Air Traffic Basics - Block 3

Front 1

Parallels of Latitude run what direction?

Back 1

East and West

Front 2

Meridians of Longitude run which direction?

Back 2

North and South

Front 3

These lines are equal distance apart and are used to measure distances north and south of the equator.

Back 3

Parallels of latitude

Front 4

These lines are used to measure angular (circular) distance east and west of the Prime Meridian.

Back 4

Lines of longitude

Front 5

The places where meridians and parallels cross are called what?

Back 5

Coordinates

Front 6

Parallels and Meridians are divided into what? (3 things)

Back 6

Degrees, minutes, seconds

Front 7

The shortest distance between two points on a sphere, such as earth.

Back 7

A great circle route

Front 8

A line which makes an equivalent angle with each meridian of longitude

Back 8

Rhumb line

Front 9

How many minutes are there in 1 degree of latitude?

Back 9

60 minutes

Front 10

1NM equals how many SM?

Back 10

1.15SM

Front 11

True or False - NM must be used for all mileage’s in IFR planning and operations?

Back 11

True

Front 12

One SM equals how many NM?

Back 12

.87

Front 13

True or False: the SM is always used in conjunction with visibility?

Back 13

True

Front 14

Complete the following conversions to NM or SM respectively:

46SM

100NM

69SM

Back 14

40NM

115SM

60NM

Front 15

What is another name for Coordinated Universal Time (UTC)?

Back 15

Zulu time

Front 16

What are the four standard time zones in the contiguous US?

Back 16

Eastern

Central

Mountain

Pacific

Front 17

Name the US Time Zone conversion factors (6).

Back 17

EST +5

CST +6

MST +7

PST +8

AST +9

HST +10

(Subtract 1 for daylight savings time)

Front 18

An aircraft departs Oklahoma City at 9pm (CST) and travels for 3 hours to arrive in Seattle Washington (PST). What was the aircraft’s arrival time in UTC?

Back 18

0600 UTC

Front 19

If it’s 1300Z in Philadelphia (EST) what local time would it be in San Francisco (PST)?

Back 19

0500 UTC

Front 20

What are the 4 types of speed used in aviation?

Back 20

Indicated Airspeed

True airspeed

Ground Speed

Mach Number

Front 21

- Speed shown on the aircraft’s airspeed indicator

- used in pilot/controller communications

Back 21

Indicated Airspeed

Front 22

- Relative to undisturbed air mass

Used in

- flight planning

- En Route portion of flight

Back 22

True Airspeed

Front 23

The speed of an aircraft relative to the surface of the earth is true airspeed corrected for the effects of wind

Back 23

Ground Speed

Front 24

- Ratio of true airspeed to the speed of sound, expressed in decimal form

Back 24

Mach Number (MACH)

Front 25

The indicated airspeed ______ with _____ in altitude and temperature.

Back 25

Decreases ; increases

Front 26

Distance formula?

Back 26

Distance = Speed x Time

Front 27

Time Formula?

Back 27

Distance/Speed

Front 28

Speed Formula

Back 28

Distance/Time

Front 29

Distance flown 274NM. Time flown 2+00 hours. Find the speed.

Back 29

137 KTS

Front 30

Field #1 is located 450NM from Field #2. An aircraft flew 1/3 of the way between fields in 1:30 hours. What was the speed of the aircraft?

Back 30

100 KTS

Front 31

An aircraft is flying between Field X and Field Y at a speed of 140 MPH halfway there, at a distance of 280 SM, the aircraft lost an engine, which cut its speed in half how long did it take the aircraft to fly between X and Y?

Back 31

6 hours

Front 32

The line where no variation correction is needed.

Back 32

Agonic line

Front 33

East/West variation needed

Back 33

Isogonic lines

Front 34

Magnetic heading correction is called what?

Back 34

Deviation

Front 35

Navigation of an airplane solely by means of computations based on airspeed, course, heading, wind direction, and speed, ground speed, and elapsed time.

Back 35

Dead Reckoning

Front 36

The actual path that an a/c has flown over the earth’s surface

Back 36

Track

Front 37

Time zones are established for every how many degrees of longitude?

Back 37

15

Front 38

The purpose of parallels of latitude is for measuring degrees of latitude ________

Back 38

North and south of the equator

Front 39

NDB’s operate in what frequency band?

Back 39

Low and Medium

Front 40

A mass of air moving over the earth’s surface in a definite direction

Back 40

Wind

Front 41

2 ways wind affects ground Speed?

Back 41

Increased by tailwind

Reduced by headwind

Front 42

The intended path of the aircraft over the earth’s surface.

Back 42

True Course

Front 43

An a/c has a true airspeed of 200 KTS and is encountering a headwind of 40 KTS. What is the a/c’s ground speed?

Back 43

160 KTS

Front 44

When a pilot draws course line on chart from selected checkpoints and prominent landmarks.

Back 44

Pilotage

Front 45

The angle formed from what any free object will do as the air moves downwind with the speed of the wind.

Back 45

Drift Angle

Front 46

True Course (TC) corrected for wind.

Back 46

True Heading

Front 47

Radio beacons that are subject to disturbances that may result in erroneous bearing information.

Back 47

Automatic Direction Finder (ADF)

Front 48

The angular difference between true north and magnetic north

Back 48

Variation

Front 49

What are the 3 range classes of VOR’s?

Back 49

Terminal

Low

High

Front 50

VOR/VORTAC/TACAN NAVAIDS altitudes for T, L, and H

Back 50

Terminal - 12,000 and below & 25 mile distance

Low - below 18,000 & 40mile distance

High - 18,000- FL450 & 130 mile distance

Front 51

The accuracy of course alignment of VOR is generally within plus or minus ___ degree

Back 51

1

Front 52

A beacon transmitting non-directional signals whereby the pilot of an aircraft equipped with direction finding equipment can determine their bearing to or from the radio beacon and home on or track to or from the station

Back 52

Non-Directional Radio Beacon NDB

Front 53

An ultra-high frequency electronic rho-theta air navigation aid which provides suitably equipped aircraft continuous indications of bearing and distance to the station.

Back 53

Tactical Air Navigation TACAN

Front 54

Each line on an attitude indicator represents how many degrees of bank?

Back 54

10 degrees

Front 55

what frequency band does the TACAN transmit in?

Back 55

UHF

Front 56

Equipment used to measure (in NM), the slant range distance of an a/c from the navigation aid.

Back 56

Distance Measuring Equipment DME

Front 57

Distance measured from DME is called?

Back 57

Slant range distance

Front 58

A navigational aid providing VOR azimuth, TACAN azimuth and TACAN DME at one site an a

Back 58

VHF Omni-Directional Range/Tactical Air Navigation

VORTAC

Front 59

The intended path of an a/c over the earth’s surface

Back 59

True Course

Front 60

An approach path with both course and altitude guidance

Back 60

ILS

Front 61

Name the primary components of an ILS

Back 61

Localizer

Glide Slope

Outer Marker

Middle Marker

Front 62

Provides horizontal (left and right) guidance along the extended centerline of the runway.

Back 62

Localizer

Front 63

Provides vertical (up/down) guidance along the descent path toward the runway touchdown point

Back 63

Glide Slope

Front 64

Give range information along the approach path

Back 64

Marker Beacons

Front 65

Name the Supplementary components of an ILS.

Back 65

Approach Lights

Compass Locator

DME

Front 66

Assist in the transition from instrument to visual flight

Back 66

Approach lights

Front 67

A low power, low or medium frequency (L/MF) radio beacon installed at the site of the outer or middle marker

Back 67

Compass Locator

Front 68

Typically installed as an ancillary aid to the ILS

Back 68

DME

Front 69

True or False: ILS Systems are not in Service simultaneously

Back 69

True

Front 70

What frequency band does the localizer transmitter operate in?

Back 70

VHF

Front 71

The Localizer is usable at a distance of

Back 71

18 NM from the antenna

1,000 for above highest terrain

4,500 feet above the elevation of the antenna site

Front 72

An ILS approach is not usable when the _____ is out of service?

Back 72

The Localizer

Front 73

What frequency band does the glide Slope operate in?

Back 73

UHF

Front 74

Refers collectively to the worldwide positioning, navigation, and timing determination capability available from one or more satellite constellation in conjunction with a network of ground stations

Back 74

Global Navigation Satellite System GNSS

Front 75

A satellite-based radio Navigation System, which broadcasts a signal that is used by receivers to determine precise position anywhere in the world

Back 75

GPS

Front 76

The GPS constellation consists of how many satellites?

Back 76

24

Front 77

What is the minimum amount of satellites necessary to establish an accurate three-dimensional position?

Back 77

4

Front 78

Who is responsible for operating and monitoring the GPS satellite constellation?

Back 78

The DOD

Front 79

What 3 systems are used to confirm and improve GPS accuracy?

Back 79

WAAS

GBAS

GPS receiver

Front 80

The method a GPS receiver uses to verify the integrity of the GPS signals received

Back 80

Receiver Autonomous Integrity Monitoring RAIM

Front 81

How many satellites does RAIM need to function?

Back 81

5

Front 82

A method of navigation which permits a/c operation on any desired flight path within the coverage of ground or space based navigation aids

Back 82

Area Navigation RNAV

Front 83

Uses a large database to allow routes to be preprogrammed and fed into the system by means of a data loader

Back 83

Flight Management System (FMS)

Front 84

Glide slopes are paired with localizers via ____?

Back 84

Channelization

Front 85

A predetermined geographical position used for Route/instrument definition, progress reports, published VFR routes or visual reporting points that are relative to a VORTAC station or in terms of latitude/longitude coordinates

Back 85

Waypoint

Front 86

A series of waypoints is called what?

Back 86

RNAV Route

Front 87

Permanent routes which can be flight planned for use by a/c with RNAV capability

Back 87

Published RNAV routes

Front 88

Area navigation based on performance requirements for aircraft operating along an ATS Route, on an instrument approach procedure or in designated airspace is called what?

Back 88

Performance-Based Navigation PBN

Front 89

What are the 3 fixed route systems?

Back 89

Airways

Jet Route System

RNAV routes

Front 90

What are the attitudes for the VOR airway system?

Back 90

1,200 AGL up to but not including 18,000 MSL

Front 91

Odd numbered airways are generally oriented?

Back 91

North and south

Front 92

Even numbered airways are generally oriented?

Back 92

East and west

Front 93

What are the Jet Route altitude limits?

Back 93

18,000MSL - FL450

Front 94

Routes that can be flight planned for use by a/c with area navigation capability

Back 94

RNAV Routes

Front 95

The ____ is the portion of the glide Slope that intersects the localizer?

Back 95

Glide Path

Front 96

What are the two types of RNAV routes?

Back 96

Q routes

T routes

Front 97

What are the Q route altitude limits?

Back 97

18,000 MSL - FL450

Front 98

What are the T routes altitude limits?

Back 98

Up to but not including 18,000 MSL

Front 99

The bearing and DME frequencies of a TACAN are paired and assigned by ____ numbers?

Back 99

Channel

Front 100

When is the difference between DME slant range and actual horizontal distance greatest?

Back 100

At high altitude close to the NAVAID

Front 101

An NDB used in conjunction with the ILS?

Back 101

Compass Locator

Front 102

The Pitot-Static system provides the sources of air pressure for the operation of which instruments? (3)

Back 102

Altimeter

Vertical Speed Indicator

Airspeed Indicator

Front 103

What are the two major components of the pitot-static system?

Back 103

Pilot Tube and static air vents

Front 104

______are the source of external atmospheric pressure

Back 104

Static air vents

Front 105

Measures the rate of climb

Back 105

Vertical speed indicator

Front 106

The glide Slope transmitter is located approximately how far from the approach end of the runway?

Back 106

1,000 feet

Front 107

Measures indicated airspeed

Back 107

Airspeed Indicator

Front 108

What is the only instrument that uses the pitot tube Information?

Back 108

Airspeed Indicator

Front 109

What is the purpose of marker beacons?

Back 109

To identify particular locations on the approach to an instrument runway

Front 110

Marker Beacons have a rated power output of _____ and an antenna array designed to produce what type of pattern?

Back 110

3 Watts or less

Elliptical pattern

Front 111

What is the purpose of approach lights?

Back 111

To provide the basic means to transition from instrument flight to visual flight for landing

Front 112

A system that navigates precisely without any input from outside of the aircraft

Back 112

Inertial Navigation System INS

Front 113

What does an INS measure?

Back 113

Acceleration and direction

Front 114

What is the principle error associated with INS?

Back 114

Degradation of position

Front 115

What are two types of airspeed?

Back 115

Indicated and True

Front 116

This instrument acts as two instruments in one - a rate of turn indicator and an inclinometer

Back 116

Turn coordinator

Front 117

A mechanical instrument designed to facilitate the use of the magnetic compass

Back 117

Heading Indicator/directional gyro (DG)

Front 118

Displays the pitch and bank attitudes of the airplane

Back 118

Attitude Indicator

Front 119

What is the most realistic and reliable instrument on the instrument panel?

Back 119

Attitude Indicator

Front 120

These are all types of what?

Automatic direction finder ADF

VOR instrument

ILS

Radio Magnetic Indicator RMI

Horizontal Situation Indicator

DME

GPS

Back 120

Navigational Instruments used by pilots

Front 121

Which instrument is made up of a localizer Indicator, and glide slope Indicator and 5 dot deflections?

Back 121

ILS receiving equipment

Front 122

Designed to receive both VOR and NDB signals

Back 122

Radio Magnetic Indicator RMI

Front 123

The actual speed of an a/c through a mass of air and the speed flight plans are filed in

Back 123

True Airspeed

Front 124

The only self-contained direction-seeking instrument in the a/c

Back 124

Magnetic Compass

Front 125

Used to tell the pilot the aircrafts heading in relation to magnetic north

Back 125

Magnetic compass

Front 126

Two types of compass error

Back 126

Variation and Deviation

Front 127

Name 3 gyroscopic instruments

Back 127

Turn Coordinator

Attitude Indicator

Heading Indicator

Front 128

The two fundamental properties of gyroscopic action

Back 128

Rigidity in space

Precession

Front 129

Flight instruments using the gyroscopic property rely on which fundamental property for operation?

Back 129

Rigidity

Front 130

The deflection of a spinning wheel when a force is applied

Back 130

Precession

Front 131

Displays to a pilot the yaw and roll of the aircraft around the vertical and longitudinal axes

Back 131

Turn coordinator

Front 132

An instrument that is a combination of three instruments

Back 132

Horizontal Situation Indicator HSI

Front 133

Serves as a multi-purpose computer and can be used as a backup for the other displays in addition to providing terrain, route planning, checklists, weather information and aircraft schematics

Back 133

Multifunction Display MFD

Front 134

Instrument in the glass cockpit that replaces the attitude indicator, altimeter, radar altimeter, airspeed indicator, and glide slope indicator

Back 134

The primary flight display PFD

Front 135

Can be configured in either full compass configuration or segmented configuration

Back 135

Navigation Display

Front 136

A self-contained airborne collision avoidance system

Back 136

TCAS

Front 137

What is the main function of TCAS I?

Back 137

Generates traffic advisories only

Front 138

What is the main function of TCAS II?

Back 138

Generates traffic advisories and resolution advisories in the vertical plane

Front 139

What 3 instruments make up the HSI?

Back 139

Heading Indicator

VOR/LOC Indicator

Glide Slope Indicator

Front 140

Used in conjunction with the VOR system to show the pilot the exact distance from the VOR

Back 140

DME

Front 141

Provides accurate position, speed, and precise time information on a continuous global basis, reported in latitude and longitude

Back 141

GPS

Front 142

Incorporates navigation and communications radios into one unit

Back 142

NAV/COM

Front 143

Used to set beacon codes

Back 143

Transponder

Front 144

A computer system that uses a large database to allow routes to be preprogrammed and fed into the system by means of a data loader

Back 144

The Flight Management System FMS

Front 145

FMS displays (often referred to as the glass cockpit) include at a minimum:

Back 145

Primary flight display

Navigation display

Engine indicating and crew alerting system

Multifunction display

Front 146

Combines all the primary flight instruments into a single visual presentation, including heading, altitude, and vertical speed

Back 146

Primary flight display (PFD)

Front 147

Provides digital readout a of engine operating data such as fuel flow and temperatures, as well as an alerting capability to warn pilots when individual engine parameters are exceeded

Back 147

Engine Indicating and Crew Alerting System EICAS

Front 148

What are the 3 functions of TCAS?

Back 148

Surveillance

Collision Avoidance System CAS algorithms

Air-to-Air coordination using the data link provided by the Mode S transponder

Front 149

An insufficient supply of oxygen is called what?

Back 149

Hypoxic Hypoxia

Front 150

Inadequate transportation of oxygen through the body is called what?

Back 150

Hypemic Hypoxia

Front 151

Slow reactions, impaired thinking, unusual fatigue, and pilot sounding intoxicated, carefree or having a humorous attitude are all symptoms of what?

Back 151

Hypoxia

Front 152

What suggestion should a controller make if a pilot has no oxygen system?

Back 152

Defend the pilot below 10,000

Front 153

Occurs when there is an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs

Back 153

Hyperventilation

Front 154

Dizziness, nausea and drowsiness are all symptoms of what?

Back 154

Hyperventilation

Front 155

What is another word for Spatial disorientation?

Back 155

Vertigo

Front 156

The loss of proper bearings; State of mental confusion as to position, location, or movement relative to the position of the earth

Back 156

Spatial Disorientation or Vertigo

Front 157

Occur when an aircraft returns to straight-and-level flight, but the pilot feels compelled to lean into an imaginary turn which is still sense by the inner ear

Back 157

Leans

Front 158

Occurs when a pilot in a turn makes a sudden head movement

Back 158

Coriolis illusion

Front 159

Occurs via data-link where both aircraft are equipped with TCAS coordination between the two aircraft occurs prior to the issuance of any RA to ensure he RA issued to each a/c are in opposite directions and are compatible.

Back 159

Air-to-Air coordination

Front 160

What may be obtained from the attitude indicator?

Back 160

Degree of bank

Front 161

The major components of the pitot-static system are the ____?

Back 161

Impact and static pressure chambers, and lines

Front 162

The altimeter depends on which of the following for its operation?

Back 162

Static Air Vent

Front 163

How many possible transponder codes are there?

Back 163

4,096

Front 164

In most small a/c if the vacuum pump fails, which instruments become inoperative?

Back 164

Heading Indicator and attitude indicator

Front 165

Traffic alerts are issued to the a/c from the TCAS system how long prior to the Closest Point of Approach?

Back 165

45 seconds

Front 166

Resolution Advisories (RAs) from TCAS II are issued how long prior to the CPA?

Back 166

30 seconds

Front 167

Any pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II RA shall....?

Back 167

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable and expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved.

Front 168

True or False: TCAS knows the intent of aircraft?

Back 168

False. TCAS only shows projections based off calculations of both a/c and flight profiles using the last 3 or 4 track updates

Front 169

Occurs when the oxygen available to body tissues is insufficient to meet their needs

Back 169

Hypoxia

Front 170

Name the 5 things Hypoxia affects?

Back 170

Night vision

Judgment

Memory

Alertness

Coordination

Front 171

When does the greatest risk for hypoxia occur?

Back 171

As a result of ascent to altitude with its associated fall in ambient pressure

Front 172

How long does it take for pilot performance to deteriorate at 15,000 feet?

Back 172

15 minutes

Front 173

What are the 3 functions of TCAS?

Back 173

Surveillance

Collision Avoidance System CAS algorithms

Air-to-Air coordination using the data link provided by the Mode S transponder

Front 174

An insufficient supply of oxygen is called what?

Back 174

Hypoxic Hypoxia

Front 175

Inadequate transportation of oxygen through the body is called what?

Back 175

Hypemic Hypoxia

Front 176

Slow reactions, impaired thinking, unusual fatigue, and pilot sounding intoxicated, carefree or having a humorous attitude are all symptoms of what?

Back 176

Hypoxia

Front 177

What suggestion should a controller make if a pilot has no oxygen system?

Back 177

Defend the pilot below 10,000

Front 178

Occurs when there is an abnormal increase in the volume of air breathed in and out of the lungs

Back 178

Hyperventilation

Front 179

Dizziness, nausea and drowsiness are all symptoms of what?

Back 179

Hyperventilation

Front 180

What is another word for Spatial disorientation?

Back 180

Vertigo

Front 181

The loss of proper bearings; State of mental confusion as to position, location, or movement relative to the position of the earth

Back 181

Spatial Disorientation or Vertigo

Front 182

Occur when an aircraft returns to straight-and-level flight, but the pilot feels compelled to lean into an imaginary turn which is still sense by the inner ear

Back 182

Leans

Front 183

Occurs when a pilot in a turn makes a sudden head movement

Back 183

Coriolis illusion

Front 184

Occurs via data-link where both aircraft are equipped with TCAS coordination between the two aircraft occurs prior to the issuance of any RA to ensure he RA issued to each a/c are in opposite directions and are compatible.

Back 184

Air-to-Air coordination

Front 185

What may be obtained from the attitude indicator?

Back 185

Degree of bank

Front 186

The major components of the pitot-static system are the ____?

Back 186

Impact and static pressure chambers, and lines

Front 187

The altimeter depends on which of the following for its operation?

Back 187

Static Air Vent

Front 188

In most small a/c if the vacuum pump fails, which instruments become inoperative?

Back 188

Heading Indicator and attitude indicator

Front 189

Chart designed for slow and medium speed a/c flying in VFR

Back 189

Sectional Aeronautical Chart

Front 190

Sectional Charts are published how often?

Back 190

Every 6 months

Front 191

Traffic alerts are issued to the a/c from the TCAS system how long prior to the Closest Point of Approach?

Back 191

45 seconds

Front 192

Resolution Advisories (RAs) from TCAS II are issued how long prior to the CPA?

Back 192

30 seconds

Front 193

Any pilot who deviates from an ATC clearance in response to a TCAS II RA shall....?

Back 193

Notify ATC of the deviation as soon as practicable and expeditiously return to the current ATC clearance when the traffic conflict is resolved.

Front 194

Chart designed for slow and medium speed a/c flying in VFR

Back 194

Sectional Aeronautical Chart

Front 195

Sectional Charts are published how often?

Back 195

Every 6 months

Front 196

Found on which chart and Indicates what?

Back 196

Sectional Aeronautical Chart

Indicates points of elevation (large number in thousands, small number in hundreds)

Front 197

Found on which chart and Indicates what?

Back 197

Sectional Aeronautical Chart

Highest terrain elevation

Front 198

Found on which chart and What do the images pictured here indicate?

Back 198

Sectional Aeronautical Chart

(In order top to bottom)

(Blue indicated there is a tower at the airport, magenta indicates uncontrolled airport):

Other than hard surfaces runways

Hard surfaces runways 1,500- 8069ft in length

Hard surfaces runways greater than 8069 ft or some multiple runways less than 8069ft

Open dot with runway indicates VOR VOR-DME OR VORTAC placement

Front 199

A pilot can receive HIWAS broadcasts via the voice portion of a navigational aid of its communication box has a ____?

Back 199

Blue filled in circle with a white H

Front 200

A major difference between a Sectional Aeronautical Chart and a Terminal Area Chart is that the Terminal Area Chart _____?

Back 200

Provides greater detail and larger scale

Front 201

What is the scale of a VFR Terminal Area Chart?

Back 201

1 inch = 3.43NM

Front 202

What is the map scale of a sectional chart?

Back 202

1in = 6.86NM

Front 203

A Radio Magnetic Indicator (RMI) consists of 3 things, what are they?

Back 203

Rotating compass card

Double-barred bearing indicator

Single-barred bearing indicator

Front 204

Measures the rate of climb or decent in 100’s of feet per minute

Back 204

Vertical Speed Indicator (VSI)

Front 205

Dashed blue lines around an airport on an IFR Chart indicate what?

Back 205

Class C airspace

Front 206

A solid blue line around an airport on an IFR chart indicates what?

Back 206

Class B airspace

Front 207

A filled in directional beacon indicates it is a what? And means what?

Back 207

A Compulsory point, and it means a pilot must report to ATC when crossing that point

Front 208

On a VFR Sectional Chart, within the airport data, “18 L 100 122.8” the number 18 indicates _____?

Back 208

Airport Elevation

Front 209

The boundary of Class C airspace is depicted on a Sectional Aeronautical Chart by a solid _____ line.

Back 209

Magenta

Front 210

VFR Sectional Charts are published how often?

Back 210

Every 6 months

Front 211

The Chart Supplement is published how often?

Back 211

Every 56 days

Front 212

Localizer on-course indications are provided how many degrees on either side of the centerline?

Back 212

2.5 degrees on either side

Front 213

The Localizer off-course indications are provided to the pilot at a distance how far from the antenna?

Back 213

18NM from antenna, and 10 degrees either side from the antenna

From 10 to 35 degrees either side of the course along a 10NM radius

Front 214

This chart contains operating rules for flight in class B airspace

Back 214

VFR Terminal Area Chart

Front 215

This chart includes airport information, services available, radio and NAVAID data, and ATC services

Back 215

Chart Supplement

Front 216

VFR flyway planning charts are found on_____ (which type of chart)?

Back 216

VFR Terminal Area Charts

Front 217

Which document would be most useful to a controller when recommending a suitable airport to a pilot in the event of an emergency?

Back 217

Chart Supplement

Front 218

En Route Low Altitude Charts are designed to provide aeronautical information for en route navigation below____?

Back 218

18,000 MSL

Front 219

Which charts are used for navigation in instrument meteorological conditions on an IFR flight plan?

Back 219

En Route Low Altitude Charts

Front 220

End Route Low Altitude Charts depict airports with ____ &____.

Back 220

IAP & a runway greater than or equal to 3,000ft

Front 221

What does each color of airport mean on an IFR Low Altitude Chart?

Back 221

Blue - DOD approved IAP and runway greater than or equal to 3,000

Green - approved IAP and runway greater than or equal to 3,000

Brown - no approved IAP, but has runway greater than or equal to 3,000

Front 222

On an en Route Low Altitude Chart VHF/UHF NAVAIDS are what color? What color are LF/MF NAVAIDS?

Back 222

VHF/UHF - black

LF/MF - Brown

Front 223

How is Class C airspace depicted on an En Route Low Altitude Chart? Class B?

Back 223

Class C - Dashed Blue Line

Class B - solid blue

Front 224

The lowest published altitude in effect between radio fixes on VOR airways, off-airway routes, or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements for the entire route segment and which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage only within 25SM (22NM) of a VOR

Back 224

Minimum Obstruction Clearance Altitude (MOCA)

Front 225

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes

Back 225

Minimum En Route Altitude (MEA)

Front 226

A published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. It is the highest altitude at which adequate reception of navigation aids signals is assured.

Back 226

Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA)

Front 227

The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined

Back 227

Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)

Front 228

The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA

Back 228

Minimum Crossing Altitude MCA

Front 229

The lowest published altitude between radio fixes which assures acceptable navigational signal coverage and meets obstacle clearance requirements between those fixes

Back 229

Minimum En Route Altitude (MEA)

Front 230

A published altitude representing the maximum usable altitude or flight level for an airspace structure or route segment. It is the highest altitude at which adequate reception of navigation aids signals is assured.

Back 230

Maximum Authorized Altitude (MAA)

Front 231

The lowest altitude at which an intersection can be determined

Back 231

Minimum Reception Altitude (MRA)

Front 232

The lowest altitude at certain fixes at which an aircraft must cross when proceeding in the direction of a higher MEA

Back 232

Minimum Crossing Altitude MCA

Front 233

True or False: a pilot must always report over compulsory reporting points while in radar contact

Back 233

False, a pilot is only required to report when not on radar contact

Front 234

Describe an Off Route Obstruction Clearance Altitude (ORCOA)

Back 234

Depicted on IFR charts and is the minimum altitude allowable in that quadrant (with a 1,000 or 2,000 foot buffer depending on terrain)

Front 235

What color are Prohibited, Restricted, and Warning Areas on an En Route low Altitude Chart?

Back 235

Blue hatched boundary

Front 236

What color are Prohibited, Restricted, and Warning Areas on an En Route low Altitude Chart?

Back 236

Blue hatched boundary

Front 237

What color are Alert Areas and MOA’s on an En Route Sectional Chart?

Back 237

Light brown hatched boundary

Front 238

What is the map scale for an En Route High Altitude Chart?

Back 238

1in=20NM

Front 239

End Route High Altitude Charts depict airports with what?

Back 239

Hard surface runway at least 5,000 ft long

Front 240

Class A airspace is depicted on En Route High Altitude Charts by...?

Back 240

The open white areas

Front 241

Class G airspace is depicted on En Route High Altitude Charts by...?

Back 241

Brown shading where it exists above 18,000 MSL

Front 242

What is the scale for an IFR Area Chart?

Back 242

1in = 5-8 Miles

Front 243

When is terrain charted on an IFR Area Chart?

Back 243

When the terrain rises at least 1,000 ft above the primary airport’s elevation

Front 244

A departure procedure for pilot/controller use to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure

Back 244

Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)

Front 245

A departure procedure for pilot/controller use to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure

Back 245

Standard Instrument Departures (SIDs)

Front 246

An arrival procedure published for pilot/controller use to provide a transition from the en route structure into the terminal area

Back 246

Standard Terminal Arrival (STAR)

Front 247

A preplanning instrument flight rule (IFR) departure procedure published for pilot use, in graphic or textual format, that provides obstruction clearance from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure

Back 247

Instrument Departure Procedures (DPs)

Front 248

A preplanned IFR departure procedure printed for pilot use in textual or graphic form to provide obstruction clearance via the least onerous route from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure

Back 248

Obstacle Departure Procedures (ODP)

Front 249

A preplanned IFR ATC Departure Procedures printed for pilot/controller use in graphic form to provide obstacle clearance and a transition from the terminal area to the appropriate en route structure

Back 249

Standard Instrument Departure (SID)

Front 250

A SID that requires ATC to provide radar vectors from just after takeoff until reaching the assigned route or a fix depicted on the SID chart

Back 250

Vector SID

Front 251

A SID designed to allow pilots to provide their own navigation with minimal radio communication

Back 251

Pilot Navigational

Front 252

What are the three types of sections on a SID chart?

Back 252

Margin Information

Planview

Textual Description

Front 253

Referring to SIDs, when is a pilot expected to advise ATC?

Back 253

If they cannot comply with a SID

If they do not possess a SID chart

If they do not wish to fly a SID

Front 254

If a pilot declines a SID, what are they encouraged to do on the flight plan?

Back 254

Include the phrase “NO SID”

Front 255

A specific departure route from an airport or terminal area to an en route point where there is NO further need for flow control

Back 255

Preferential Departure Route (PDR)

Front 256

SID’s are designed to do what?

Back 256

For system enhancement to expedite traffic flow and to reduce pilot/controller workload

Front 257

When searching for a SID, you search for what First?

Back 257

City first, then the airport servicing that city

Front 258

True or false: pilot navigation is involved in Vector SIDs?

Back 258

False, Pilot Navigation is NOT involved in Vector SIDs

Front 259

Long range planning tools that funnel traffic into one-way corridors

Back 259

STARs and their related transitions

Front 260

STAR information is for planning purposes and are “expect” clearances and should not be executed until?

Back 260

The controller issues the clearance

Front 261

A STAR is designed to facilitate transition between____ and ____?

Back 261

En route and terminal area

Front 262

A series of predetermined maneuvers by reference to flight instruments with specified protection from obstacles from the initial approach fix, or where applicable, from the beginning of a defined arrival route to a point from which a landing can be completed thereafter if a landing is not completed, to a position at which holding or en route obstacle clearance criteria apply

Back 262

Standard Instrument Approach Procedure (SIAP)

Front 263

SIAPs are designed to...

Back 263

Provide IFR descent from an en route environment to a point where a safe landing can be made

&

Guide a/c through IFR conditions to a point where the runway can be seen

Front 264

The segment between the intermediate fix or point and the final approach fix

Back 264

Intermediate Approach Segment

Front 265

The segment between the final approach fix or point and the runway, airport, or missed approach point

Back 265

Final Approach Segment

Front 266

The segment between the missed approach point or the point of arrival at decision height and the missed approach fix at the prescribed altitude

Back 266

Missed Approach Segment

Front 267

A non-precision approach used only by the military

Back 267

TACAN Approach

Front 268

If the Glide Slope of an ILS is inoperative, the Approach is then called what?

Back 268

A Localizer Approach

Front 269

A non-precision approach conducted with surveillance radar that provides azimuth and range only. The approach is conducted with ATC personnel communicating with the pilot via radio

Back 269

ASR Approach

Front 270

What are the 6 sections in a SIAP?

Back 270

Margin Information

Pilot Briefing Information

Planview

Airport Diagram

Profile View

Minimums Section

Front 271

An emergency altitude to be used within 25 NM of the NAVAID upon which the approach is predicated

Back 271

Minimum Safe Altitude MSA

Front 272

A specified altitude on an IAP at which the pilot must decide whether to continue the approach or initiate an immediate missed approach if the pilot does not see the required visual references

Back 272

Decision Altitude DA

Front 273

The lowest altitude to which decent is authorized on final approach or during circle-to-land maneuvering in execution of a standard Instrument approach procedure where no electronic glideslope is provided

Back 273

Minimum Descent Altitude MDA

Front 274

The height of the Decision Height or Minimum Descent Altitude above the highest runway elevation in the Touchdown Zone

Back 274

Height Above Touchdown

Front 275

The height of the Minimum Descent Altitude above the published airport elevation

Back 275

Height Above Airport

Front 276

Conducted on an IFR flight plan which authorizes the pilot to proceed visually and clear of clouds to the airport in

Back 276

Visual Approach

Front 277

What do the weather conditions need to be for an aircraft on an IFR flight plan to conduct a Visual Approach?

Back 277

Ceiling at or above 1,000 ft and visibility of 3 miles or greater

Front 278

In a radar environment, to vector an aircraft for visual approach, the ceiling at the airport of intended landing must be ____ feet above the minimum vectoring altitude and the visibility is ___ miles or greater

Back 278

500 feet and 3 miles

Front 279

Found on which chart and indicate what?

Back 279

Prohibited, restricted and warning area

Alert area, MOA

Special airport traffic area

ADIZ

Mode C

National security area

TRSA

MTR - military training route