Aip Australia Aerodromes Enr

Front 1

Temporarily Displaced Thresholds Markers and Markings.

Back 1

Inverted white "V" markings painted across the runway;
or
One or two Vee-Bee (or Strobe Lights) markers on the sides of the runway;
or
Military - four white cones on both sides of runway.

Hint 1

Front 2

Sealed area beyond the Runway;

Back 2

If not suitable for normal use it's marked by yellow VEE BARS

Hint 2

Front 3

Runway centreline markers are ____m long and ___m apart

Back 3

30 m long and 30 m apart

Front 4

What's the significance of this taxiway marking?

Back 4

New Hold Position Marking

Taxiway/Runway Intersection and LAHSO Hold-Short Position

Front 5

What's the significance of this taxiway marking?

Back 5

Additional Holding Position associated with Cat I, II or III Precision Approach Runways

Hint 5

Only applies when advised by ATC.

Front 6

Consider Aircraft Primary Parking Position Markings.

Back 6

Front 7

What does a secondary parking position look like?

Back 7

Secondary parking positions are identified by a line of yellow dots.

Where it can accommodate aircraft with a wing span of 15m or greater it will be identified with a keyhole marking.

Hint 7

Where it can not accommodate aircraft with a wing span of 15m or greater it will be identified with a triangle marking.

Front 8

What are these taxiway signs?

When can you pass them.

Back 8

Rwy 25 End Holding Point and an intermediate Holding position on Rwy 25 - 07

Hint 8

Must have clearance from ATC to cross or if the control tower is not in operation, at pilots discretion.

Front 9

What does this sign mean?

Back 9

Runway intersection sign used in LAHSO intersections.

Positioned both sides of the runway 75m to the intersecting runways centre line.

Front 10

Runway edge lighting?

Back 10

Longitudinal spacing of 60m for instrument runways.

Up to 90m for non-instrument runways and non-precision approach runways at country aerodromes.

Front 11

What colour are the final 600m of runway edge lights on Precision Approach Cat I II runways?

Back 11

Yellow

Front 12

What colour are the Runway Centreline lights?

Back 12

White until 900m from the end then red/white, then all red for the last 300m.

Front 13

Touchdown zone lights consist of?

Back 13

Fifteen pairs of uni-directional white barrettes for the first 900m of the runway.

Front 14

Taxiway Lights.

Edge colour

Centerline colour

Back 14

Edge colour is Blue

Centerline colour is Green

Front 15

Runway Exit Lights are what colour?

Back 15

On runway exit taxiways, alternate green/yellow lights at 15m spacing up to the taxi holding position.

Front 16

Rapid-Exit taxiway lights

Back 16

Centreline lighting at 15m spacing continues until incorporated into normal taxiway lights.

Front 17

LAHSO Hold short lights consist of?

Back 17

Six White occulting unidirectional lights no closer than 75m from the intersecting runway centre-line.

Hint 17

You can Take-Off over LAHSO occulting lights.

Landing you must hold short if "LAND AND HOLD SHORT"

Front 18

Calvert and ALSF Cat I approach lights

Back 18

Front 19

CAT II or III approach lights

Back 19

Front 20

Pilot Activated Lighting (PAL)

Remains illuminated for how long and how do you know when it's about to time out.

Back 20

Remains illuminated 30 or 60 minutes and in the last 10 minutes the (white) wind sock indicator light flashes continuously.

Front 21

When unable to receive an ATC clearance for weather deviation, what is the procedure?

Back 21

If possible deviate away from organized tracks, transmit on 121.5 and 123.45, keep visual and TCAS lookout and turn on exterior lights

Hint 21

Maintain level unless deviating greater than 10 nm or follow this criteria;


AIP ENR 2.2 - 3
1.6.2

Front 22

Holding; an exit hold time allows what time buffer?

Back 22

You should endeavour to leave on time but 1 minute early is acceptable

Hint 22

AIP ENR 1.1 - 27

Front 23

When should a pilot commence a level change?

Back 23

As soon as possible but no later than 1 minute after instructed.

Hint 23

AIP ENR 1.7 - 8
4.1.1

Front 24

What is meant by "STANDARD RATE"?

Back 24

Specifies a rate of Climb or Descent of not less than 500 fpm and the last 1000 ft must be at 500 fpm.

Hint 24

AIP ENR 1.7 - 8
4.1.9

AIP ENR 1.7 - 8
4.1.9

Front 25

PBN/T1 in field 18 of the flight notification indicates?

Back 25

The flight can accept a RNP AR departure.

Hint 25

AIP ENR 1.1 - 4
3.21.4

AIP ENR 1.5 - 45
10.3.3

Front 26

How soon before departure would you contact ATC if PDC was not received?

Back 26

15 minutes

Hint 26

AIP ENR 1.1 - 7
3.24.5

Front 27

What are the read back requirements after receipt of PDC?

Back 27

SID
Include RWY and transition
STAR (if issued)
Transponder code
Any other requirements

Advise Parking Bay

Hint 27

AIP ENR 1.1 - 7 3.24.7

Front 28

Above what limit will ATC advice wind component in a takeoff clearance?

Back 28

Above 12 kts crosswind
Any downwind

Hint 28

AIP ENR 1.1 - 10
4.4

Front 29

If the runway advised on the ATIS is not suitable, when should you advice ATC?

Back 29

ATC must be advised before taxiing or when requesting an airways clearance.

Inbound advise by 120 nm

"REQUIRE RUNWAY...."

Hint 29

AIP ENR 1.1 - 11
4.6

AIP ENR 1.1 - 28
14.2

Front 30

An aircraft will not be permitted to commence take-off until;

Back 30

Preceding departure has;
Crossed the upwind end
Commenced a turn
Rwy > 1800m, airborne past 1800m
Preceding landing has vacated or LAHSO holds short.

Hint 30

AIP ENR 1.1 - 13
5.5.1

Front 31

At certain Class D aerodromes using procedural control, departure report includes;

Back 31

departure time (adjusted as if overhead),

Tracking information or SID identifier,
Unless otherwise instructed, be on track by 5nm,

Level passing and climbing to.

Hint 31

AIP ENR 1.1 - 15

Front 32

What speed variation on descent must be advised to ATC?

Back 32

Greater than 10 kts or 0.025 M

Hint 32

AIP ENR 1.1 - 20
12.1.1

Front 33

May a pilot of an IFR flight request a visual departure?

Back 33

OK by day in VMC if the cloud base is above the MSA/LSALT for the route.

When ATC offers a visual departure, the cloud base must be above the MVA (radar) or MSA/LSALT (non radar)

Hint 33

AIP ENR 1.1 - 14
6.2

Front 34

What is the tolerance when reporting present altitude?

Back 34

To the nearest 100 ft.

Hint 34

AIP ENR 1.1 - 15

Front 35

ATC Authorisation;

Visual Approach by day for an IFR flight;

Back 35

By Day;

Within 30nm of the aerodrome

In sight of ground or water

5 km Visibility

Hint 35

AIP ENR 1.1 - 24
12.8.1

Front 36

ATC Authorisation;

Visual Approach at night for an IFR flight;

Back 36

By Night;

Within 30nm of the aerodrome
In sight of ground or water (to the field)
5km Visibility

ATS surveillance service and assigned the MVA on a heading or track to intercept final or the circling area.

Hint 36

AIP ENR 1.1.- 24
12.8.1

Front 37

In CTA what are the tracking requirements for a visual approach?

Back 37

Maintain the assigned track/heading until 5nm by Day or the circling area at Night then join the circuit.

Hint 37

AIP ENR 1.1 - 25
12.8.4

Front 38

Minimum Altitude Requirements;

During the conduct of a visual approach, a pilot must descend as necessary to;

Back 38

By Day;

Remain 500 ft above CTA steps and,

Above any city, town or populous area at a height not lower than 1,000 feet;
or any other area at a height not lower than 500 feet.

Hint 38

By Night;

Not below LSALT/MSA or DME/GPS step or 500 feet above CTA steps if higher or if ATS last assigned altitude until;
Within the circling area and the aerodrome is in sight, or
Within 5nm (7nm ILS Rwy) not below "on slope" on PAPI or T-VASIS, or
10nm (14nm SY 16L, 34L) not below ILS G/S and LOC alive.

AIP ENR 1.1 - 25
12.8.5

Front 39

If Holding, when would ATC an expected landing (radar) or approach (procedural) time.

Back 39

Where delay of more than 5 minutes is expected.

Hint 39

AIP ENR 1.1 - 27
13.1

Front 40

What is the expected speed leaving an en route holding pattern.

Back 40

250 kts

Hint 40

AIP ENR 1.1 - 27
13.7

Front 41

Separation Minima for Landing

Back 41

Landing A/C not permitted to cross the threshold until a departing aircraft had commenced a turn or is beyond a point the landing aircraft is expected to need and there is manoeuvring space for a missed approach.
Preceding landing aircraft has vacated the runway or holding short in LAHSO.

Hint 41

AIP ENR 1.1 - 29
14.6.2

Front 42

A pilot must inform ATS if the average cruising speed, TAS or MACH, varies en route by what amount?

Back 42

5% TAS and 0.01 M from that on the flight plan.

Hint 42

AIP ENR 1.1 - 43
21.1.6

Front 43

An aircraft engaged in parachute operations in a CTAF should give a call when?

Back 43

2 minutes prior to parachutists exiting the aircraft.

Hint 43

AIP ENR 1.1 - 43
21.1.9

Front 44

Procedures for total loss of radio in-flight.

Back 44

a. Try to re-establish coms by all other means
b. If un-successful
Squawk 7600
Broadcast in the blind & 121.5 (123.45)
Watch for conflicting traffic
Turn on all exterior lights
Maintain the last assigned speed and level for 60 minutes following failure to report position then in accordance with flight plan
Consider a SLOP strategic lateral offset 1 or 2 nm Right

Hint 44

AIP ENR 1.1 - 49
21.2.8

Front 45

Can GNSS be substituted for DME?

Back 45

Yes

When asked for a distance advice the source, eg;

"257 GNSS BEZZA", etc

Hint 45

AIP ENR 1.1 - 51

Front 46

Aircraft on the same ILS are separated by how far?

Back 46

minimum 3nm or as required by wake turbulence.

Hint 46

AIP ENR 1.1 - 53
24.2.2

Front 47

Flying a PRM approach, TCAS should be selected?

Back 47

Left in the RA mode

If following an RA, compliance with the turn portion of a BREAKOUT alert is mandatory unless safety is a prohibiting factor.

Hint 47

AIP ENR 1.1 - 55
24.5.1/2

Front 48

LAHSO may be conducted subject to the following conditions,

Not inclusive.

Back 48

Simultaneous T/O's & Landings by DAY only.
Simultaneous Landings any time.
Ceiling not below MVA and 8 km,
Visibility may be reduced to 5 km by ATC assured of sighting A/C.
When runway Damp or Wet the braking must be assessed as GOOD.
For active participant, ground based visual or electronic G/S guidance must be used.

Hint 48

AIP ENR 33.1

Front 49

RVSM applies between which levels in Australia?

Back 49

FL290 and FL410 inclusive.

Hint 49

AIP ENR 1.1 - 64
39.1.1

Front 50

Minimum mandatory equipment for RVSM airspace includes;

Back 50

two independent primary altimetry systems
a Mode C SSR transponder
an altitude alerting system
Autopilot with height lock

Failure of any equipment, advise ATC;
"NEGATIVE RVSM"

Hint 50

AIP ENR 1.1 - 65
39.3.1

AIP ENR 1.1 - 66 39.4.6/7/8

Front 51

During chage of level in RVSM airspace you should not overshoot a cleared flight level by more than?

Back 51

150 ft

Hint 51

AIP ENR 1.1 - 65
39.4.1

Front 52

What is the maximum divergence of primary Altimeters in RVSM airspace?

Back 52

200 ft.

Hint 52

AIP ENR 1.1 - 66
39.4.5

Front 53

Flight Crew must report flight level deviations of _____ ft or more to
Australian Airspace Monitoring Agency
Safety & Assurance Group
by post email or fax

Back 53

300 ft

Hint 53

AIP ENR 1.1 - 68
39.7

Front 54

Operating in class G airspace,

What is the maximum circuit speed?

Back 54

200 kt

Hint 54

AIP ENR 1.1 - 70
41.1.3

Front 55

An IFR RPT Flight may depart a non towered class G aerodrome if unable to contact ATC providing;

Back 55

the pilot is assured of radio contact with his or her operator or representative who has immediate access to a serviceable telephone.

Hint 55

AIP ENR 1.1 - 69
40.1

Front 56

Taxi report to ATC for IFR RPT from non towered class G airports includes;

Back 56

A/C type
IFR
location
destination or departure quadrant or intentions
runway to be used

Hint 56

AIP ENR 1.1 - 72
42.2

Front 57

When an aerodrome forecast is not available or "provisional" you should?

Back 57

Make provision for a suitable alternate.

Hint 57

AIP ENR 1.1 - 87
58.1.3

Front 58

What buffers apply to FM or BECMG?

Back 58

30 minute conservative buffers apply.

Hint 58

AIP ENR 1.1 - 88
58.2.7

Front 59

What buffers apply to
INTER
TEMPO

Back 59

30 minutes for both.

Hint 59

AIP ENR 1.1 - 89
58.2.8

Front 60

For IFR flights to aerodromes without an instrument approach, the alternate minima is?

Back 60

the lowest safe altitude for the last route segment plus 500 ft and a visibility of 8 km.

Not more than SCT @ LSALT + 500'
8km

Hint 60

AIP ENR 1.1 - 89
58.2.12

AIP ENR 1.1 - 90
58.3.2

Front 61

RPT IFR destination navaid requirements;

Back 61

destination served by a navaid with prescribed instrument approach and you have two independent receivers or;

destination has two nav aids with instrument procedures and you have two independent receivers

Hint 61

AIP ENR 1.1 - 90
58.3.1

Front 62

How does a Partial Runway Lighting Failure, double spacing 60m to 120m, affect published minima

Back 62

must multiply published minima visibility by 1.5

Hint 62

AIP ENR 1.1 - 92
58.4.8

Front 63

Can a RPT flight at night proceed if the wind direction indicator lighting is U/S?

Back 63

Only if wind velocity information can be obtained from an approved observer

Hint 63

AIP ENR 1.1 - 93
59.1

Front 64

For B738 operations the minimum runway width is

Back 64

30 M

Hint 64

AIP ENR 1.1 - 95
59.2.3

Front 65

When aerodrome lighting other than PAL is being used, when should it be operating?

Back 65

10 minutes prior to departure to 30 minutes after take-off;

30 minutes prior to ETA until taxi has stopped.

Hint 65

AIP ENR 1.1 - 96
59.4.1

Front 66

The term

"MINIMUM FUEL"

means?

Back 66

Any change to the existing clearance may result in landing with less than planned fixed fuel reserve.

Hint 66

AIP ENR 1.1 - 98
60.5.1

Front 67

The term

"MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY FUEL"

means?

Back 67

Predicted fuel upon landing at the nearest aerodrome is less than planned fixed fuel reserve.

Hint 67

AIP ENR 1.1 - 98
60.6.1

Front 68

If a discrete CTAF frequency (from ERSA and ERC Low) is not listed for a non tower aerodrome, use;

Back 68

Multicom 126.7 MHZ

Hint 68

AIP ENR 1.4 - 8
3.2.1

Front 69

Separation for B738 (Medium) behind an
A380 Super
B747 Heavy
other Medium

Back 69

T/O behind a Super is 3 minutes or 4 using intermediate.
7nm on Approach

behind a Heavy is 2 minutes or 3 minutes using an intermediate
5nm on Approach

none for Medium to Medium

Hint 69

AIP ENR 1.4 - 15
9.2.2

9.2.3

Front 70

Cat C & D circling areas are;

Back 70

C = 4.20 nm (7.8 km)
D = 5.28 nm (9.8 km)

Hint 70

AIP ENR 1.5 - 4
1.7.6

Front 71

Cat C handling speeds;

Back 71

Vat 121 -140
Initial 160 - 240
Final 115 - 160
Circling 180
Missed App 240

Hint 71

AIP ENR 1.5 - 13
1.16.1

Front 72

What is the maximum RoD after the final approach fix?

Back 72

Not normally exceed 1,000 fpm.

Hint 72

AIP ENR 1.5 - 15
1.20.2

Front 73

"Established" on the inbound track of an approach means;

Back 73

Within half scale deflection for the ILS VOR and GNSS, within 5 deg on the ADF or within 2nm of a DME arc.

Hint 73

AIP ENR 1.5 - 15 1.21.2

Front 74

Approach procedures are based on what bank angle?

Back 74

25 deg AoB or what ever produces a rate one turn, whichever is less.

Hint 74

AIP ENR 1.5 - 15
1.23.1

Front 75

25nm and 10 nm MSA provides how much obstacle clearance?

Back 75

1000 ft

Hint 75

AIP ENR 1.5 - 16
2.2.1

Front 76

Reversal procedures must be entered from a track within what angle of the outbound.

Back 76

Within 30 degrees of the outbound track.

Hint 76

AIP ENR 1.5 - 21
2.7.3

Front 77

Holding Speeds and timing in Australia.

Back 77

Up to FL140 230 kts
Above FL140 to FL200 240 kts
Above FL200 265 kts

Above the highest MSA in turbulent conditions, up to 280kts/0.8M subject to ATC approval in CTA.

Up to FL140 1 minute
Above FL140 1.5 minutes

Hint 77

AIP ENR 1.5 - 22
3.2

Front 78

Can an RV assessment be used as a substitute for a RVR observation?

Back 78

NO.

RV is not a substitute for a required RVR observation and CANNOT be used;
a. for CAT II and III approaches, or
b. for CAT I approached below 800m, or
c. Low vis take-offs below 350m

Hint 78

AIP ENR 1.5 - 27
4.2.3

Front 79

Take-off minima for company 737 operations?

Back 79

Ceiling of zero feet
Visibility of 550m on runways with edge lighting not exceeding 60m spacing and centre line lighting or marking. If the aerodrome is non-controlled or without ATC, then by day only and carriage of radio must be mandatory;

Otherwise 800m

Hint 79

AIP ENR 1.5 - 28
4.3.2

Front 80

Conditions of using take-off minima down to a zero ceiling and 550 or 800m.

Back 80

a. If following an engine failure, a return to land is required, weather must be at or above instrument approach and landing minima or such to allow a visual approach.

b. following EFATO at V1, terrain clearance is assured until LSALT or MSA.

c. If return is not possible, performance available to suitable airport considering route distance limitations

Hint 80

AIP ENR 1.5 - 28
4.3.3

Front 81

When HIALS is Inoperative you must adjust what?

Back 81

Loc minima add 900m

ILS minima of 1.5 km required.

Hint 81

AIP ENR 1.5 - 31
4.7

Front 82

Minimum 1.2 km visibility is required on an ILS approach unless;

Back 82

Using a coupled ILS or manual flight with flight Director, and

Serviceable failure warning system for altitude and heading, and

HIRL, high intensity runway lights available.

Hint 82

AIP ENR 1.5 - 31
4.7.3

Front 83

What are considered Low Visibility Operations?

Back 83

An Approach with minima less than CAT I; or

A take-off with visibility below 550m.

Hint 83

AIP ENR 1.5 - 32
4.8.1

Front 84

If low visibility procedures are in force are ILS sensitive areas protected?

Back 84

Only at aerodromes with published CAT II or III approaches.

Hint 84

AIP ENR 1.5 - 33
4.9.2

Front 85

Approved sources of actual QNH are;

Back 85

ATC, ATIS, AWIS and CASA-approved meteorological observers.

Valid for 15 minutes from the time of receipt.

(METAR QNH does not normally meet this requirement but we are ok within 15 minutes of observation)

Hint 85

AIP ENR 1.5 - 34
5.3.2

Front 86

With regard to sector entries, describe how to calculate which sector to use if using Jepperson Charts

Back 86

As these charts do not give a diagrammatic indication, you would break it up to give a 110 deg sector outside and 70 deg sector inside the inbound of the holding pattern to form sector three, the opposite 110 degree sector is sector one and the 70 degree sector remaining is sector two.

Hint 86

AIP ENR 1.5 - 24
3.3.1

Front 87

When will ATC protect the ILS critical areas and what are the exceptions?

Back 87

Ceiling at or below 600 ft and 2000m except landing/vacating aircraft and when A/C outside the OM or 4 nm.

Hint 87

AIP ENR 1.5 - 36
7.4.4

Front 88

Conducting a CAT II approach, when are the ILS Critical area and Sensitive areas.

Back 88

When cloud is below 200ft or Vis less than 550m;

Critical areas are protected for aircraft inside the OM or 4nm.

Sensitive areas are protected once the aircraft is within 2nm.
- No traffic allowed within

Hint 88

AIP ENR 1.5 - 37
7.4.6

http://www.google.com.au/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&source=web&cd=2&ved=0CCMQFjAB&url=http%3A%2F%2Ficasc.co%2Fsites%2Ffaa%2Fuploads%2Fdocuments%2Fresources%2F15th_int_flight_inspection_symposium%2Fils_critical_sensitive.pdf&ei=T7CeU-rSGoHlkAWsgoDwBQ&usg=AFQjCNEVxdvM_wcXxAVJlBe-T1MkaHBGQw&sig2=Zlg-svi63x83ip4d_XWfVA&bvm=bv.68911936,d.dGI

Front 89

If conditions are better than 600 ft or 2000m and Pilots inform ATC their intention to conduct and Autoland or lower than a CAT I approach, what protection is provided?

Back 89

This simply enhances the possibility ATC may enform "ILS CRITICAL/SENSITIVE AREA NOT PROTECTED"

Hint 89

AIP ENR 1.5 - 37
7.4.7

Front 90

On departure, unless varied by ATC, DAP or ERSA, when must you commence acceleration to 250 kts?

Back 90

Acceleration to 250 kts no later than 3,000 ft.

Hint 90

AIP ENR 1.5 - 40
8.4.2

Front 91

When may an IFR flight request or accept a visual Departure?

Back 91

VMC by day.

Hint 91

AIP ENR 1.5 - 40
8.4.7

Front 92

SID's are designed with what standard obstacle clearance?

Back 92

2.5% gradient of obstacles plus 0.8% clearance = 3.3%.

Where initial required gradient is greater than 3.3%, the required gradient is stated.

Hint 92

AIP ENR 1.5 - 41
8.5.2

Front 93

What are the standard flight parameters used in a SID

Back 93

15 deg average bank angle and
290 kts max for turning departures

Hint 93

AIP ENR 1.5 - 41
8.5.5

Front 94

Standard Terminal Area Arrival Speeds are;

For Brisbane, Melbourne and Perth;

Back 94

250 kts from A100
230 kts from 20nm (or as per STAR)
185 - 160 kts at 10nm
160 - 150 kts at 5nm

Still apply if given a visual approach.

Hint 94

AIP ENR 1.5 - 48
11.1.5

11.5.1

Front 95

Following radio failure;

A steady GREEN light indicates

A steady RED light indicates

Green Flashes

Red Flashes

Back 95

Steady Green - Authorized to Land

Steady Red - Give way and continue circling, (Stop taxi)

Green Flashes - return to land or ok to taxi.

Red Flashes - Aerodrome unsafe or taxi clear of landing area.

Hint 95

AIP ENR 1.5 - 52
13.1

Front 96

At what distance would you contact the tower on your own initiative if not advised by the approach controller?

Back 96

4 nm

Hint 96

AIP ENR 1.6 - 3
3.15

Front 97

The pilot of an aircraft encountering an emergency in flight should squawk code;

Back 97

7700

Hint 97

AIP ENR 1.6 - 6
6.4.1

Front 98

Subject to unlawful interference you would squawk code;

Back 98

7500

Hint 98

AIP ENR 1.6 - 6
6.4.2

Front 99

An Aircraft losing two-way communications squawks code;

Back 99

7600

Hint 99

AIP ENR 1.6 - 6
6.4.3

Front 100

What are the standard transponder codes in CTA and OCTA?

Back 100

CTA 3000

OCTA 2000

or as assigned

Hint 100

AIP ENR 1.6 - 8
7.1.4

Front 101

Maximum difference in Area QNH is?

Back 101

5 HPA

Hint 101

AIP ENR 1.7 - 3
2.2.2 b

Front 102

FL110 must not be used if area QNH is below?

FL115?

FL120?

Back 102

FL110 NA if Area QNH below 1013 HPA

FL115 - 997 HPA

FL120 - 980 HPA

Hint 102

AIP 1.7 - 3
2.4.1

Front 103

Briefly describe the IFR pre-flight altimeter check.

Back 103

With accurate QNH set, altimeters should read within 60 ft of elevation. One may be up to 75 ft out but must be within 60 ft at point of first landing or it's considered U/S.

Hint 103

AIP ENR 1.7 - 1
1.2

Front 104

When must you commence a level change?

Back 104

As soon as possible but no later than one minute after receiving that instruction from ATC.

Hint 104

AIP ENR 1.7 - 8
4.1.1

Front 105

Describe step climb RT procedures.

Back 105

a. Lower climbing aircraft reports approaching each assigned level.

b. higher aircraft on hearing lower aircraft, reports last vacated level.

Hint 105

AIP ENR 1.7 - 8
4.1.7

Front 106

All aircraft subject to a ground delay program must operate within what time of their COBT?

Calculated off Blocks Time

Back 106

-5/+15 minutes

Hint 106

AIP ENR 1.9 - 3
3.4

Front 107

Which takes precedence, a Perth Departure COBT or Sydney/Brisbane arrival COBT?

Back 107

The Perth Departure COBT has precedence.

Hint 107

AIP ENR 1.9 - 3

3.3

Front 108

Immediately Reportable Matters (IRM) or;

Routine Reportable Matters (RRM),

must be reported how?

Back 108

IRM's by phone as soon as practical on 1800 011 034 and both followed up with a written report within 72 hours - ASAIR.

Hint 108

AIP ENR 1.14 - 2

1.2.3

Front 109

OCEANIC CONTROL AREA

Weather deviations - Revised ATC Clearance Not Obtained??

Back 109

Avoid deviations onto another organized route/track, broadcast 121.5/123.45, Lookout & monitor TCAS, Exterior lights ON, Maintain level < 10nm or > 10nm descent 300 ft if North or track or climb 300 ft if South of track.

Hint 109

AIP ENR 2.2 - 3

1.6.2

Front 110

OCEANIC CONTROL AREA

Non - Weather deviations - Revised ATC Clearance Not Obtained??

Rapid descent / turn back / diversion etc

Back 110

Avoid deviations onto another organized route/track, broadcast 121.5/123.45, Lookout & monitor TCAS, Exterior lights ON,

Turn at Least 45 deg right or left and offset at 15nm.

Hint 110

AIP ENR 2.2 - 4

1.8

Front 111

Stategic Lateral Offset Procedure OCA

Back 111

1 or 2 nm Right.

Only OCA not CTA and must advise ATC only if identified.

Clearance not required.

Hint 111

AIP ENR 2.2 - 7

2