
The airplanes main fuel supply |
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How is the APU rotated during start up? |
With an electric starter |
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What is the function of an APU air inlet plenum ? |
To stabilize the pressure of the air before it enters the compressor |
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When operating at high loads, what is the speed of an APU? |
The APU remains at or near rated speed regardless of the load condition. |
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What is the effect of the pneumatic power when being used in conjunction with Maximum APU shaft power output? |
The pneumatic loading will be automatically modulated to maintain a safe EGT |
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Before shutdown, How would APU cooling be accomplished? |
By closing the bleed air valves |
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Before shutdown, How would APU cooling be accomplished? |
By closing the bleed air valves |
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When is most of the load placed on an APU? |
When bleed air is opened |
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Before shutdown, How would APU cooling be accomplished? |
By closing the bleed air valves |
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When is most of the load placed on an APU? |
When bleed air is opened |
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What regulates fuel scheduling during APU start and under varying pneumatic bleed and electrical loads? |
Do you scheduling is maintained automatically by the APU fuel control system |
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Before shutdown, How would APU cooling be accomplished? |
By closing the bleed air valves |
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When is most of the load placed on an APU? |
When bleed air is opened |
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What regulates fuel scheduling during APU start and under varying pneumatic bleed and electrical loads? |
Do you scheduling is maintained automatically by the APU fuel control system |
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What is the primary function of the load compressor on APU's equipped with a free turbine and the load compressor? |
To provide bleed air for aircraft pneumatic systems |
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How are conventional reciprocating engines classified? |
They are classified according to cylinder arrangement with respect to the crankshaft (in-line, V-type, radial, and opposed), or according to method of cooling (liquid cooled or air cooled) |
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How are conventional reciprocating engines classified? |
They are classified according to cylinder arrangement with respect to the crankshaft (in-line, V-type, radial, and opposed), or according to method of cooling (liquid cooled or air cooled) |
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What are the different types of piston rings? |
Compression rings, oil control rings, and scraper rings. |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What may be the result of installing piston rings incorrectly? |
Excessive oil consumption |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What may be the result of installing piston rings incorrectly? |
Excessive oil consumption |
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What types of piston rods are commonly found in radial engines? |
A master and articulated rod assembly. |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What may be the result of installing piston rings incorrectly? |
Excessive oil consumption |
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What types of piston rods are commonly found in radial engines? |
A master and articulated rod assembly. |
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What types of bearings are in general use in reciprocating engines? |
Plain bearings, which are generally used for crankshaft can ring, camshaft, connecting rods, and accessory drive shaft bearings. Roller bearings, which are used primarily as crankshaft main bearings but have other applications, as well. Ball bearings, which are used for supercharger impeller shaft bearings, rocker arm bearings in some engines, and as propeller thrust bearings |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What may be the result of installing piston rings incorrectly? |
Excessive oil consumption |
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What types of piston rods are commonly found in radial engines? |
A master and articulated rod assembly. |
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What types of bearings are in general use in reciprocating engines? |
Plain bearings, which are generally used for crankshaft can ring, camshaft, connecting rods, and accessory drive shaft bearings. Roller bearings, which are used primarily as crankshaft main bearings but have other applications, as well. Ball bearings, which are used for supercharger impeller shaft bearings, rocker arm bearings in some engines, and as propeller thrust bearings |
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What is the indication of valve blow-by? |
Valve blow by is indicated by a hissing or whistle when pulling the propeller through, prior to starting the engine. A cylinder compression check should be made to identify the faulty cylinder |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What may be the result of installing piston rings incorrectly? |
Excessive oil consumption |
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What types of piston rods are commonly found in radial engines? |
A master and articulated rod assembly. |
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What types of bearings are in general use in reciprocating engines? |
Plain bearings, which are generally used for crankshaft can ring, camshaft, connecting rods, and accessory drive shaft bearings. Roller bearings, which are used primarily as crankshaft main bearings but have other applications, as well. Ball bearings, which are used for supercharger impeller shaft bearings, rocker arm bearings in some engines, and as propeller thrust bearings |
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What is the indication of valve blow-by? |
Valve blow by is indicated by a hissing or whistle when pulling the propeller through, prior to starting the engine. A cylinder compression check should be made to identify the faulty cylinder |
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What is the purpose of using more than one spring for valve closing? |
A valve spring will resonate or surge at certain engine speeds. When the spring resonates, it loses its ability to keep the valve closed and the valve begins to float by using two springs different sizes, one inside the other this problem is eliminated. The springs will resonate at separate engine speed so the valve is always held close by at least one spring. |
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What is the purpose of the oil control rings? |
They are used to control the thickness of the oil film on the cylinder walls. |
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What may be the result of installing piston rings incorrectly? |
Excessive oil consumption |
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What types of piston rods are commonly found in radial engines? |
A master and articulated rod assembly. |
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What types of bearings are in general use in reciprocating engines? |
Plain bearings, which are generally used for crankshaft can ring, camshaft, connecting rods, and accessory drive shaft bearings. Roller bearings, which are used primarily as crankshaft main bearings but have other applications, as well. Ball bearings, which are used for supercharger impeller shaft bearings, rocker arm bearings in some engines, and as propeller thrust bearings |
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What is the indication of valve blow-by? |
Valve blow by is indicated by a hissing or whistle when pulling the propeller through, prior to starting the engine. A cylinder compression check should be made to identify the faulty cylinder |
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What is the purpose of using more than one spring for valve closing? |
A valve spring will resonate or surge at certain engine speeds. When the spring resonates, it loses its ability to keep the valve closed and the valve begins to float by using two springs different sizes, one inside the other this problem is eliminated. The springs will resonate at separate engine speed so the valve is always held close by at least one spring. |
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What is the purpose of valve overlap? |
Valve overlap permits better volumetric efficiency and lowers the cylinder operating temperatures |
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Describe the inspection you would give the valve springs during engine overhaul. |
They should be cleaned throughly and then visually inspected for evidence of overheating, cracks, broken ends, and for compression strength |
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What is the purpose of using valves with sodium filled stems? |
Some intake and exhaust valve stem's are hollow and partially filled with metallic sodium. Sodium is used because it is an excellent he conductor. So do you melt about 208°F. And the movement of the valves circulates the liquid sodium which enables it to Carry heat from the valve head to the stem or it is dissipated through the valve guide to the cylinder head in the cooling fins. |
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What is the purpose of using valves with sodium filled stems? |
Some intake and exhaust valve stem's are hollow and partially filled with metallic sodium. Sodium is used because it is an excellent he conductor. So do you melt about 208°F. And the movement of the valves circulates the liquid sodium which enables it to Carry heat from the valve head to the stem or it is dissipated through the valve guide to the cylinder head in the cooling fins. |
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What causes engine sudden stoppage? |
Striking an object or engine seizure due to internal damage. |
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What is the purpose of using valves with sodium filled stems? |
Some intake and exhaust valve stem's are hollow and partially filled with metallic sodium. Sodium is used because it is an excellent he conductor. So do you melt about 208°F. And the movement of the valves circulates the liquid sodium which enables it to Carry heat from the valve head to the stem or it is dissipated through the valve guide to the cylinder head in the cooling fins. |
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What causes engine sudden stoppage? |
Striking an object or engine seizure due to internal damage. |
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What type inspection must be made after sudden stoppage of an engine due to striking an object? |
The propeller driveshaft must be checked for misalignment in the propeller checked for track |
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What is the purpose of using valves with sodium filled stems? |
Some intake and exhaust valve stem's are hollow and partially filled with metallic sodium. Sodium is used because it is an excellent he conductor. So do you melt about 208°F. And the movement of the valves circulates the liquid sodium which enables it to Carry heat from the valve head to the stem or it is dissipated through the valve guide to the cylinder head in the cooling fins. |
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What causes engine sudden stoppage? |
Striking an object or engine seizure due to internal damage. |
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What type inspection must be made after sudden stoppage of an engine due to striking an object? |
The propeller driveshaft must be checked for misalignment in the propeller checked for track |
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What is the purpose of crankshaft dynamic dampers used in aircraft engines? |
Dampers are used to overcome forces that causes the flexion of the crankshaft and torsional vibration. These forces are generated by the power impulses of the pistons. Crankshaft vibrations are reduced by placing the floating dampers weights in the counterweight assembly, particularly in a single throw type crankshaft |
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How would you ma a runout check on a crankshaft that is still installed in the engine? |
Remove the propeller from the shaft and attach a dial indicator gauge to the front of the crankcase. Adjust the position of the gauge needle so that it is touching the shaft. Turn the engine through with the starter and note any changes in the gauge reading |
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How would you ma a runout check on a crankshaft that is still installed in the engine? |
Remove the propeller from the shaft and attach a dial indicator gauge to the front of the crankcase. Adjust the position of the gauge needle so that it is touching the shaft. Turn the engine through with the starter and note any changes in the gauge reading |
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What is detonation ? |
Normal combustion is when the fuel-air mixture burns at a uniform rate across the combustion chamber. The temperature and pressure within the cylinder rises at a normal rate as the mixture burns. All fuels have critical limits of temperature and compression, and beyond this limit, they will ignite spontaneously and burn with explosive violence. This instantaneous explosive burning of the last portion of the charge is called the detonation |
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How would you ma a runout check on a crankshaft that is still installed in the engine? |
Remove the propeller from the shaft and attach a dial indicator gauge to the front of the crankcase. Adjust the position of the gauge needle so that it is touching the shaft. Turn the engine through with the starter and note any changes in the gauge reading |
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What is detonation ? |
Normal combustion is when the fuel-air mixture burns at a uniform rate across the combustion chamber. The temperature and pressure within the cylinder rises at a normal rate as the mixture burns. All fuels have critical limits of temperature and compression, and beyond this limit, they will ignite spontaneously and burn with explosive violence. This instantaneous explosive burning of the last portion of the charge is called the detonation |
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During valve clearance adjustment on an R-2800 engine, why must you depress certain valves other than the ones being adjusted? |
The valves must be depressed (unloaded) in order to remove the pressure for the side positions on the cam and thus permit the cam to slide away from the valves to be adjusted. This prevents the cam from introducing errors in the valve clearance setting. |
