Acvr Physio- Cns 2016

Front 1

In which type of dog breed is AA subluxation most common?

Back 1

Small breeds.

Front 2

Trauma can cause what type of injury to the Atlas or Axis?

Back 2

Rupture of the transverse ligament of the axis or fracture of the dens.

Front 3

AA subluxation causes clinical signs of transverse myelopathy at what level?

Back 3

C1-C5.

Front 4

What is a classic radiographic sign of AA subluxation?

Back 4

Hyperflexion of C1-C2.

Front 5

What is a general definition of calcinosis circumscripta?

Back 5

Calcium deposits in the periarticular tissues (can get cord compression).

Front 6

Which dog breed is predisposed to calcinosis circumscripta?

Back 6

German Shepherd Dogs.

Front 7

Wobblers is common term for what condition?

Back 7

Caudal Cervical spondylomyelopathy.

Front 8

Great Danes with Wobbler’s have dorsal compression due to what?

Back 8

Elongation of the cranial dorsal arch.

Front 9

What age of Great Dane are affected with Wobbler’s?

Back 9

Less than 2 years. (Dobie’s are 3-9 years).

Front 10

At what location is the pathology of caudal cervical spondylomyelopathy in Doberman Pinschers?

Back 10

Centered over the annulus of a disc.

Front 11

Instability of Wobbler’s causes what secondary condition?

Back 11

Osteoarthrosis.

Front 12

In a case of Wobbler’s what can be seen radiographically on the craniovertebral body?

Back 12

Exostosis.

Front 13

Which type of congenital vertebral abnormality most likely results in cord compression?

Back 13

Hemivertebrae.

Front 14

How many criteria are necessary to diagnose Disseminated Idiopathic Skeletal Hyperostoses?

Back 14

Four.

Front 15

What are the criteria of DISH?

Back 15

1. Flowing calcification along the ventral and lateral aspects of three contiguous vertebrae (maybe four). 2. Preservation of IVD width. 3. Periarticular osteophytes surrounding the true vertebral joints. 4. Pseudoarthrosis around bases of spinous processes. 5. Osteophytes and enthesophytes at soft tissue attachments in the skeleton.

Front 16

What is myelodyplasia?

Back 16

Malformations from incomplete closure or abnormal development of the spinal cord.

Front 17

Is which dog breed is myelodysplasia inherited?

Back 17

Weimaraners.

Front 18

Failure of fusion of the vertebral arches +/- protrusion or dysplasia of the meninges and cord is termed what?

Back 18

Spina Bifida.

Front 19

What is Spina Bifida occulta?

Back 19

Normal spinal cord and meninges but abnormal vertebrae.

Front 20

In which condition is the neuroectoderm contiguous with the skin?

Back 20

Spina bifida with Myelorhachischisis.

Front 21

What is the most common location of the spina bifida?

Back 21

Caudal lumbar.

Front 22

Which of the dog and cats breeds are bredisposed to spina bifida?

Back 22

English bulldog and Manx cat.

Front 23

What is an intraarachnoid cyst?

Back 23

Accumulation of the CSF anywhere in the CNS.

Front 24

What is another term for multiple cartilaginous exostoses?

Back 24

Osteochondromatosis.

Front 25

Osteochondromatosis in cats is believed to have what type of cause?

Back 25

Infectious-viral.

Front 26

Where are osteochondromatosis lesions typically seen?

Back 26

On the thoracolumbar spine.

Front 27

Which disease in cats is a defect in the metabolism of GAGs?

Back 27

Mucopolysaccharoidosis.

Front 28

In which type of cats does mucopolysaccharoidosis cause skeletal changes which can lead to cord compression?

Back 28

Siamese.

Front 29

What are some characteristic deformities of a cat with mucopolysaccharoidosis?

Back 29

Small head. Flat face. Wide eyes. Large paws.

Front 30

What is a pilonidal sinus?

Back 30

Invagination of the skin dorsal to the spine that can extend down as far as the dura and can communicate with the subarachnoid space.

Front 31

What is the cause of a pilonidal sinus?

Back 31

Failure of separation of the neural groove from the epidermis.

Front 32

Which dog breed is the classic representation of a pilonidal sinus?

Back 32

Rhodesian Ridgeback (but not necessarily at the ridge).

Front 33

What is a dermoid cyst?

Back 33

A teratoma with hair and sebum.

Front 34

What lysosomal storage disease causes symmetrical white matter demyelination of the brain?

Back 34

Globoid cell leukodystophy.

Front 35

What is the most common site of cervical vertebral myelopathy?

Back 35

C3-C4.

Front 36

What is the common location of IVDD in dogs?

Back 36

T11-L3.

Front 37

Why is IVDD rare in dogs from T1 through T11?

Back 37

Intercapital ligaments stabilize the discs.

Front 38

Type I IVDD is associated with what type of disc degeneration?

Back 38

Chondroid disc degeneration (degeneration of the annulus fibrosis).

Front 39

In chondrodystrophic breeds the nucleus of all IV discs have become cartilage by what age?

Back 39

1 year.

Front 40

What is the description of a Type II IVDD?

Back 40

Bulging of the disc without rupture of the annulus fibrosis.

Front 41

What is the type of disc degeneration associated with a Type II IVDD?

Back 41

Fibroid degeneration.

Front 42

What is the direction of rupture of a Type II disc?

Back 42

Dorsolateral.

Front 43

What percentage of IVDD dogs walk again when there is no T2 hyperintensity on MRI?

Back 43

100%.

Front 44

If T2 hyperintensity extends beyond three times the length of L2 what is the percentage of those dogs walk again?

Back 44

20% (in this study dogs with any T2 hyperintensity of any sort were less likely to walk).

Front 45

Why is progressive haemorrhagic myelomalacia fatal?

Back 45

Respiratory paralysis.

Front 46

Radiographically what type of defect is seen at the LS with LS vertebral canal stenosis?

Back 46

A step defect.

Front 47

In which dog breed is LS vertebral canal stenosis usually seen?

Back 47

German Shepherd Dog (between 3 and 7 years).

Front 48

What is the cause of degenerative myelopathy?

Back 48

Demyelination and axonal degeneration. Astrocytosis of the cord white matter. (Again German Shepherd Dogs. Plus Corgis and Boxers).

Front 49

At what level of the spinal cord does degenerative myelopathy usually occur?

Back 49

Thoracic spinal cord.

Front 50

What type of cyst can arise from the articular facets of the cervical and thoracolumbar region of dogs?

Back 50

Synovial cysts (because they are diarthrodial joints).

Front 51

Define Hydromyelia?

Back 51

Dilation of the central canal.

Front 52

What is term for cavitation of the spinal cord?

Back 52

Syringomyelia.

Front 53

T/F. Dural ossification is very common and rarely a problem.?

Back 53

True.

Front 54

What is the term for osteophytes at the vertebral endplates?

Back 54

Spondylosis deformans.

Front 55

The caudal equina is made up of nerve roots of which verterbrae?

Back 55

L7. S1 through 3. Caudal 1-5.

Front 56

How would you characterize the clinical presentation of an FCE?

Back 56

Acute onset. Lacks progression after several hours. Non-painful. Often a history of exercise.

Front 57

What is a differential diagnosis for an intradural extramedullary tumor of a young dog of the spinal cord?

Back 57

A nephroblastoma.

Front 58

What is a common location for malignant nerve sheath tumor?

Back 58

The brachial plexus.

Front 59

What structures are affected by discospondylitis?

Back 59

The intervertebral disc and associated vertebral body (spondylitis is vertebra only).

Front 60

What is the most common route of infection of discospondylitis?

Back 60

Hematogenous (associated with UTI-Endocarditis-and dental disease).

Front 61

At what level do migrating foxtails cause discospondylitis?

Back 61

L2 to L4.

Front 62

What is the most common zoonotic organism associated with discospondylitis?

Back 62

Brucellosis.

Front 63

What is the term for inflammatory cells in the leptomeninges?

Back 63

Meningitis.

Front 64

Define myelitis?

Back 64

Inflammatory cells and necrosis of the cord.

Front 65

A dog with meningomyelitis may present with what type of stance?

Back 65

Saw horse stance.

Front 66

What is the differential diagnosis for perivascular accumulations of mononuclear cells in the brain and spinal cord of unknown cause?

Back 66

Granulomatous meningoencephalomyelitis.

Front 67

What is the likely cause of meningitis and myelitis in a cat with FIP?

Back 67

Immune-complex mediated vasculitis.

Front 68

What type of change does distemper virus cause in a dog with distemper myelitis?

Back 68

Demyelination of grey and white matter.

Front 69

What is an often seen clinical sign of distemper myelitis?

Back 69

Myoclonus of any muscle.

Front 70

What type of protozoal myelitis might be seen in a dog or a cat from eating infected meat?

Back 70

Toxoplasma (also transmitted via cat feces or transplacental).

Front 71

In which type of dog might you see steroid responsive meningitis arteritis?

Back 71

In a young dog. Medium to large breed.

Front 72

From which embryonic layer is the nervous system derived?

Back 72

The ectoderm from the trilaminar germ layers (ecto>meso>endo).

Front 73

The pia and arachnoid mater are neural crest in origin; what is the origin of the dura mater?

Back 73

Mesenchymal.

Front 74

What is myeloschisis?

Back 74

Severe spina bifida. The cord ends up exposed to the external environment.

Front 75

From which nervous system components do the vertebral bodies form?

Back 75

Sclerotomes.

Front 76

Abnormalities in which portion of the axis result in an AA lux?

Back 76

The proatlas and the centrum 1.

Front 77

Which cells produce CSF?

Back 77

Ependymal cells of the ventricular system and the choroid plexus.

Front 78

What is the flow of CSF through the ventricles?

Back 78

Lateral ventricular>interventricular foramen>third ventricle> mesencephalic aqueduct> fourth ventricle> lateral apertures> central canal and subarachnoid space.

Front 79

Which cells of the brain have the highest demand for oxygen?

Back 79

Neurons> oligodendroctyes-astrocytes-microglia> fibrovascular cells.

Front 80

In the case of an infarction in the brain Macrophages will fill in the necrotic area and creates a scar; what is the resultant region called?

Back 80

Neurogliosis.

Front 81

What is the term for thrombosis or embolus of an artery or thrombus of venous drainage?

Back 81

Infarction.

Front 82

Infarction from septic emboli may be associated with what other condition?

Back 82

Endocarditis.

Front 83

What is the distribution of a lesion with idiopathic cerebral infarction?

Back 83

The distribution of the middle cerebral artery (cats without cardiomyopathy).

Front 84

Which MRI pulse sequence is very sensitive for cytotoxic edema?

Back 84

DWI.

Front 85

What is the common appearance of an infarct of the cerebellum?

Back 85

Wedge shaped and well defined (hyper on T2 and hypo or iso on T1).

Front 86

What dog breed is overrepresented for infarction of the cerebellum?

Back 86

Cavalier King Charles Spaniel.

Front 87

With brain hemorrhage in what time frame does clot expansion usually occur?

Back 87

First 6 hours.

Front 88

What is the age of haemorrhage if it appears hypointense on T1?

Back 88

Hyper acute (<24 hours) or acute (1-3 days).

Front 89

What is the age of haemorrhage if it appears hypointense on T1 and hypointense on T2?

Back 89

Acute (1-3 days).

Front 90

What is the age of haemorrhage if it appears hyperintense on T1 ad T2?

Back 90

Late subacute (7-30 days).

Front 91

What hemoglobin breakdown product causes the mri appearances in acute haemorrhage?

Back 91

Deoxyhemoglobin.

Front 92

What hemoglobin breakdown product causes the mri appearances in chronic haemorrhage > 30 days?

Back 92

Hemosiderin.

Front 93

In the case of haemorrhage of the brain are the Houndsfield units increased or decreased for the first week following?

Back 93

Increased (hyperattenuating).

Front 94

On CT is a brain haemorrhage contrast enhancing or non contrast enhancing?

Back 94

Non contrast enhancing.

Front 95

What are the common locations for obstructive hydrocephalus?

Back 95

The interventricular foramen and mesencephalic acqueduct.

Front 96

What is the definition of communicating hydrocephalus?

Back 96

Non- obstructive but dilation of the entire system.

Front 97

Which dog breed types are predisposed to congenital hydrocephalus?

Back 97

Toys and brachys.

Front 98

In which anatomic location of the brain is it common to see an accumulation of CSF whether incidental or compressive?

Back 98

Quadrigeminal cistern.

Front 99

What is thought to be the cause of Chiari-like malformation?

Back 99

Small caudal fossa.

Front 100

What clinical signs are seen with Chiari-like malformation?

Back 100

Scratching at neck. Flybiting seizures. Brain or cervical signs.

Front 101

What type of cells die prematurely causing cerebellar abiotrophy?

Back 101

Purkinje cells.

Front 102

What are the MRI findings of the brain with Portosystemic shunt?

Back 102

Widened sulci and grey matter atrophy. Hyperintense foci in the lentiform nuclei on T1 (possibly due to manganese accumulation).

Front 103

What is the cause of multiple system degeneration of the brain?

Back 103

Degeneration of the basal ganglia and the caudate nucleus and cerebellum.

Front 104

What is the clinical signs of multiple system degeneration of the brain?

Back 104

Cannot initiate movement and maintain balance.

Front 105

Which dogs are predisposed to multiple system degeneration of the brain?

Back 105

Kerry blue terriers and Chinese crested.

Front 106

What are other names for paraoxysmal dyskinesis?

Back 106

Scottie Cramp or Dancing Doberman disease (episodes of voluntary movement and not seizures defined by EEG).

Front 107

In which type of dogs are idiopathic tremors usually seen?

Back 107

White small breed dogs (Westies and Maltese).

Front 108

In which condition especially in Lhasa Apsos is the brain smoothed and thickened?

Back 108

Lissencephaly.

Front 109

What condition can be caused with a uterine infection by panleukopenia virus in the cat?

Back 109

Cerebellar hypoplasia (also canine parvovirus and Dandy Walker in humans).

Front 110

What are the most common viral causes of encephalitis?

Back 110

Distemper and FIP.

Front 111

Viral encephalitis causes what two types of damage to the brain?

Back 111

Cytotoxic and immune-mediated.

Front 112

In a dog with distemper what other systemic clinical signs are seen with the neurologic signs and are useful for diagnosis?

Back 112

Respiratory and GI signs may be prior or concurrent. Pad and nasal planum changes are often concurrent.

Front 113

What form of the FIP is associated with encephalitis?

Back 113

The non-effusive form.

Front 114

What MRI finding may be seen on FIP encephalitis?

Back 114

Periventricular contrast enhancement.

Front 115

What are the common bacterial organisms that cause encephalitis?

Back 115

Staph and strep and Klebsiella and E.coli.

Front 116

What are classic clinical signs of a bacterial encephalitis?

Back 116

Fever and cervical hyperesthesia.

Front 117

What is the most common cause of fungal encephalitis?

Back 117

Cryptococcus.

Front 118

What are common MRI findings with fungal encephalitis?

Back 118

Strongly contrast enhancing intraaxial lesions (Fungal granulomas often have significant perilesional edema).

Front 119

What is another term for necrotizing meningoencephalitis?

Back 119

Pug dog encephalitis.

Front 120

What type of lesions are seen with necrotizing meningoencephalitis?

Back 120

Asymmetrical cavitary necrosis and inflammation of white and grey matter.

Front 121

What is the suspected cause of necrotizing meningoencephalitis?

Back 121

Auto-immune.

Front 122

What are the cytologic findings with necrotizing meningoencephalitis?

Back 122

Lymphocytes.

Front 123

What is another term for Yorshire Terrier Encephalitis?

Back 123

Necrotizing leukoencephalitis (lymphocytes and mononuclear cells).

Front 124

What are the MRI findings with pug or yorkie encephalitis?

Back 124

Mulifocal ill-defined hypo T1- hyperT2- inconsistently enhancing lesions.

Front 125

T/F. GME is common in cats.?

Back 125

False.

Front 126

What are three forms of GME in the dog?

Back 126

Focal and Multifocal (most common) and Ocular (rare).

Front 127

Are GME lesions more common in white or grey matter?

Back 127

White.

Front 128

What is the common signalment of a dog with GME?

Back 128

Middle aged female small breed dog.

Front 129

What percentage of cats with neuro disorders have inflammatory or infectious neurodisease?

Back 129

32%.

Front 130

What is the most common brain tumor in dogs and cats?

Back 130

Meningioma.

Front 131

Meningioma is what type of tumor (cellular)?

Back 131

Mesenchymal.

Front 132

Meningioma is often associated with what change of the overlying bone?

Back 132

Hyperostosis.

Front 133

What are the MRI findings of meningioma?

Back 133

T2 hyperintensity; T1 isointensity and strongly contrast enhancing; has a dural tail.

Front 134

What is the second most common brain tumor in dogs?

Back 134

Glioma (fourth in cats).

Front 135

What is the most common location of a choroid plexus tumor?

Back 135

Lateral ventricle or the fourth ventricle.

Front 136

Which breed is overrepresented for choroid plexus tumor?

Back 136

The Golden retriever.

Front 137

What are the MRI findings of a choroid plexus tumor?

Back 137

T1 iso to hyper; T2 hyper; strong contrast enhancing.

Front 138

What is the common location for ependymoma in the dog?

Back 138

The lateral ventricles (in the cat: third and lateral ventricles).

Front 139

What is the most secondary tumor in dogs and cats?

Back 139

The lymphoma.

Front 140

What are the MR findings of LSA?

Back 140

Strongly homogenously enhancing with peritumoral edema.

Front 141

In what percentage of cases of PDH are macroadenomas found?

Back 141

10-30%.

Front 142

In one study which was more common primary or secondary brain tumors?

Back 142

Secondary brain tumors.

Front 143

What is the most common cause of vestibular disease in dogs and cats?

Back 143

Middle and inner ear infection.

Front 144

What are the common organisms that cause middle and inner ear infections?

Back 144

Staph and Strep and Proteus.

Front 145

What condition in cats originates from the auditory tube or nasopharynx or middle ear and causes respiratory and vestibular disease?

Back 145

Nasopharyngeal polyps.

Front 146

Infection of the inner or middle ear or the guttural pouch can cause what condition of the hyoid bone in the horse?

Back 146

Temporohyoid osteopathy.