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56 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Aircraft fuel requirements are" Must have enough usable fuel to complete the flight...
A) To a final landing B) To a final landing at the destination or alternate C) To a final landing at the destination or alternate, plus the fuel reserve D) To a missed approach at the destination, final landing at the alternate, plus the fuel reserve E) All of the above |
C) To a final landing at the destination or alternate, plus the fuel reserve |
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When an alternate is required and the pilot uses the visibility-only weather criterion to determine the suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel:
A) need not include the fuel required for an approach at the original destination B) must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at the original destination C) need not include fuel for an approach at the alternate D) must include a fuel reserve of 25 percent of total flight time or 30 minutes, whichever is higher |
B) must include fuel for an approach and missed approach at the original destination |
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When an alternate is required and the pilot uses the ceiling and visibility weather criterion to determine the suitability of the original destination, total flight plan fuel: A) must include the fuel required for an approach at the original destination B) need not include fuel for an approach and missed approach at the original destination C) need not include fuel for an approach at the alternate D) must include a fuel reserve of 25 percent of total flight time or 30 minutes, whichever is higher |
B) need not include fuel for an approach and missed approach at the original destination |
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The required fuel reserves on each flight must increase the total planned flight time by:
A) 10% B) 10% or 20 min, whichever is greater C) 10% (up to 45 min max) or 20 min, whichever is greater D) amount of fuel required to reach your alternate and land with 150 pounds |
C) 10% (up to 45 min max) or 20 min, whichever is greater |
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When computing fuel reserves for turbine-powered aircraft, you should use fuel flow for:
A) cruise conditions B) maximum endurance C) maximum possible fuel flow D) maximum endurance at 10,000 feet |
D) maximum endurance at 10,000 feet |
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Fuel reserves for turbine powered aircraft are calculated by using fuel consumption rates for:
A) max range at 10,000 ft B) max endurance at 10,000 ft C) long range cruise at 10,000 ft D) long range cruise at 20,000 ft |
B) max endurance at 10,000 ft |
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Declare minimum fuel when:
A) In the pilot's judgement the aircraft will land at the intended destination with less than the required fuel reserve B) There is less than 100 pounds of fuel remaining C) once the aircraft has less than the required fuel reserve D) Required for pattern/ATC priority |
A) In the pilot's judgement the aircraft will land at the intended destination with less than the required fuel reserve |
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Aircrew shall not consume alcoholic beverages during the ______ period prior to takeoff?
A) 6 hrs B) 10 hrs C) 12 hrs D) 24 hrs E) 48 hrs |
C) 12 hrs |
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True or false: When under IFR, pilots are not responsible to see and avoid other traffic, terrain, or obstacles. |
False |
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When it comes to the proximity of other aircraft, _____ is considered "well clear"
A) 200 ft B) 500 ft C) 1000 ft D) 1500 ft |
B) 500 ft |
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Usually, right-of-way is given to the ______ aircraft
A) Least maneuverable B) Most maneuverable C) Heavier D) Lighter E) Smaller |
A) Least maneuverable |
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______ aircraft have the right-of-way over all other air traffic.
A) Distress B) Rotary C) Nordo D) Balloon |
A) Distress |
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If aircraft are approaching each other head-on or approximately so, each shall alter course _____
A) To the right B) To the left C) Climb above D) Descend below |
A) To the right |
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If an aircraft is overtaking another, which direction should the overtaking aircraft alter?
A) To the right B) To the left C) Climb above D) Descend below |
A) To the right |
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Two aircraft are established on final. Which one has the right of way?
B) The aircraft closer to the FAF C) The aircraft at the lower altitude D) The aircraft at the higher altitude |
C) The aircraft at the lower altitude |
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True or false: Gliders have the right-of-way over airships. |
True |
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True or false: Emergency frequencies are to be monitored at all times (unless the radio equipment on board does not have this capability) |
True |
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Max indicated airspeed below 10,000 ft MSL is:
A) 200 KIAS B) 220 KIAS C) 250 KIAS D) 300 KIAS E) 350 KIAS |
C) 250 KIAS |
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Max indicated airspeed below class B airspace is:
A) 200 KIAS B) 220 KIAS C) 250 KIAS D) 300 KIAS E) 350 KIAS |
A) 200 KIAS |
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Pilots may operate their aircraft below 10,000 ft MSL within US airspace in excess of 250 KIAS:
A) within restricted areas B) within MOA's C) within published IFR/VFR MTR's D) When the aircraft T/O requires a higher speed for safe maneuverability E) All of the above |
E) All of the above |
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GPS overlay approaches are authorized:
A) for training use only B) in day, VMC C) In IMC weather down to 1500/3 D) Both A and B |
D) Both A and B |
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An ATC taxi clearance to or from the assigned runways that does not include holding instructions authorizes the aircraft to:
B) Taxi across all other runways and taxiways enroute to or from the assigned runway and onto the assigned runway C) Taxi across all other runways and taxiways enroute to or from the assigned runway D) Follow the "follow-me" vehicle |
C) Taxi across all other runways and taxiways enroute to or from the assigned runway |
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Do not turn after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach until at least:
A) 400 ft above the departure end of the runway B) At a safe airspeed C) Past the departure end of the runway D) Both A and C E) All of the above |
E) All of the above |
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True or false: when turning after a takeoff, touch and go, or low approach, the 400 ft altitude restriction does not apply when executing a closed pattern. |
True |
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Pilots must report "gear down" before crossing the:
A) FAF B) MAP C) Runway threshold D) VDP |
C) Runway threshold |
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What are the altitude requirements over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements)?
A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2000 ft of the aircraft B) 500 ft AGL C) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2 NM of the aircraft if not visual D) 2000 ft AGL |
A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2000 ft of the aircraft |
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What are the altitude requirements over non-congested areas?
A)1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2000 ft of the aircraft B) 500 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure C) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2 nm of the aircraft if not visual D) 2000 ft AGL |
B) 500 ft from any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure |
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What are the altitude requirements over national parks?
A) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2000 ft of the aircraft B) 500 ft AGL C) 1000 ft above the highest obstacle within 2 nm of the aircraft if not visual D) 2000 ft AGL |
D) 2000 ft AGL |
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Aerobatics and air combat tactics (including air to ground) must be performed in:
A) special use airspace B) ATC-assigned airspace C) military training routes D) all of the above |
D) all of the above |
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When are pilots required to notify ATC about wake turbulence encountered on an approach?
A) once encountered B) once safely on the ground C) within 1 hr after safely on the ground D) not required |
A) once encountered |
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When are pilots required to notify ATC about windshear or microbursts encountered on takeoffs, approaches, or landings?
A) immediately B) once safely on the ground/airborne C) within 1 hr after safely on the ground/airborne D) not required |
A) immediately |
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True or false: A thin coating of frost is permitted on the fuselage, provided the letter and paint lines are visible. |
True |
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Air Force fixed-wing aircraft will fly under ___ to the maximum extent possible
A) VFR B) IFR C) Special VFR D) Both A and C |
B) IFR |
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USAF aircraft must file IFR when:
A) Flying in Class A airspace B) Flying within a federal airway C) Flying at night, unless the mission cannot be conducted under IFR D) Both A and C E) All of the above |
E) All of the above |
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To fly a published radar approach or instrument approach that requires radar to define a fix essential to flying the approach, a nonradar facility must provide positive aircraft position within _____ of the airfield.
A) 20 NM B) 25 NM C) 30 NM D) 50 NM |
B) 25 NM |
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When filing to a destination without a published approach, what are the pilots options to get to the desired destination?
A) Pilots may file IFR to a point enroute (where it is VMC) and continue VFR to the destination B) Pilots may file to a point served by a published approach procedure (where the pilot can make a descent to VMC conditions) and continue VFR to the destination C) Pilots must be able to get to the destination under IFR conditions D) Both A and B E) All of the above |
D) Both A and B |
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When filing to a destination, what are the weather requirements?
A) ETA (plus or minus 1 hour) at destination must be at or above the lowest minimum published for an approach B) ETA (plus or minus 1 hour) at destination must be at or above 3000 ft/3 SM or 2 SM above the lowest compatible published visibility C) ETA (plus or minus 1 hour) at destination must be at or above 1000 ft or 500 above the lowest published/ 2 SM or 1 SM above the lowest published visibility D) ETA (plus or minus 1 hour) at destination must be at or above 1500/3 |
A) ETA (plus or minus 1 hour) at destination must be at or above the lowest minimum published for an approach |
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When flying a straight-in or sidestep approach, the forecast weather must meet:
A) Only the published visibility B) Only the published ceiling C) Both published ceiling and visibility |
A) Only the published visibility |
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When flying a circling approach, the forecast weather must meet:
A) Only the published visibility B) Only the published ceiling C) Both published ceiling and visibility |
C) Both published ceiling and visibility |
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How do temporary conditions affect filing to a destination?
A) May not file to a destination with forecast ceiling and/or visibility below published minimums B) May file to a destination with forecast ceiling and/or visibility below published minimums C) An alternate may be required D) Both B and C |
D) Both B and C |
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When is an alternate required to be filed for a destination?
A) If the worst weather is forecast to be less than 3000 ft and 3 SM or 2 SM above the lowest compatible published minimum B) Radar required C) GPS only D) Unmonitored NAVAID/ no weather reporting E) All of the above |
E) All of the above |
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When selecting an alternate, what must the weather be forecast to be at or above?
A) 1000 ft or 500 ft above the lowest compatible published minimum ceiling B) 2 SM or 1 SM above the lowest compatible minimum visibility C) 3 SM or 2 SM above the lowest minimum visibility D) Both A and B E) Both A and C |
D) Both A and B |
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True or false: Pilots may select an airport as an alternate that includes a temporary condition below minimums when the temporary condition is due to a thunderstorm or rain shower. |
True |
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True or false: pilots may select an airport as an alternate when the approach plate for the required runway carries the A/NA designator (no weather reporting). |
False |
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True or false: pilots may select an airport as an alternate when the approach required is based on a NAVAID that is unmonitored |
False |
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True or false: pilots may select an airport as an alternate when the only approach available is a GPS approach. |
False |
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Which of the following are authorized methods of departing IFR?
A) Instrument departure procedure (DPs/SIDs) B) Departure instructions (radar vectors) C) Diverse departures D) Both A and B E) All of the above |
E) All of the above |
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When no climb gradient is published, the aircraft must be able to climb at:
A) 152 ft/nm or greater B) 200 ft/nm or greater C) whatever required to clear obstacles visually ("see and avoid") D) Both B and C |
B) 200 ft/nm or greater |
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True or false: pilots may begin an enroute descent or published approach if the weather required for the approach is below the required minimums. |
False |
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If the weather prevents continued flight under VFR, the PIC will alter the route of flight:
B) to maintain VFR while obtaining an IFR clearance C) to maintain VFR enroute to a suitable location (alternate) D) all of the above |
D) all of the above |
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When filing VFR, the forecast weather for the planned route of flight conducted under VFR must be equal to or greater than:
A) 1000/3 B) 1500/3 C) 1500/5 D) 3000/3 |
B) 1500/3 |
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VFR cloud clearances at 10,000 ft are:
A) 3 SM, 500 ft above, 1000 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal B) 3 SM, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal C) 5 SM, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below, 1000 ft horizontal D) 5 SM, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below, 1 SM horizontal E) 3 SM, clear of clouds |
D) 5 SM, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below, 1 SM horizontal |
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VFR cloud clearances below 10,000 ft are:
A) 3 SM, 500 ft above, 1000 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal B) 3 SM, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal C) 5 SM, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below, 1000 ft horizontal D) 5 SM, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below, 1 SM horizontal E) 3 SM, clear of clouds |
B) 3 SM, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal |
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VFR cloud clearances for class B airspace are:
A) 3 SM, 500 ft above, 1000 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal B) 3 SM, 1000 ft above, 500 ft below, 2000 ft horizontal C) 5 SM, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below, 1000 ft horizontal D) 5 SM, 1000 ft above, 1000 ft below, 1 SM horizontal E) 3 SM, clear of clouds |
E) 3 SM, clear of clouds |
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True or false: pilots may not descend below the prescribed MDA or continue an approach below the DH unless in a position to make a normal approach to landing and the approach end of the runway is in sight |
True |
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If on arrival at the missed approach point or DH and the runway environment is not in sight, the pilot must immediately execute:
A) the appropriate missed approach procedure B) ATC issued climbout instructions C) ATC clearance D) all of the above |
D) all of the above |
