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481 Cards in this Set

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Tax
Payment required by a government that is unrelated to any specific benefit or service received from the government.
General purpose of a tax:
To fund the operations of the government (to raise revenue).
Sin taxes
Impose relatively high surcharges on alcohol and tobacco products.
T/F: Taxes are not intended to punish or prevent illegal behavior.
TRUE: Nonetheless, by allowing deductions from income, our federal tax system does encourage certain behaviors like charitable contributions, retirement savings, and research and development, and we can view it as discouraging other legal behavior.
Key components of a tax:
1) The payment is required (it is not voluntary)
2) The payment is imposed by a government agency (federal, state, or local)
3) The payment is not tied directly to the benefit received by the taxpayer.
Why is an earmarked tax, a tax that is assessed for a specific purpose, still considered a tax?
Because the payment made by the taxpayer does not directly related to the specific benefit received by the taxpayer.
Tax =
Tax Base x Tax Rate
Tax base
Defines what is actually taxed and is usually expressed in monetary terms.
Tax rate
Determines the level of taxes imposed on the tax base and is usually expressed as a percentage.
Common tax bases (and related taxes):
Taxable income (federal and state income taxes), purchases (sales tax), real estate values (real estate tax), and personal property values (personal property tax).
Flat tax
Single tax applied to an entire base.
Graduated taxes
The base is divided into a series of monetary amounts, or brackets, and each successive bracket is taxed at a different (gradually higher or gradually lower) percentage rate.
Three different tax rates that will be useful in contrasting the different tax rate structures:
1) Marginal: tax rate that applies to the next additional increment of a taxpayer's taxable income (or deductions).
2) Average--taxpayer's average level of taxation on each dollar of taxable income.
3) Effective--taxpayer's average rate of taxation on each dollar of total income (taxable and nontaxable income).
The marginal tax rate is useful . . .
in tax planning.
The average tax rate is useful . . .
in budgeting tax expense.
The effective tax rate is useful . . .
in comparing the relative tax burdens of taxpayers.
Except when the taxpayer has more nondeductible expenses (such as fines or penalties) than nontaxable income (such as tax-exempt interest), the effective tax rate will be _____ __ or ____ ____ the average tax rate.
equal to, less than
Three basic tax rate structures used to determine a tax:
1) Proportional
2) Progressive
3) Regressive
Proportional tax rate structure (flat tax):
1) Imposes a constant tax rate throughout the tax base.
2) As a taxpayer's tax base increase, the taxpayer's taxes increase proportionally.
3) The marginal tax rate remains constant and always equals the average tax rate.
4) Example: sales tax.
Progressive tax rate structure:
1) Imposes an increasing marginal tax rate as the tax base increases.
2) As a taxpayer's tax base increases, both the marginal tax rate and the taxes paid increase.
3) Examples: federal and state income taxes.
Regressive tax rate structure:
1) Imposes a decreasing marginal tax rate as the tax base increases.
2) As a taxpayer's tax base increases, the marginal tax rate decrease while the total taxes paid increases.
3) Examples: Social Security tax and federal and state unemployment taxes.
The federal government imposes a variety of taxes to fund federal programs such as . . .
national defense, Social Security, an interstate highway system, educational programs, and Medicare.
Major federal taxes include:
1) The individual and corporate income taxes
2) Employment taxes
3) Estate and gift taxes
4) Excise taxes
Value-added tax
A type of sales tax imposed on the producers of good sand services based on the value added to the goods and services at each stage of production.
Most significant tax assessed by the US government is . . .
the income tax, representing approximately 59% of all tax revenues collected in the United States.
Income taxes are levied on:
1) Individuals (max rate of 35%)
2) Corporations (max rate of 39%)
4) Estates (max rate of 35%)
5) Trusts (max rate of 35%)
__________ ______ ___ represents the largest source of federal tax revenues followed by employment taxes and the corporate income tax.
Individual income tax
Second largest group of taxes imposed by the US government:
Employment and unemployment taxes.
Employment taxes consist of:
1) Old Age Survivors
2) Disability Insurance (OASDI) tax, commonly called the Social Security tax
3) Medical Health Insurance (MHI) tax known as the Medicare tax
Social Security tax
Pays the monthly retirement, survivor, and disability benefits for qualifying individuals.
Medicare tax
Pays for medical insurance for individuals who are elderly or disabled.
The tax base for Social Security and Medicare taxes is wages or salary, and the rates are ___ percent and ___ percent, respectively.
12.4, 2.9
T/F: In 2010, the tax base for the Medicare tax is capped at $106,800.
FALSE; The tax base for the Social Security tax is capped at $106,800, and the tax base for Medicare tax is not capped.
Unemployment taxes
Fund temporary unemployment benefits for individuals terminated from their jobs without cause.
Currently, the Federal Unemployment Tax rate is ___ percent on the first ____ of wages. The US government allows a credit for state unemployment taxes paid up to ___ percent. Thus, the Federal Unemployment Tax rate may be a slow as ___ percent.
6.2, $7,000, 5.4, 0.8
Third largest group of taxes imposed by the US government:
Excise taxes
Excise taxes
Taxes levied on the retail sale of particular products (the quantity of products sold).
Estate and gift taxes are levied on . . .
the fair market values of wealth transfers upon death or by gift.
Federal transfer taxes:
1) Estate
2) Gift
Common state and local taxes:
Income taxes, sales and use taxes, excise taxes, and property taxes.
The tax base for a sales tax is . . .
the retail sales of goods and some services.
The tax base for the use tax is . . .
the retail price of goods owned, possessed, or consumed within a state that were not purchased within the state.
Income taxes
Taxes on individuals and corporations who either reside in or earn income within the state.
Typically, sales tax is collected . . .
at the point of sale.
Purpose of a use tax:
To discourage taxpayers from buying goods out of state in order to avoid or minimize the sales tax in their home state.
State and local governments commonly use two types of property taxes as sources of revenue:
1) Real property taxes--land and structures permanently attached to land
2) Personal property taxes--all other types of property, both tangible and intangible
Relative to personal property tax, real property taxes are ______ to administer because real property is not moveable and purchases often have to be registered with the state.
easier
Property taxes are __ _______ taxes, meaning that the tax base for each is the fair market value of the property.
ad valorem
Explicit taxes
Taxes directly imposed by a government that are easily quantified.
Implicit taxes
1) Indirect taxes--not paid directly to the government--that result from a tax advantage the government grants to certain transactions to satisfy social, economic, or other objectives.
2) The reduced before-tax return that a tax-favored asset produces because of its tax-advantaged status.
An asset is said to be tax-favored when . . .
the income the asset produces is either excluded from the tax base or subject to a lower (preferential) tax rate, or if the asset generates some other tax benefit such as large tax deductions.
Why do tax-advantaged assets bear an implicit tax, or a reduced before-tax return as a result of the tax advantage?
The tax benefits associated with the tax-favored asset increase the demand for the asset. Increased demand drives up the price of the asset, which in turn, reduces its before-tax return, which is an implicit tax by definition.
T/F: Implicit taxes are difficult to quantify, but are important to understand in evaluating the relative tax burdens of tax-advantaged investments.
TRUE
Criteria used to evaluate alternative tax systems:
1) Sufficiency
2) Equity
3) Certainty
4) Convenience
5) Economy
Sufficiency
Assessing the aggregate size of the tax revenues that must be generated and ensuring that the tax system provides these revenues.
Static forecasting
Ignores how taxpayers may alter their activities in response to a proposed tax law change bases projected tax revenues on the existing state of transactions.
Dynamic forecasting
Attempts to account for possible taxpayer responses to a proposed tax law change.
In terms of a progressive tax, a tax rate increase or an expansion of the tax base can result in one of two taxpayer responses:
1) Income effect--when taxpayers are taxed more, they will work harder to generate the same after-tax dollars
2) Substitution effect--when taxpayers are taxed more, rather than work more, they will substitute nontaxable activities like leisure pursuits for taxable ones because the marginal value of taxable activities has decreased
T/F: If a tax system fails to generate sufficient revenues, the government must seek other sources to pay for government expenditures.
TRUE; The most common source is the issuance of debt instruments such as Treasury bonds (short-term solution to a budget deficit).
Equity
Considers how the tax burden should be distributed across taxpayers.
Two basic types of equity:
1) Horizontal--two taxpayers in similar situations pay the same tax
2) Vertical--taxpayers with greater ability to pay tax, pay more tax relative to taxpayers with a lesser ability to pay tax
Failures of horizontal equity are due to ___ ___________.
tax preferences
Certainty
Taxpayers should be able to determine when, where, and how much tax to pay.
Convenience
A tax system should be designed to facilitate the collection of tax revenues without undue hardship on the taxpayer or the government. EX: Retailers collect sales taxes when buyers purchase goods.
Economy
A tax system should minimize its compliance and administration costs.
Taxes are significant costs that influence many basic business, investment, and personal decisions:
1) Business decisions: what organization form to take; where to locate; how to compensate employees; appropriate debt mix; owning vs. renting equipment; how to distribute profits, and so forth.
2) Investment decisions: alternative methods for saving for education or retirement, and so forth.
3) Personal finance decisions: evaluating job offers; gift or estate planning; owning vs. renting a home, and so forth.
______ ___________ are specified by law for each type of taxpayer.
Filing requirements
T/F: All corporations must file a tax return annually regardless of their taxable income.
TRUE
Estates and trusts are required to file annual income tax returns if their gross income exceeds ___.
$600
Filing requirements for individual taxpayers depend on:
1) Filing status
2) Gross income
3) Age
Refund
Occurs when taxes paid exceed tax liability.
What determines whether a tax return is required?
Gross income
Due dates:
1) The due date for tax returns varies based on the type of taxpayer.
2) Individual tax returns are due on April 15 for calendar-year individuals.
3) Due dates that fall on a Saturday, Sunday, or holiday are automatically extended to the next day that is not a Saturday, Sunday, or holiday.
4) Any taxpayer unable to file a tax return by the original due date can request an extension to file.
5) An extension allows the taxpayer to delay filing a tax return but does NOT extend the due date for tax payments.
Partnership returns are due on . . .
the 15th day of the 14th month following the partnership's year-end.
For corporations, tax returns must be filed . . .
by the 15th day of the 3rd month following the corporation's year-end (March 15 for calendar-year corporations).
T/F: Partnerships may request an automatic six-month extension to file.
FALSE; Any individual or corporation unable to file a tax return by the original due date can request a six-month extension to file, and partnerships may request an automatic five-month extension to file.
What happens if the taxpayer fails to pay the entire balance of tax owed by the original due date of the tax return?
The IRS charges the taxpayer interest on the underpayment from the due date of the return until the taxpayer pays the tax.
Statute of limitations
Period in which the taxpayer can file an amended tax return or the IRS can assess a tax deficiency for a specific tax year.
The statute of limitations generally ends three years from the later of . . .
1) The date the tax return was actually filed
2) The tax return's original due date
T/F: For fraudulent returns, or if the taxpayer fails to file a tax return, the statute of limitations remains open indefinitely.
TRUE
Fewer than _ percent of all tax returns are audited.
2
Common computer initiatives for auditing tax returns include:
1) DIF (Discriminant Function) system--assigns a score to each tax return that represents the probability the tax liability on the return has been underreported
2) Document perfection program--checks all returns for mathematical and tax calculation errors
3) Program matching program--compares the taxpayer's tax return to information submitted to the IRS from other taxpayers
Three types of IRS audits:
1) Correspondence
2) Office
3) Field examinations
Correspondence examinations
1) Most common
2) Conducted by mail and generally are limited to one or two items on the taxpayer's return
3) Generally the narrowest in scope and the least complex
Office examinations
1) Second most common audit
2) IRS conducts them at its local office
3) Typically broader in scope and more complex than correspondence examinations
4) Small businesses, taxpayers operating sole proprietorships, and middle- to high-income individual taxpayers to have office exmainations
Field examinations
1) Least common audit
2) IRS conducts these at the taxpayer's place of business or the location where the taxpayer's books, records, and source documents are maintained
3) Generally the broadest in scope and the most complex
4) Can last months to years
5) Generally limited to business returns and the most complex individual returns
After the audit . . .
the IRS will send the taxpayer a 30-day letter, which provides the taxpayer the opportunity to pay the proposed assessment or request an appeals conference.
If an agreement is not reached at appeals or the taxpayer does not pay the proposed assessment . . .
the IRS will send the taxpayer a 90-day letter (also known as a statutory notice of deficiency) explaining that the taxpayer has 90 days to either (1) pay the proposed deficiency or (2) file a petition in the US Tax Court to hear the case.
US Tax Court
National court whose judges are tax experts and who hear only tax cases.
T/F: If the taxpayer would like to litigate the case but prefers it to be heard in the local US District Court or the US Court of Federal Claims, the taxpayer must pay the tax deficiency first and then sue the IRS for refund in court.
TRUE
Which court is the only court that provides for a jury trial?
US District Court
Which court is the only court that allows tax cases to be heard before the taxpayer pays the disputed liability and the only court with a small claims division (hearing claims involving disputed liabilities of $50,000 or less)?
US Tax Court
After the trial court's verdict . . .
the losing party has the right to request one of the 13 US Circuit Courts of Appeal to hear the case.
After an appeals court hears a case, the losing party has one last option to receive a favorable ruling . . .
a petition to the US Supreme Court.
T/F: The Supreme Court agrees to hear most tax cases.
FALSE; For most tax cases, the Supreme Court refuses to hear the case (denies the writ of certiorari) and litigation ends with the circuit court decision.
Two broad categories of tax authorities:
1) Primary
2) Secondary
Primary authorities
Official sources of the tax law generated by the legislative branch (statutory authority issued by Congress), judicial branch (rulings by the US District Court, US Tax Court, US Court of Federal Claims, US Circuit Court of Appeals, or US Supreme Court), and executive/administrative branch (Treasury and IRS pronouncements).
US Treasury/IRS: Administrative Authorities:
1) Treasury regulation
2) Revenue procedures & revenue rulings
3) Private letter rulings, technical advice memorandums, & other
Congress: Legislative/Statutory Authorities:
1) US Constitution
2) Internal Revenue Code & Tax Treaties
The Courts: Judicial Authorities:
1) US Supreme Court Opinion
2) Opinion of US Circuit Court of Appeal
3) US District Court Opinion, US Court of Federal Claims Opinion, & US Tax Court Opinion
Secondary authorities
Unofficial tax authorities that interpret and explain the primary authorities, such as tax research services, tax articles from professional journals and law reviews, and newsletters.
US Constitution
Highest authority in the United States.
16th Amendment
Provides Congress the ability to tax income directly, from whatever source derived, without apportionment across the states.
Internal Revenue Code of 1986
1) Main statutory authority
2) Has the same authoritative weight as tax treaties and Supreme Court rulings
3) Changes to the Code are passed by the House of Representatives and Senate and signed into law by the president
4) The house Ways and Means Committee and Senate Finance Committee oversee tax legislation in the House of Representatives and Senate, respectively
5) When referencing a tax law, the researcher generally refers to the law by its code section
Tax treaties
Agreements negotiated between countries that describe the tax treatment of entities subject to tax in both countries.
Judicial Authorities:
1) Our judicial system is tasked with the ultimate authority to interpret the Internal Revenue Code and settle disputes between taxpayers and the IRS.
2) The Supreme Court is the highest judicial authority.
3) Beneath the Supreme Court, the decisions of the 13 Circuit Courts of Appeal represent the next highest judicial authority.
4) The lowest level of judicial authority consists of three different types of trial-level courts (US District Courts, US Court of Federal Claims, and the US Tax Court).
5) US Tax Court decisions typically are considered to have more authoritative weight than decisions rendered by a district court or the US Court of Federal Claims.
6) All courts apply the judicial doctrine of stare decisis, which means that a court will rule consistently with its previous rulings and the rulings of higher courts with appellate jurisdiction.
Golsen rule
The tax court will abide by rulings of the circuit court that has appellate jurisdiction for a case.
Regulations
1) Are the Treasury Department's official interpretation of the International Revenue Code and have the highest authoritative weight.
2) Are issued in three different forms (proposed, temporary, and final) and serve three basic purposes (interpretative, procedural, and legislative).
Final regulations
Regulations that have been issued in final form and represent the Treasury's interpretation of the Code.
Temporary regulations
Have a limited life (three years for regulations issued after Nov 20, 1988).
Proposed regulations
Allow public comment on them.
Interpretative regulations
Represent the Treasury's interpretation of the Code.
Procedural regulations
Explain Treasury Department procedures as they relate to administering the Code.
Legislative regulations
Issued when Congress specifically directs the Treasury Department to create regulations to address an issue in an area of law.
Revenue rulings and revenue procedures:
1) Revenue rulings and revenue procedures are second in administrative authoritative weight after regulations.
2) Revenue rulings address the application of the Code and regulations to a specific factual situation.
3) Revenue procedures explain in greater detail IRS practice and procedures in administering the tax law.
Letter rulings are . . .
less authoritative but more specific than revenue rulings and regulations.
Private letter rulings
Represent the IRS' application of the Code and other tax authorities to a specific transaction and taxpayer.
Acquiescence
Indicates that the IRS has decided to follow the court's adverse ruling in the future.
Nonacquiescence
Alerts taxpayers that the IRS does plan to continue to litigate this issue.
Actions on decisions
Explain the background reasoning behind an IRS acquiescence or nonacquiescence.
Tax practitioners are subject to a variety of statutes, rules, and codes of professional conduct, and they should absolutely have a working knowledge of these statutes, rules, and guidelines because:
1) They establish the professional standards for the practitioner
2) Failure to comply with the standards could result in adverse consequences for the tax professional, such as being admonished, suspended, or barred from practicing before the IRS; being admonished, suspended, or expelled from the AICPA; or suffering suspension or revocation of the CPA license.
AICPA Code of Professional Conduct:
Not specific to tax practice and provides broader professional standards that are especially relevant for auditors.
Provisions:
Address the importance of a CPA maintaining independence from the client and using due professional care in carrying out responsibilities.
AICPA's seven Statements on Standards for Tax Services (SSTS):
Recommend appropriate standards of practice for tax professionals.
Substantial authority
Suggests the probability that the taxpayer's position is sustained upon audit or litigation is in the 40 plus percent range or above.
Circular 230
Provides regulations governing tax practice and applies to all persons practicing before the IRS.

1) Subpart A--desciribes who may practice before the IRS (CPAs, attorneys, enrolled agents) and what practicing before the IRS means (tax return, preparation, representing clients before the IRS, etc.)
2) Subpart B--describes the duties and restrictions that apply to individuals governed by Circular 230
3) Subpart C--explains disciplinary proceedings for practitioners violating the Circular 230 provisions
The IRS can impose both ________ and _____ penalties to encourage tax compliance by both tax professionals and taxpayers:
criminal, civil
The standard of conviction is ______ in a criminal trial, but the penalties are also much ______.
higher, higher
T/F: A taxpayer will not be subject to an underpayment penalty if there is substantial authority that supports the tax return position.
TRUE
T/F: A tax practitioner will also not be subject to penalty for recommending a tax return position if there is substantial authority that supports the position.
TRUE
Civil penalties:
1) Much more common
2) Generally come in the form of monetary penalties
3) May be imposed when tax practitioners or taxpayers violate tax statutes without reasonable cause--say, as the result of negligence, intentional disregard of pertinent rules, willful disobedience, or outright fraud.
Criminal penalties:
1) Much less common than civil penalties
2) Commonly charged in tax evasion cases, which include willful intent to defraud the government, but are imposed only after normal due process, including a trial
Five basic steps in tax research:
1) Understand the facts
2) Identify issues
3) Locate relevant authorities
4) Analyze the tax authorities
5) Communicate research results
T/F: Effective tax planning minimizes taxes.
FALSE; Effective tax planning maximizes the taxpayer’s after-tax wealth while achieving the taxpayer’s nontax goals.
Maximizing after-tax wealth requires us to consider . . .
the tax and nontax costs and benefits of alternative transactions.
Virtually every transaction includes three parties:
1) The taxpayer
2) The other transacting party
3) The Government
Three basic tax planning strategies:
1) Timing (deferring or accelerating taxable income and tax deductions)
2) Income shifting (shifting income from high to low tax rate taxpayers)
3) Conversion (converting income from high to low tax rate activities)
When income is taxed or an expense is deducted affects the associate “real” tax costs or savings. This is true for two reasons:
1) The timing of when income is taxed or an expense is deducted affects the present value of the taxes paid on income or the tax savings on deductions.
2) The tax costs of income and tax savings of deductions vary as the tax rates change.
The tax costs on income are ______ when tax rates are ______ and _____ when tax rates are _____.
higher, higher, lower, lower
Present value (time value of money)
$1 today is worth more than $1 in the future.
T/F: Timing of a cash inflow or a cash outflow affects the present value of the income or expense.
TRUE
Discount factor
Derived from the taxpayer’s expected after-tax rate of return.
When considering cash inflows, prefer ______ present values; when considering cash outflows, prefer _____ present values.
higher, lower
Taxes paid represent cash ________; savings generated from tax deductions are cash _______.
outflows, inflows
Two basic tax-related timing strategies when tax rates are constant (not changing):
1) Accelerate tax deductions (deduct in an earlier period)
2) Defer recognizing taxable income (recognize in a later period)
Why accelerate tax deductions into earlier years when tax rates are constant?
Maximizes the present value of tax savings from deductions.
Why defer taxable income into later years when tax rates are constant?
Minimizes the present value of taxes paid.
The intent of the timing strategy is to . . .
accelerate the tax deductions significantly without accelerating the actually cash outflow that generates the expense.
Common examples of the timing strategy:
Accelerating depreciation deductions for depreciable assets, using LIFO instead of FIFO for corporations, and accelerating the deduction of certain prepaid expenses.
High tax rates, higher rates of return, larger transaction amounts, and the ability to accelerate deductions by two or more years all increase the benefits of ____________ deductions.
accelerating
Higher tax rates, higher rates of return, larger transaction amounts, and the ability to defer revenue recognition for longer periods of time increase the benefits of ________.
deferral
When tax rates are increasing . . .
the taxpayer must calculate the optimal tax strategies for deductions and income.
When tax rates are decreasing . . .
taxpayers should accelerate tax deductions into earlier years and defer taxable income into later years.
All other things being equal, taxpayers should prefer to recognize deductions during ____-tax-rate years and income during ___-tax-rate years.
high, low
When considering cash _______, we prefer the higher present value.
inflows
Limitation on the Timing Strategy:
1) Whenever a taxpayer is unable to accelerate a deduction without also accelerating the cash outflow, the timing strategy will be less beneficial.
2) Tax law generally requires taxpayers to continue their investment in an asset in order to defer income recognition for tax purposes.
3) A deferral strategy may not be optimal if the taxpayer has severe cash flow needs, if continuing the investment would generate a low rate of return compared to other investments, if the current investment would subject the taxpayer to unnecessary risk, and so on.
4) The constructive receipt doctrine, which provides that a taxpayer must recognize income when it is actually or constructively received, also restricts income deferral for cash-method taxpayers.
Constructive receipt is deemed to have occurred if . . .
1) The income has been credited to the taxpayer’s account or if the income is unconditionally available to the taxpayer
2) The taxpayer is aware of the income’s availability
3) There are no restrictions on the taxpayer’s control over the income
Type of taxpayers that benefit most from the income-shifting strategy are:
1) Related parties, such as family members or businesses and their owners, who have varying marginal tax rates and are willing to shift income for the benefit of the group
2) Taxpayers operating in multiple jurisdictions with different marginal tax rates.
Most common example of income shifting:
High-rate parents shifting income to low-tax-rate children.
Assignment of income doctrine
Requires income to be taxed to the taxpayer who actually earns it.
Related-party transactions:
1) Closely scrutinized by the IRS
2) Financial activities among family members (also among owners and their businesses or among businesses owned by the same owners)
3) Involve taxpayers who are much more willing to negotiate for their own common good
Arm’s-length transactions
Each transacting party negotiates for his or her own benefit.
In order to shift income from the corporation to the owner . . .
the corporation must create a tax deduction for itself in the process.
Most common method of shifting income from corporations to their owners:
Compensation paid to employee-owners
Is having the business owner rent property to the corporation or loan money to the corporation an effective income-shifting method?
Yes; both transactions generate tax deductions for the corporation and income for the shareholder.
T/F: Paying dividends is NOT an effective way to shift income.
TRUE; Dividends are taxed first at the corporate level, and then at the shareholder level.
Limitations of income shifting across jurisdictions:
1) Taxing authorities are fully aware of the tax benefits of strategically structuring transactions across tax borders (across countries or states).
2) When tax payers locate in low-tax-rate jurisdictions to, in effect, shift income to a tax-advantaged jurisdiction, they may bear implicit taxes (that is, additional costs attributable to the jurisdiction’s tax advantage).
Conversion strategy
Recasting income and expenses to receive the most favorable tax treatment.
The conversion strategy is based on . . .
the understanding that the tax law does not treat all types of income or deductions the same.
T/F: The Internal Revenue Code contains specific provisions that prevent the taxpayer from changing the nature of expenses, income, or activities to a more tax-advantaged status.
TRUE
________ _____ may reduce or eliminate the advantages of conversion strategies.
Implicit taxes
Additional limitations to tax planning strategies:
1) Business purpose doctrine—allows the IRS To challenge and disallow business expenses for transactions with no underlying business motivation
2) Step-transaction doctrine—allows the IRS to collapse a series of related transactions into one transaction to determine the tax consequences of the transaction
3) Substance-over-form doctrine—allows the IRS to consider the transaction’s substance regardless of its form, and where appropriate, to reclassify the transaction according to its substance
“Smell test”:
If the transaction “smells bad,” one of the judicial doctrines likely applies. (Transactions usually smell bad when the primary purpose is to avoid taxes and not to accomplish an independent business objective.)
Tax avoidance
Legal act of arranging one’s transactions to minimize taxes paid.
Tax evasion
Willful attempt to defraud the government by not paying taxes legally owed.
T/F: Because the federal government must replace lost tax revenues by imposing higher taxes on others, honest taxpayers are the true victims of tax evasion?
TRUE
Taxable income
Tax base for the individual income tax.
Form 1040
Form individuals generally use to report their taxable income.
T/F: Income excluded from taxation is reported on the tax return.
FALSE
Is deferred income reported on the tax return?
Yes, but it is usually provided on supporting schedules.
What is the last line on page 1 of Form 1040?
adjusted gross income (AGI)
The US tax laws are based on the all-inclusive income concept:
Taxpayers must include in taxable income all realized income from whatever source derived.
Realized income
Income generated in a transaction with second party in which there is a measurable change in property rights between parties.
Taxpayers are allowed to permanently exclude certain types of realized income from taxation or defer paying taxes to a later year on certain types of realized income if, and only if . . .
a specific tax provision allows them to do so.
Excluded income/exclusions
Income items that taxpayers permanently exclude from taxation.
Deferral items/deferred income/deferrals
Income items that taxpayers realize in one year, but are allowed to defer paying taxes on until a later year.
Gross income
Realize income minus exclusions and deferrals; the income that taxpayers actually report on their tax returns.
Taxpayers deduct their __________ from gross income to determine their taxable income.
deductions
T/F: Taxpayers are not allowed to deduct anything unless a specific tax provision allows them to do so.
TRUE; Deductions are a matter of legislative grace.
Two distinct types of deductions:
1) Deductions for AGI
2) Deductions from AGI
For AGI deductions:
1) Deducted in determining AGI
2) “Above the line” deduction
3) Generally more valuable than from AGI deductions
4) Tend to be related to business activities and certain investing activities
From AGI deductions:
1) Deducted from AGI to determine taxable income
2) “Below the line” deduction
3) Generally less valuable than for AGI deductions
4) Tend to be more personal in nature
Adjusted gross income (AGI)
Gross income minus for AGI deductions
In contrast to ____ AGI deductions, which may be limited or may generate no tax benefit, ___ AGI deductions always reduce gross income and therefore reduce taxable income dollar for dollar.
from, for
Common for AGI deductions:
1) Alimony paid
2) Health insurance deduction for self-employed taxpayers
3) Moving expenses
4) Rental and royalty expenses
5) One-half of self-employment taxes paid
6) Business expenses
7) Loss on dispositions of assets used in trade or business
8) Losses from flow-through entities
9) Losses on dispositions of investment assets (net losses limited to $3,000 for the year)
10) Contributions to qualified retirement accounts
Because ___ AGI deductions decrease AGI, they increase the deductibility of the ____ AGI deductions subject to AGI limitations.
for, from
Deductions from AGI:
1) Itemized deductions
2) Standard deduction
3) Exemptions
Individuals have the choice of deducting the greater of their:
1) Itemized deductions
2) Standard deduction
Primary Categories of Itemized Deductions:
1) Medical and dental expenses: deductible to the extent these expenses exceed 7.5% of AGI
2) Taxes: state and local income taxes, real estate taxes, personal property taxes, and other taxes
3) Interest expense: mortgage, home equity, and investment interest expense
4) Gifts to charity (charitable contributions)
5) Casualty and theft losses: deductible to the extent they exceed 10% of AGI
6) Job expenses and certain miscellaneous deductions: deductible to the extent the sum of these expenses exceeds 2% of AGI
7) Other miscellaneous deductions: gambling losses (to the extent of gambling winnings) and certain other deductions not subject to AGI limitations
The amount of the standard deduction varies by . . .
taxpayer filing status.
Taxpayers __ years of age and/or _____ taxpayers are entitled to additional standard deduction amounts ($1,100 for married taxpayers and qualifying widows and widowers and $1,400 for other taxpayers).
65, blind
T/F: A blind taxpayer who is 65 years old or older is entitled to two additional standard deduction amounts.
TRUE
The standard deduction for individuals who are claimed as a dependent on another tax return is limited to the greater of
1) $950
2) $300 plus the dependent’s earned income
Exemption
A flat deduction allowed for the taxpayer, the taxpayer’s spouse, and each person who qualifies as a dependent of the taxpayer.
Personal exemptions
Exemptions for the taxpayer(s) filing the tax return
Dependency exemptions
Exemptions for those who are not filing the tax return.
Taxpayers can generally calculate their regular income tax liability using either a ___ _____ or a ___ ____ ________, depending on their filing status and income level.
tax table, tax rate schedule
Taxes imposed on tax bases other than the individual’s regular taxable income:
1) Alternative minimum tax (AMT)
2) Self-employment taxes
Individual taxpayers may reduce their tax liabilities by ___ _______ to determine their total taxes payable.
tax credits
Tax credits:
1) Are specifically granted by Congress
2) Directly reduce taxes payable
Common credits:
1) Child tax credit ($1,000 per child that qualifies for the credit)
2) Child and dependent care credit
3) Earned income credit
4) American opportunity credit
5) Lifetime learning credit
After calculating the total tax and subtracting their available credits, taxpayers determine their taxes due (or tax refund) by . . .
subtracting tax prepayments from the total tax remaining after credits.
Tax prepayments include:
1) Withholdings--income taxes withheld from the taxpayer's salary or wages by her employer
2) Estimated tax payments the taxpayer makes for the year
3) Taxes the taxpayer overpaid in the previous year that the taxpayer elects to apply as an estimated payment for the current year
If tax prepayments exceed the total tax after subtracting credits . . .
the taxpayer receives a tax refund for the difference.
If tax prepayments are less than the total tax after credits . . .
the taxpayer owes additional tax and potentially a penalty for the underpayment.
In 2010, taxpayers are allowed to deduct ____ for each personal and dependency exemption they are entitled to claim.
$3,650
Individual taxpayers may deduct a personal exemption for . . .
1) themselves
2) their spouse (if married filing jointly)
3) each person who qualifies as the taxpayer's dependent
T/F: Individuals who qualify as a dependent of another taxpayer may claim a personal exemption for themselves on their own individual tax returns.
FALSE
To qualify as a dependent of another, an individual . . .
1) Must be a resident of the United States, Canada, or Mexico.
2) Must not file a joint return with the individual's spouse unless there is no tax liability on the couple's joint return and there would not have been any tax liability on either spouse's tax return if they had filed separately.
3) Must be considered either a qualifying child or the taxpayer or a qualifying relative of the taxpayer.
To be considered a qualifying child of a taxpayer, an individual must satisfy the following four tests:
1) Relationship
2) Age
3) Residence
4) Support
Relationship test for qualifying child:
A qualifying child must be a relative of the taxpayer. Eligible relatives include the taxpayer's son, daughter, stepchild, an eligible foster child, brother, sister, half-brother, half-sister, stepbrother, stepsister, or a descendant of any of these relatives. This definition does NOT include cousins.
Age test for qualifying child:
A qualifying child must be younger than the taxpayer claiming such individual as a qualifying child and either (1) under age 19 at the end of the year or (2) under age 24 at the end of the year and a full-time student.
A person is a full-time student if . . .
she was in school full-time during any part of each of five calendar months during the calendar year.
T/F: An individual who is permanently and totally disabled is deemed to have met the age test.
TRUE
Residence test for qualifying child:
A qualifying child must have the same principal residence as the taxpayer for more than half the year. Time that a child (or the taxpayer) is temporarily away from the taxpayer's home because the child (or taxpayer) is ill, is pursuing an education, or has other special circumstances is counted as though the child (or taxpayer) were living in the taxpayer's home.
Support test for qualifying child:
A qualifying child must not have provided more than half his or her own support (living expenses) for the year. When determining who provided the support for a child of the taxpayer who is a full-time student, scholarship are EXCLUDED from the computation.
Support generally includes:
1) Food, school lunches, toilet articles, and haircuts.
2) Clothing.
3) Recreation--including toys, summer camp, horseback riding, entertainment, and vacation expenses.
4) Medical and dental care.
5) Child care expenses.
6) Allowances and gifts.
7) Wedding costs.
8) Lodging.
9) Education--including board, uniforms at military schools, and tuition.
When one person is a qualifying child to more than one taxpayer, the taxpayer who has priority for claiming the dependency exemption is based on the following tiebreaking rules:
1) If the person is a qualifying child of a parent, the parent is entitled to the dependency exemption for the child.
2) If the individual is a qualifying child to both parents, the parent with whom the child has resided for the longest period of time during the year has priority for claiming the dependency exemption.
3) If the child resides with both parents for the same amount of time or the qualifying child resides with taxpayers who are not the parents, the taxpayer with the highest AGI has priority for claiming the dependency exemption for the child.
A qualifying relative is a person who is NOT a qualifying child AND satisfies:
1) A relationship test
2) A support test
3) A gross income test
Relationship test for qualifying relative:
1) Includes people who are unrelated to the taxpayer if the unrelated person lived as a member of the taxpayer's home for the entire year.
2) A person is "related" to the taxpayer if the person is a descendant or ancestor of the taxpayer, a sibling of the taxpayer, or a stepmother, stepfather, stepbrother, stepsister, nephew, niece, aunt, uncle, or in-law of the taxpayer. Cousins are NOT considered related to the taxpayer for purposes of this test.
Support test for qualifying relative:
The taxpayer must pay more than half the qualifying relative's living expenses.
Under a multiple support agreement, taxpayers who don't pay over half of an individual's support may still be allowed to claim him or her as a dependent under the qualifying relative rules if the following apply:
1) No one taxpayer paid over 1/2 of the individual's support.
2) The taxpayer and at least one other person provided more than half the support of the individual, and the taxpayer and the other person(s) would have been allowed to claim the individual as a dependent except for the fact that they did not provide over 1/2 of the support of the individual.
3) The taxpayer contributed over 10% of the individual's support for the year.
4) Each other person who provided over 10% of the individual's support provides a signed statement to the taxpayer agreeing not to claim the individual as a dependent. The taxpayer includes the names, addresses, and Social Security numbers of each other person on a Form 2120, which the taxpayer attaches to her Form 1040.
Gross income test for qualifying relative:
Requires that a qualifying relative's gross income for the year be less than the person exemption amount ($3,650 for 2010).
Primary differences between who qualifies as a dependent and who qualifies as a dependent as a qualifying relative:
1) The relationship requirement is more broadly defined for qualifying relatives
2) Qualifying children are subject to age restrictions
3) Qualifying relatives are subject to a gross income restriction
4) Taxpayers need not provide more than half a qualifying child's support (though the child cannot provide more than half of her own support)
Taxpayers determine their filing status according to
1) Their marital status at year-end
2) Whether they have any dependents
Filing status determines:
1) The applicable tax rate schedule for determining the taxpayer's tax liability.
2) The taxpayer's standard deduction amount.
3) The AGI threshold for reductions in certain tax benefits such as certain itemized deductions and certain tax credits, among others.
Five filing statuses:
1) Married filing jointly
2) Married filing separately
3) Qualifying widow or widower (surviving spouse)
4) Head of household
5) Single
Married filing jointly:
1) Taxpayers are legally married as of the last day of the year
2) When one spouse dies during the year the surviving spouse is still considered to be married for tax purposes during the year of the spouse's death UNLESS the surviving spouse remarries during the year.
3) Both spouses are ultimately responsible for paying the joint tax
Married filing separately:
1) Taxpayers are legally married as of the last day of the year
2) Generally no tax advantage to filing separately (usually a disadvantage)
3) Each spouse is ultimately responsible for paying their own tax
4) Couples may choose to file separately (generally for nontax reasons)
Disadvantages of MFS:
1) Tax-related items are generaly 1/2 what they are for MFJ taxpayers
2) If one spouse deducts itemized deductions, the other spouse is required to deduct itemized deductions even if his or her itemized deductions are less than the standard deduction
It may be wise for married couples to file separately for ______ reasons.
nontax
Qualifying widow or widower:
When a taxpayer's spouse dies, the surviving spouse can file as qualifying widow or widower for two years after the year of the spouse's death if the surviving spouse 1) remains unmarried and 2) pays over half the cost of maintaining a household where a dependent child lived for the entire year.

NOTE: The dependent child must be a child or stepchild (including an adopted child) for whom the taxpayer may claim an exemption (not a foster child).
To qualify for head of household filing status, the taxpayer must
1) Pay more than half the costs of maintaining a household
2) A "qualifying person" must live with the taxpayer in that household for MORE than half the taxable year.

NOTE: If the qualifying person is the taxpayer's parent, the parent does not need to live with the taxpayer.
Head of household:
Unmarried taxpayers or abandoned spouses
A qualifying person includes (the person need meet only ONE of the following tests):
1) A qualifying child who qualifies as the taxpayer's dependent.
2) An individual whom the taxpayer would be able to claim as a dependent qualifying child except that the taxpayer released the exemption to the noncustodial parent.
3) A mother or father who qualifies as the taxpayer's dependent.
4) An individual who is not required to live with the taxpayer in order to meet the qualifying relative test (the individual is actually related to the taxpayer). However, this does not include individuals who qualify as the taxpayer's dependent under a multiple support agreement. Note also that these individuals may qualify as the taxpayer's dependent as a qualifying relative even if they do not live with the taxpayer during more than half the year. Even though the individual qualifies as the taxpayer's dependent, unless she lives with the taxpayer for more than half the year, she is not a qualifying person for purposes of the head of household test.
The tax laws treat married taxpayers who qualify as abandoned spouses as though . . .
they were unmarried at the end of the year. This allows them to qualify for the more favorable head of household filing status.
An abandoned spouse must meet all of the following requirements:
1) Is married at the end of the year (or is not legally separated from the other spouse).
2) Files a tax return for the year separate from the other spouse's.
3) Pays MORE THAN 1/2 the costs of maintaining his or her home for the entire year, and this home is the principal residence for a child (who qualifies as the taxpayer's dependent) for MORE THAN half the year (the child must be a child (including adopted child, stepchild, or eligible foster child).
4) Whose spouse does not live in the taxpayer's home for the last six months of the year.
Single:
Unmarried taxpayers at year-end who do not qualify for head of household.
Gross income
Income that taxpayers realize and recognize and report on their tax returns for the year.
Gross income is computed as . . .
income realized during the year, minus realized income that is either excluded from taxation or deferred until a subsequent year.
All-inclusive definition of income
All income from whatever source derived, unless excluded by law. Gross income includes income realized in any form, whether in money, property, or services.
Examples of gross income:
1) Compensation for services
2) Business income
3) Rents
4) Royalties
5) Interest
6) Dividends
Taxpayers recognize gross income when
1) They receive an economic benefit.
2) They realize the income.
3) No tax provision allows them to exclude or defer the income from gross income for that year.
T/F: When a taxpayer borrows money, the borrowed funds do NOT represent gross income because the increase in the taxpayer's assets from receiving the borrowed funds is completely offset by the liability the taxpayer is required to pay from borrowing the funds.
TRUE
Realization principle
Income is realized when (1) a taxpayer engages in a transaction with another party, and (2) the transaction results in a measurable change in property rights.
A transaction has the benefit of reducing the uncertainty associated with determining the amount of income because . . .
a change in rights can typically be traced to a specific moment in time and is generally accompanied by legal documentation.
T/F: For tax purposes, it doesn't matter whether income is obtained through legal or illegal activities.
TRUE
Adopting the realization principle provides two major advantages:
1) Because parties to the transaction must agree to the value of the exchanged property rights, the transaction allows the income to be measured objectively.
2) The transaction generally provides the taxpayer with the wherewithal to pay taxes (The transaction itself provides the taxpayer with the funds to pay taxes on income generated by the transaction).
Taxpayers are generally required to _________ all realized income by reporting it as gross income on their tax returns.
recognize
T/F: Taxpayers must receive cash to realize and recognize gross income.
FALSE; Taxpayers realize income whether they receive money, property, or services in a transaction.
When receiving a payment for property, taxpayers are allowed to recover the cost of the property tax free. Consequently, when taxpayers sell property . . .
they are allowed to reduce the sale proceeds by their unrecovered investment in the property to determine the realized gain from the sale.
When the tax basis exceeds the sale proceeds, the return of capital principle generally applies to . . .
the extent of the sale proceeds.
The excess basis over sale proceeds is generally considered to be a ____ that is deductible only if specifically authorized by a specific provision of the tax code.
loss
Why is a refund not typically included in gross income?
It usually represents a return of capital.
If the refund is made for an expenditure deducted in a PREVIOUS year, then under the ___ _______ ____ the refund is included in gross income to the extent that the prior deduction produced a tax benefit.
tax benefit rule
An itemized deduction only produces a tax benefit to the extent that . . .
total itemized deductions exceed the standard deduction.
Accrual method
Income is generally recognized when earned and expenses are generally deducted in the period when liabilities are incurred.
Most individuals use the ____ ______, and most large corporations use the _______ ______ of accounting.
cash method, accrual method
Cash method
Taxpayers recognize income in the period they receive it (in the form of cash, property, or services), rather than when they actually earn it.
Cash-method taxpayers claim deductions when . . .
they make expenditures, rather than when they incur liabilities.
Advantage of the cash method:
1) Taxpayers may have some control over when income is received and expenses are paid.
2) Because of this control, taxpayers can more easily use the timing tax planning strategy to lower the present value of their tax bill.
Constructive receipt doctrine
A taxpayer must realize and recognize income when it is actually or constructively received.
Constructive receipt is deemed to occur when . . .
the income has been credited to the taxpayer's account or when the income is unconditionally available to the taxpayer, the taxpayer is aware of the income's availability, and there are no restrictions on the taxpayer's control over the income.
Assignment of income doctrine:
Prevents taxpayers from arbitrarily transferring the taxation on their income to others.
Under the assignment of income doctrine,
1) The taxpayer who earns income services must recognize the income.
2) Income from property, such as dividends and interest, is taxable to the person who actually owns the income-producing property.
To shift income from property to another person, a taxpayer must also transfer the _________ in the property to the other person.
ownership
Which states implement community property systems?
1) Arizona
2) California
3) Idaho
4) Louisiana
5) Nevada
6) New Mexico
7) Texas
8) Washington
9) Wisconsin
Under community property systems:
1) Income earned from services by one spouse is treated as though it was earned equally by both spouses.
2) Property acquired b either spouse during the marriage is usually community property and is treated as though it is owned equally by each spouse, but property that a spouse brings into a marriage is treated as that spouse's separate property.
For federal income tax purposes, the community property system has the following consequences:
1) Half of the income earned from the services of one spouse is included in the gross income of the other spouse. In contrast, in common law states, all of the income earned by one spouse is included in the gross income of the spouse who earned it.
2) Half of the income from property held as community property by the married couple is included in the gross income of each spouse.
3) In all common law states and in five community property states (Arizona, California, Nevada, New Mexico, and Washington), all of the income from property owned separately by one spouse is included in that spouse's gross income.
4) In Texas, Louisiana, Wisconsin, and Idaho, half of the income from property owned separately by one spouse is included in the gross income of each spouse.
T/F: If a couple files a joint tax return, the community property rules do not affect the aggregate taxes payable by the couple, because the income of both spouse is aggregated on the return.
TRUE; However, when couples file separate tax returns, their combined tax liability may depend on whether they live in a common law state, a community property state that shares income from separate property equally between spouses, or a community property state that does not split income from separate property between spouses.
Income from services
Payments for services including salary, wages, and fees that a taxpayer earns through services in a nonemployee capacity.
Unearned income
Income from property.
Examples of unearned income:
1) Gain or losses from the sale of property
2) Dividends
3) Interest
4) Rents
5) Royalties
6) Annuities
The tax treatment of unearned income depends upon . . .
1) The type of income
2) The type of the transaction generating the income.
Annuity
Investment that pays a stream of equal payments over time.
Two basic types of annuities:
1) Annuities paid over a fixed period
2) Annuities paid over a person's life (for as long as the person lives)
Challenge of annuities:
To determine how much of each annuity payment represents gross income (income taxed at ordinary tax rates) and how much represents a nontaxable return of capital (return of the original investment).
Taxpayers use the _______ _________ _____ to determine the portion of each payment that is a nontaxable return of capital.
annuity exclusion ratio
Annuity exclusion ratio =
(Original investment/Expected value of annuity) = Return of capital percentage
For fixed annuities, the expected value is . . .
the number of payments times the amount of the payment.
For annuities paid over a person’s life . . .
taxpayers must use IRS tables to determine the expected value based up on the taxpayer’s life expectancy at the start of the annuity, and to calculate the expected value of the annuity, the number of annual payments from the table (referred to as the expected return multiple) is multiplied by the annual payment amount.
Joint-life annuity
Annuity that provides payments over the lives of two people.
A taxpayer who lives longer than his or her estimated life expectancy will ultimately receive more than the expected number of payments, and . . .
the entire amount of these “extra” payments is included in the taxpayer’s gross income because the taxpayer has completely recovered her investment in the annuity by the time she receives them.
If the taxpayer died BEFORE receiving the expected number of payments . . .
the amount of the unrecovered investment (the initial investment less the amounts received that is treated as a nontaxable return of capital) is deducted on the taxpayer’s final income tax return.
T/F: Taxpayers can realize a gain or loss when disposing of an asset.
TRUE
Taxpayers are allowed to recover their investment in property (tax basis) before they realize any ____.
gain
A ____ is realized when the proceeds are less than the tax basis in the property.
loss
When property is sold or disposed . . .
the realized gain or loss equals the sale proceeds reduced by the tax basis of the property.
The rate at which taxpayers are taxed on _____ from property dispositions and the extent to which they can deduct ______ from property dispositions depends on whether the taxpayer used the asset for business purposes, investment purposes, or personal purposes.
gains, losses
T/F: The legal form of a business affects how income generated by the business is taxed.
TRUE; If the entity is a flow-through entity such as a partnership or a S corporation, the income and deductions of the entity "flow through" to the owners of the entity (partners or shareholders).
To report income/deductions from flow-through entities:
Each partner or S corporation shareholder reports his or her share of the entity's income and deductions, generally in proportion to his or her ownership percentage, on his or her individual tax return.
T/F: Owners of flow-through entities are only taxed on their share of the entity's income if cash is distributed to them.
FALSE; Owners of flow-through entities are taxed on their share of the entity's income whether or not cash is distributed to them.
When owners receive cash from a flow-through entity . . .
the distributions are generally treated as a return of capital and, therefore, NOT included in the owner's gross income.
When couples legally separate or divorce, one spouse may be required to provide financial support to the other in the form of _______.
alimony
Alimony
1) A transfer of cash made under a written separation agreement or divorce decree
2) The separation or divorce decree does not designate the payment as something other than alimony
3) The payments cannot continue after the death of the recipient
T/F: Alimony shifts income from one spouse to another.
TRUE; If the payment is alimony, then the amount of the payment is included in the gross income of the person receiving it and is deductible for AGI by the person paying it.
Types of payments that DO NOT qualify as alimony:
1) Property divisions
2) Child support payments fixed by the divorce or separation agreement
If a transfer of property between spouses does NOT meet the definition of alimony . . .
the recipient of the transfer excludes the value of the transfer from income, and the person transferring the property is not allowed to deduct the value of the property transferred.
Problem with alimony:
It is possible to use alimony transfers to assign income from the (higher tax rate) payer of the alimony to the (lower tax rate) recipient.
Front loading restrictions:
Make it difficult for taxpayers to disguise property payments as alimony payments.
When taxpayers attempt to disguise property payments as alimony payments (large alimony payments shortly after the divorce, followed by smaller alimony payments in subsequent years) . . .
the tax laws may require the taxpayers to recharacterize (or “recapture”) part of the alimony payments as nondeductible property transfers.
Prizes, awards, and gambling winnings, such as raffle or sweepstake prizes or lottery winnings, ___ included in gross income.
ARE
Two exceptions to including prizes, awards, and gambling winnings in gross income:
1) Awards for scientific, literary, or charitable achievement such as the Nobel prize are excluded from gross income, BUT ONLY IF the taxpayer IMMEDIATELY transfers the award to a federal, state, or local government unit or qualified charity such as a church, school, or charitable organization.
2) Employee awards for length of service or safety achievement limited to $400 of tangible property other than cash per employee per year.
Transferring an award for scientific, literary, or charitable achievement has the same effect as claiming the transfer as a deduction ___ AGI; however, by receiving the award, recognizing the income, and then contributing funds to a charity, the taxpayer is deducting the donation as a deduction ____ AGI.
for, from
T/F: Taxpayers must include the gross amount of their gambling winnings for the year in gross income.
TRUE; And taxpayers are allowed to deduct their gambling losses to the extent of their gambling winnings, but the losses are usually deductible as miscellaneous itemized deductions.
For professional gamblers, the losses are deductible (to the extent of gambling winnings) ___ AGI.
for
Modified AGI:
Regular AGI (without including Social Security benefits) plus tax-exempt interest income and certain other deductions for AGI.
Taxability of Social Security benefits:
1) Low income individuals exclude all Social Security benefits from gross income. Low income is defined to include single taxpayers whose modified AGI plus ½ of their Social Security benefits are $25,000 or less and married taxpayers whose modified AGI plus ½ of their SS benefits is $32,000 or less.
2) High-income individuals include a portion of their benefits up to a max of 85% of the total SS benefits. High income is defined to include single taxpayers whose modified AGI plus ½ of their SS benefits is above $34,000 and married taxpayers whose modified AGI plus ½ of their Social Security benefit is above $44,000.
3) Taxpayers not in groups (1) and (2) above include a portion of their benefits up to 50% of the total SS benefits.
Taxpayers sometimes realize indirect economic benefits that they must include in gross income:
1) They are allowed to purchase products or services from an employer at less than the market price.
2) They are allowed to borrow money at less than the market rate of interest.
Taxpayers receiving economic benefits may be required to include a certain amount of _______ ______ from transactions in their gross income.
imputed income
Employees must recognize income to the extent they receive a greater than __ percent discount from their employer for the employer’s services or purchase goods from their employer at a price below the employer’s cost.
20
Imputed income
The difference between the amount of the loan multiplied by an applicable federal interest rate (compounded semiannually) and the amount of interest the taxpayer actually pays.
T/F: The imputed interest rules do not apply to loans of $10,000 or less.
TRUE
When a taxpayer’s debt is forgiven by a lender (the debt is discharged) . . .
the taxpayer must include the amount of debt relief in gross income.
Insolvent taxpayers
Taxpayers with liabilities, including tax liabilities, exceeding their assets.
A discharge of indebtedness is NOT taxable if the taxpayer is _________ before and after the debt forgiveness.
insolvent
If the discharge of indebtedness makes the taxpayer solvent . . .
the taxpayer recognizes gross income to the extent of his solvency.
Nonrecognition provisions
Tax laws allowing exclusions or deferrals.
Congress allows most exclusions and deferrals for two primary reasons:
1) To subsidize or encourage particular activities
2) To be fair to taxpayers (such as mitigating the inequity of double taxation)
Two common exclusion provisions:
1) Municipal interest
2) Qualifying fringe benefits
Municipal bonds
Bonds issued by state and local governments located in the United States.
In general, the value of fringe benefits is ________ in the employee's gross income as compensation for services.
included
Common qualifying fringe benefits:
1) Medial and dental health insurance coverage: an employee may exclude from income the cost of medical and dental health insurance premiums the employer pays on an employee's behalf.
2) Life insurance coverage: employees may exclude from income the value of life insurance premiums the employer pays on an employee's behalf for up to $50,000 of group-term life insurance.
3) De minimis (small) benefits: as a matter of administrative convenience, Congress allows employees to exclude from income relatively small and infrequent benefits employees receive at work (such as limited use of a business copy machine).
College students seeking a degree can exclude from gross income scholarships that pay for . . .
tuition, fees, books, supplies, and other equipment REQUIRED for the student's courses.
Excess scholarship amounts (such as for room or meals) are _____ taxable.
fully
T/F: The scholarship exclusion applies only if the recipient is not required to perform services in exchange for receiving the scholarship.
TRUE
Taxpayers are allowed to exclude from gross income earnings on investments in qualified education plans as long as . . .
they use the earnings to pay for qualifying educational expenditures.
Taxpayers can elect to exclude interest earned on Series EE savings bonds when . . .
the redemption proceeds are used to pay qualified higher education expenses for the taxpayer, the taxpayer’s spouse, or a dependent of the taxpayer.
The exclusion of interest income from Series EE bonds is partially reduced or eliminated for taxpayers exceeding a fixed level of modified adjust gross income (adjusted gross income before the educational savings bond exclusion, the foreign earned income exclusion, and certain other deductions), and if the taxpayer’s modified AGI exceeds the thresholds in the redemption year . . .
the exclusion is phased out (gradually reduced) until all the interest from the bonds is taxed.
Gift
Property transfer when the transferor is alive at the time of transfer.
Inheritance
Property transfer when the transferor is deceased at the time of transfer.
Gift and estate taxes are imposed on transfer of the property and not included in income by the _________.
recipient
Why does Congress exclude property transferred as gifts and inheritances from income taxation?
To avoid the potential double taxation (transfer and income taxation) on these transfers.
The tax laws allow taxpayers receiving life insurance proceeds to exclude the proceeds from taxable income. However . . .
when the insurance proceeds rae paid over a period of time rather than in a lump sum, a portion of the payments represents interest and must be included in gross income.
A maximum of _____ (2010) of foreign earned income can be excluded from gross income for qualifying individuals.
$91,500
Rather than claim a foreign earned income exclusion . . .
taxpayers may deduct foreign taxes paid as itemized deductions or they may claim the foreign tax credit for foreign taxes paid on their foreign earned income.
Requirements to qualify for the foreign earned income exclusion:
1) Be considered a resident of the foreign country OR
2) Live in a foreign country for 330 days in a consecutive 12-month period
Because the foreign earned income exclusion is computed on a _____ basis, the maximum exclusion is reduced pro rata for each day during the calendar year that the taxpayer is not considered to be a resident of the foreign country or does not actually live in the foreign country.
daily
Taxpayers receive worker’s compensation benefits when . . .
they are unable to work because of a work-related injury.
T/F: Payments a taxpayer receives from a state-sponsored worker’s compensation plan are excluded from the taxpayer’s income.
TRUE
Is unemployment compensation fully taxable?
YES
Payments received as compensation for a physical injury are excluded from gross income, but punitive damages are included in gross income because . . .
they are intended to punish the harm-doer rather than to compensate the taxpayer for injuries.
Reimbursements by health & accident insurance policies for medical expenses paid by the ________ are excluded from gross income.
taxpayer
Disability insurance/wage replacement insurance
Pays the insured individual for wages lost when the individual misses work due to injury or disability.
T/F: If an individual purchases disability insurance directly, the cost of the policy is deductible.
FALSE; The cost of the policy is not deductible, but any disability benefits are excluded from gross income.
Disability payments received from an ________-purchased policy are excluded from gross income.
employee
If premiums paid on the employee’s behalf are taxable compensation to the employee, the policy is considered to have been purchased by the ________. If the premium paid for by the employer is a nontaxable fringe benefit to the employee, the policy is considered to have been purchased by the ________.
employee, employer
Deferral provisions
Allow taxpayers to defer (but not permanently exclude) the recognition of certain types of realized income.
Transactions generating deferred income include:
1) Installment sales
2) Like-kind exchanges
3) Involuntary conversions
4) Contributions to non-Roth qualified retirement accounts
“Total income”
Gross income minus certain deductions for AGI such as business expenses and deductible capital losses.
Deductions appear in one of two places in the individual income tax formula:
1) Deductions “for AGI” (“above the line” deductions) are subtracted directly from gross income
2) Deductions “from AGI” (“below the line” or “itemized” deductions) are subtracted directly from AGI, resulting in taxable income
Three categories of for AGI deductions:
1) Deductions directly related to business activities
2) Deductions indirectly related to business activities
3) Deductions subsidizing specific activities
Why does Congress allow taxpayers involved in business activities to deduct expenses incurred to generate business income?
Because taxpayers include the revenue they receive from doing business in gross income.
For tax purposes, activities are either ______-motivated or motivated by ________ __________.
profit, personal objectives
Profit-motivated activities are classified as either:
1) Business activities
2) Investment activities
Business activities (trade or business)
Activities that require a relatively high level of involvement or effort from the taxpayer.
Investment activities
1) Profit-motivated activities that don’t require a high degree of taxpayer involvement or effort.
2) Involve investing in property for appreciation or for income payments.
Business expenses are deducted ___ AGI.
for
What is the lone exception to business expenses?
Unreimbursed employee business expenses, which are deductible as itemized (from AGI) deductions.
Expenses associated with rental and royalty activities are deductible ___ AGI regardless of whether the activity qualifies as an investment or a business.
for
Congress limits business deductions to expenses directly related to the business activity and those that are ________ ___ _________ for the activity.
ordinary and necessary
Business deductions are reported with business revenues on Schedule _ of the Form 1040.
C
Rental and royalty deductions are reported with rental and royalty revenues on Schedule _ of the Form 1040.
E
Why are rental and royalty expenses deductible for AGI?
Because Congress believed that these activities usually require more taxpayer involvement than other types of investment activities.
Taxpayers disposing of business assets at a loss are allowed to deduct the losses ___ AGI.
for
T/F: Individual taxpayers selling investment (capital) assets at a loss are allowed to deduct the “capital” losses against other capital gains.
TRUE; If the capital losses exceed the capital gains, they can deduct up to $3,000 as a net capital loss in a particular year, and losses in excess of the $3,000 limit are carried forward indefinitely to subsequent years when they are deductible subject to the same limitations.
Income from flow-through entities such as partnerships, LLCs, and S corporations passes through to the owners of those entities and is reported on Schedule _ of the tax returns of the owners.
E
T/F: Taxpayers are allowed to deduct expenses in activities that are not directly related to making money but that they would not have incurred if they were not involved in a business activity as deductions ___ AGI.
for
Individuals can deduct moving expenses as deductions for AGI if they meet two tests:
1) A distance test: the distance from the taxpayer’s old residence to the new place of work must be at least 50 miles more than the distance from the old residence to the old place of work.
2) A business test associated with the move: the taxpayer must either be employed full-time for 39 of the first 52 weeks after the move or be self-employed for 78 of the first 104 weeks after the move.
Deductible moving expenses are limited to . . .
Reasonable expenses associated with moving personal possessions and traveling to the new residence, including transportation and lodging—NOT meals during the move or costs associated with house-hunting trips.
T/F: Taxpayers are allowed to deduct a mileage rate in lieu of the actual costs of driving their personal automobiles during the move.
TRUE; In 2010, taxpayers are allowed to deduct 16.5 cents a mile for driving their personal automobiles during a move.
Taxpayers who are reimbursed by their employers for actually moving expenses _______ the reimbursement from income but do not ______ the reimbursed expenses.
exclude, deduct
Taxpayers who receive a flat amount as a moving allowance from their employers are required to . . .
Include the allowance in gross income, and can deduct their actually moving expenses for AGI.
Employers are allowed to deduct health insurance premiums as compensation expense while employees are allowed to _______ these premiums from gross income.
exclude
To provide equitable treatment, Congress allows self-employed taxpayers to . . .
Claim personal health insurance premiums as deductions for AGI—unless the taxpayer is eligible to participate in an employer-provided health plan, regardless of whether the taxpayer actually participates in the plan.
T/F: Self-employed individuals are required to pay self-employment tax, which is double that paid by employees, because it represents both the employee’s and the employer’s share of the Social Security tax.
TRUE; However, self-employed taxpayers are allowed to deduct ½ of the self-employment tax they pay.
The penalty for early withdrawal of savings provision allows a deduction ___ AGI for any interest income an individual forfeit to a bank as a penalty for prematurely withdrawing a certificate of deposit or similar deposit.
for
Congress has created two important deductions for AGI to encourage and subsidize higher education:
1) Interest expense on qualified educational loans (loans whose proceeds are used to pay qualified education expenses)
2) Qualified educational expenses
Up to ____ of interest on education loans is deductible for AGI; however, the maximum deduction is reduced (phased-out) for taxpayers with AGI exceeding $60,000 ($120,000 married filing jointly).
$2,500
T/F: Married individuals who file separately are allowed to deduct the qualified education loans expense.
FALSE; They are not allowed to deduct this expense under any circumstance.
Education expenses:
1) Up to $4,000 of qualified education expenses can be deducted for AGI.
2) Qualified education expenses include tuition and related costs for postsecondary or higher education.
3) The deduction is reduced for taxpayers with modified AGI over $65,000 ($130,000 married filing jointly) and eliminated for taxpayers with modified AGI of $80,000 ($160,000 married filing jointly) or more.
T/F: Married individuals filing separately are ineligible for the qualified education expense deduction.
TRUE
Two important differences between the AGI limits on the interest on education loans deduction and the AGI limits on the educational expense deduction:
1) The definition of modified AGI for qualified education expenses includes the deduction for interest on education loans.
2) The interest expense on education loans is phased out gradually over a range of AGI but the deduction for qualified education expense is phased out in specific AGI increments (the phase-out applies in steps).
A single expenditure ______ generate multiple tax benefits.
cannot
Deductions from AGI:
1) The greater of itemized deductions or the standard deduction
2) Personal and dependency exemption deductions
Many itemized deductions are ________ in nature but are allowed to subsidize desirable activities such as home ownership and charitable giving.
personal
The medical expense deduction is designed to . . .
provide relief for taxpayers whose ability to pay taxes is seriously hindered by health-related circumstances.
Qualifying medical expenses include:
Any payments fro the care, prevention, diagnosis, or cure of injury, disease, or bodily function that are not reimbursed by health insurance or are not paid for through a "flexible" spending account.
T/F: Taxpayers must also deduct medical expenses incurred to treat their spouses and their dependents.
TRUE
Medical expenses for cosmetic surgery or other similar procedures are not deductible UNLESS . . .
the surgery or procedure is necessary to ameliorate a deformity arising from, or directly related to, a congenital abnormality, a personal injury resulting from an accident or trauma, or disfiguring disease.
T/F: Taxpayers traveling for the primary purpose of receiving essential and deductible medical care may deduct the cost of lodging while away from home overnight (with certain restrictions) and transportation.
TRUE; Taxpayers using personal automobiles for medical transportation purposes may deduct a standard mileage allowance in lieu of actual costs (16.5 cents a mile for 2010).
When may taxpayers deduct the cost of meals and lodging at hospitals?
When the principal purpose for the stay is medical care rather than convenience.
The deduction for medical expenses is limited to the amount of unreimbursed qualifying medical expenses paid during the year reduced by ___ percent of the taxpayer's AGI.
7.5
Floor limitation
Eliminates any deduction for amounts below the floor.
Purpose of the floor limitation:
To restrict a deduction to taxpayers with substantial qualifying expenses.
T/F: Unreimbursed medical expenses typically produce tax benefits for high income taxpayers.
FALSE; Unreimbursed medical expenses rarely produce tax benefits, especially for high income taxpayers.
Individuals may deduct as itemized deductions payments made during the year for the following taxes:
1) State, local, and foreign income taxes, including state and local taxes paid during the year through employer withholding, estimated tax payments, and overpayments on the prior year return that the taxpayer applies to the current year (the taxpayer asks the state to keep the overpayment rather than refund it).
2) Real estate taxes on property held for personal or investment purposes.
3) Personal property taxes that are assessed on the value of the specific property.
In 2009, taxpayers who did not itemize deductions were allowed to increase their standard deduction amount for
1) real property taxes they paid during the year and
2) sales taxes paid during the year on purchases of qualified motor vehicles
For real property taxes, the additional standard deduction amount is limited to the lesser of:
1) The amount of real property taxes paid during the year.
2) $500 ($1,000 for married filing jointly).
For sales taxes, the additional standard amount is limited to . . .
the tax on up to $49,500 of the purchase price of qualified motor vehicles ($24,750 if married filing jointly)
T/F: The additional standard deduction for sales taxes was phased out ratably for taxpayers with modified AGI between $125,000 and $135,000 ($250,000 and $260,000 on a joint return).
TRUE
The itemized deduction for qualified motor vehicle taxes _____ available to a taxpayer who elected to deduct state and local sales taxes in lieu of state income taxes.
wasn't
Two itemized deductions for interest expense:
1) Interest paid on loans secured by a personal residence
2) Interest paid on loans used to purchase investment assets such as stocks, bonds, or land (investment interest expense)
The deduction of investment interest is limited to . . .
a taxpayer's net investment income (investment income minus investment expense), and any investment interest in excess of the the net investment income limitation carries forward to the subsequent year.
T/F: Taxpayers are allowed to deduct interest on personal credit card debt or on loans to acquire (and secured by) personal-use automobiles.
FALSE
Congress encourages donations to charities by allowing taxpayers to deduct contributions of money and other property to _________ charitable organizations.
qualified
Qualifying charitable organizations include:
organizations that engage in educational, religious, scientific, governmental, or other public activities.
The ______ of the charitable contribution depends on whether the taxpayer contributes money or other property to the charity.
amount
T/F: Cash contributions are deductible in the year paid, including donations of cash or by check, electronic funds transfers, credit card charges, and payroll deductions.
TRUE
Taxpayers are also considered as making monetary contributions for the cost of transportation and travel for charitable purposes if . . .
there is no significant element of pleasure or entertainment in the travel.
When taxpayers use their personal vehicles for charitable transportation purposes, they may deduct, as a cash contribution, a standard mileage allowance for each mile driven (__ cents a mile in 2010).
14
T/F: Taxpayers are allowed to deduct the value of the services they provide for charities.
FALSE
Taxpayers receiving goods or services from a charity in exchange for a contribution may only deduct the amount of . . .
the contribution in excess of the fair market value of the goods or services they receive in exchange for their contribution.
When a taxpayer donates property to charity, the amount the taxpayer is allowed to deduct depends on whether the property is ______ ___ ________ or ________ ______ ________.
capital gain property, ordinary income property
Capital gain property:
Taxpayers are allowed to deduct the fair market value of capital gain property on the date of the donation.
Capital gain property
Any appreciated asset that would have generated a long-term capital gain if the taxpayer had sold the property for its fair market value instead of contributing the asset to charity.
To qualify as long term, the taxpayer must have held the asset for more than _ ____.
a year
Capital assets include:
1) Investment assets (stocks, bonds, land held for investment, paintings, etc.)
2) Business assets (to the extent that gain on the sale of the business asset would not have been considered ordinary income)
3) Personal-use assets
T/F: When taxpayers contribute capital gain property, they are NOT required to include the appreciation on the asset in gross income.
TRUE
The deduction for capital gain property that is tangible personal property is limited to . . .
the adjusted basis of the property if the charity uses the property for a purpose that is unrelated to its charitable purpose.
Taxpayers contributing ordinary income property can only deduct the lesser of
1) The property's fair market value
2) The property's adjusted basis.
Ordinary income property
1) All assets other than capital gain property.
2) Property that if sold would generate income taxed at ordinary rates.
Ordinary income property includes the following types of assets:
1) Assets the taxpayer has held for a year or less.
2) Inventory the taxpayer sells in a trade or business.
3) Business assets held for more than a year to the extent the taxpayer would recognize ordinary income under the depreciation recapture rules if the taxpayer has sold the property.
4) Assets, including investment assets and person-use assets, with a value less than the taxpayer's basis in the assets (assets that have declined in value).
The amount of a taxpayer's charitable contribution deduction for the year is limited to a _______ or maximum deduction.
ceiling
Private operating foundations
Privately sponsored foundations that actually fund and conduct charitable activities.
Cash and property donations to public charities and private operating foundations are limited to __ percent of the taxpayer's AGI.
50
Deductions for contributions of capital gain property to public charities and private operating foundations are generally limited to __ percent of the taxpayer's AGI.
30
Private nonoperating foundations
Privately sponsored foundations that disburse funds to other charities.
Deductions for cash and property contributions to private nonoperating foundations are limited to __ percent of the taxpayer's AGI.
30
Deductions for contributions of capital gain property to private nonoperating foundations are limited to __ percent of the taxpayer's AGI.
20
When taxpayers make contributions that are subject to different percentage limitations, they apply the AGI limitations in the following sequence:
1) Determine the limitation for the 50% contributions.
2) Apply the limitations for the 30% contributions. The 30% contribution limit is the lesser of (a) AGI x 30% or (b) AGI x 50% minus the amount of contributions deducted in Step 1.
3) Apply the limitations to the 20% contributions. The 20% contribution limit is the lesser of (a) AGI x 20% or (b) AGI x 30% minus the amount of contributions from Step 2.
When a taxpayer's contributions exceed the AGI ceiling limitation for the year . . .
the excess contribution is treated as though it were made in the subsequent tax year and is subject to the same AGI limitations in the next year. It can be carried forward for five years before it expires.
T/F: Individuals cannot deduct losses they realize when they sell or dispose of assets used for personal purposes.
TRUE; However, individuals are allowed to deduct casualty and theft losses realized on personal-use assets.
Casualty loss
Loss arising from a sudden, unexpected, or unusual event such as a "fire, storm, or shipwreck" or loss from theft.
Why does Congress allow deductions for unreimbursed casualty and theft losses?
Because these losses may substantially reduce a taxpayer's ability to pay taxes.
The amount of the tax loss from any specific casualty event (including theft) is the lesser of:
1) The decline in value of the property caused by the casualty
2) The taxpayer's tax basis in the damaged or stolen asset.
Losses from casualty losses are reduced by . . .
any reimbursements the individual is eligible to receive, such as insurance reimbursements.
Casualty losses must exceed two separate floor limitations to qualify as itemized deductions:
1) $100 for each casualty event during the year
2) 10% of AGI (applies to the sum of all casualty losses for the year after applying the $100 floor)
Miscellaneous itemized deductions subject to the floor limitation:
1) Employee business expenses
2) Investment expenses
3) Certain other expenses
Miscellaneous itemized deductions are summed together and are deductible only to the extent that their sum exceeds _% of the taxpayer's AGI.
2
Employee business expenses
Those that are appropriate and helpful for the employee's work.
Several types of employee expenses are restricted. For example:
1) The costs of job hunting qualify if the job is in the employee's current trade or business, but not for the individual's first job.
2) The cost of education qualifies if it serves to maintain or improve the employee's skill in the business, but not if the education is required to qualify for a new business or profession.
T/F: The cost of travel is deductible if the primary purpose of the trip is business.
TRUE; However, the cost of commuting is personal and never deductible.
When employees drive their personal automobiles for business purposes, they may deduct a standard mileage rate in lieu of deducting actual costs (__ cents per mile in 2010).
50
When employees travel on business trips long enough to be away from home overnight, meals and lodging qualify as employee business expenses, but employees are allowed to deduct only __ the cost of the meals.
1/2
As a generally rule, employees _______ reimbursements in gross income and ______ employee business expenses as miscellaneous itemized deductions.
include, deduct
Accountable plan
If an employee is required to submit documentation supporting expenses to receive reimbursement and the employer reimburses only legitimate business expenses.
Under an accountable plan . . .
employees exclude expense reimbursements from gross income and do NOT deduct the reimbursed expenses.
Under an accountable plan, if expenses exceed the reimbursements . . .
the excess (unreimbursed) portion is deductible as an employee business expense.
Investment expenses
Include expenditures necessary for the production or collection of income, or for the management, conservation, or maintenance of property held for the production of income.
Common investment expenses:
1) Expenses associated with investment income or property.
2) Investment advisory fees.
3) Safe-deposit box fees.
4) Subscriptions to investment-related publications.
Ordinary and necessary expenses incurred in connection with determining tax obligations imposed by federal, state, municipal, or foreign authorities are deductible as . . .
miscellaneous itemized deductions subjet to the 2% floor.
Hobby
Certain activities for primarily personal enjoyment that may also generate revenue.
Hobby loss limitation
Hobby expenses are deductible only to the extent of the revenue generated by the hobby.
The tax law explicitly presumes that an activity is a business if it generates a profit in _ of _ consecutive years.
3, 5
If an activity is determined to be a hobby, the taxpayer must . . .
include the revenue from the activity in gross income and may deduct the expenses, to the extent of the gross income from the activity, as miscellaneous itemized deductions.
Miscellaneous itemized deductions:
1) Employee business expenses not reimbursed by an accountable plan.
2) Investment expenses if not in a rental or royalty activity.
3) Tax preparation fees and allowable hobby expenses.
4) Total miscellaneous itemized deductions subject to a 2% of AGI floor limit.
Standard deduction
Flat amount that most individuals can elect to deduct instead of deducting their itemized deductions (if any).
Taxpayers generally deduct the _______ of their standard deduction or their itemized deductions.
greater
The amount of the standard deduction varies according to the taxpayer's . . .
1) Filing status
2) Age
3) Eyesight
For an individual who is claimed as a dependent on another's return, the standard deduction is the greater of
1) $950
2) $300 plus the individual's earned income limited to the regular standard deduction (including the additional standard deduction amounts, if any).
From the government's standpoint, the standard deduction serves two purposes:
1) To help taxpayers with lower income
2) Eliminates the need for the IRS to verify and audit itemized deductions for those taxpayers who choose to deduct the standard deduction.
From the taxpayer's perspective, the standard deduction allows them to . . .
avoid taxation on a portion of their income, and for those not planning to itemize, it eliminates the need to substantiate and collect information about them.
While the standard deduction reduces taxes by offsetting income with an automatic deduction, it eliminates the tax benefits of itemized deductions up to the amount of the _________ _________.
standard deduction
Bunching itemized deductions
Consists of shifting itemized deductions into one year such that the amount of itemized deductions exceeds the standard deduction for the year, and then deducting the standard deduction in the near year (or vise versa).
Why is taxpayer's ability to shift itemized deductions limited?
Because the timing of these payments is not completely discretionary.
Taxpayers are generally allowed to deduct ____ in 2010 for each personal and dependency exemption.
$3,650
A taxpayer's from AGI deduction for personal and dependency exemption is $3,650 multiplied for . . .
the number of the taxpayer's exemptions.
Taxpayers with AGI in excess of the threshold amount determine the phase-out by comparing the lesser of the following two numbers:
1) 3% x (AGI in excess of the threshold amount)
2) 80% of the those itemized deductions subject to phase-out
Because itemized deductions can be reduced by not completely eliminated, the phase-out provision is sometimes referred to as a _______ or _______.
cutback, haircut
The process for determining the taxpayer's allowable personal and dependency exemptions after the phase-out involves the following five steps:
1) Subtract the taxpayer's AGI from the AGI threshold based on the taxpayer's filing status. If the threshold equals or exceeds the taxpayer's AGI, the taxpayer deducts her full personal and dependency exemptions.
2) Divide the excess AGI (the amount from Step 1) by 2,500. If the result is not a whole number (i.e., the excess AGI is not evenly divisible by 2,500), round up to the next whole number.
3) Multiply the outcome of Step 3 by 2%, but limit the product to 100%. This is the full-phase out percentage.
4) Multiply the percentage determined in Step 3 by the taxpayer's total personal and dependency exemptions (number of personal and dependent exemptions times the exemption amount for that year). The product is the amount of personal and dependency exemption deductions that is phased-out (the taxpayer is not allowed to deduct this amount).
5) Subtract the Step 4 result from the taxpayer's total personal and dependency exemptions that would be deductible without any phase-out (i.e., number of personal and d