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240 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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1-1 How many parts make up the construction of the standard screwdriver
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
C. 3 |
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1-2 What makes a standard screwdriver different from a Phillips head screw? A. End B. Handle C. Tip you should differently D. Shank |
C. Tip is shaped differently |
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1-3 The still soon adjustable wrench is equipped with how many jaws? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
A. 2 |
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1-4 What provides grip ability on the Stillson adjustable wrench? A. Adjustable jaw B. Handle grip C. Nylon strap D. Shredded teeth |
D. Shredded teeth |
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1-5 When a definite Force must be applied to a nut or Bolt head, what tool must be used? A. Caliper slide B. Dynamometer C. Torque wrench D. Strap lunch |
C. Torque wrench |
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1-6 The hinges on bolt cutters should be kept? A. Clean B. Free of paint C. Lightly greased D. Well oiled |
D. Well oiled |
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1-7 What tool can be used as a lever for moving heavy objects short distances? A. Adjustable wrench B. Deflecting beam C. Hammer D. Wrecking bar |
D. Wrecking bar |
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1-8 The term pneumatic describes what type of power source? A. Air B. Electric C. Hydraulic D. Steam |
A. Air |
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1-9 Excessive Air pressure when utilizing pneumatic tools will result in? A. Completion of work in a faster time B. Environmental hazard C. Damage to the tool D. Making the job easier |
C. Damage to the tool |
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1-10 The average size electric drill is equipped with work capacity, three-finger chuck? A. 1/2 B. 1/3 C. 1/4 D. 7/16 |
C. 1/4 |
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1-11 The pneumatic chipping hammer is another tool useful to ABH when scaling? A. Bulkhead areas B. Large areas C. Overhead areas D. Small areas |
B. Large areas |
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1-12 Which Power tool can be manufactured to be powered by air or electricity? A. Drill and chipping hammer B. Drill and rotary impact scaler C. Rotary impact scaler and chipping hammer D. Rotary impact scaler and portable sander |
D. Rotary impact scaler and portable sander |
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1-13 When exact measurements are required what measuring tool is used? A. Caliper B. Folding rule C. Tape rule D. Steel rule |
A. Caliper |
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1-14 On A steel or tape rule, The long line represents? A. Centimeter B. Foot C. Inch |
C. Inch |
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1-15 what should be done to prevent tape or fiberglass rules from kinking A. Frequently used B. Keep lightly oiled C. Pulled straight from the case D. Keep in wooden box |
C. Pulled straight from the case |
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1-16 A Dynamometer is an apparatus using to determine? A. Breaking strength B. Capacity C. Height D. Weight |
A. Breaking strength |
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1-17 Uses for the dynamometer May include determining the breaking strength of the tension system of which equipment on shore? A. Aircraft B. Crash crane C. Ground support equipment D. E-28 |
D. E-28 |
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1-18 Before portable electric tools are used for the first time after procurement, they should be inspected by? A. Electrical safety petty officer B. Electrical safety officer C. Safety officer D. Ships supply officer |
B. Electrical safety officer |
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1-19 Personnel operating power tool that produce excessive noise levels are required to wear hearing protection issued by? A. Divisional supply representative B. Medical C. Safety D. Supply |
A. Divisional supply representative |
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1-20 What class explosion proof electrical tool should be utilize where exposed explosives are present? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
A. 1 |
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1-21 Handheld portable electric tools authorized for use on board ship's shall be equipped with? A. Battery meter B. Manual/automatic switch C. On/off switch D. Voltage gauge |
C. On/off switch |
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1-22 Extension cords should be no longer than 25 feet in length except when used on what class ship? A. CVN B. DDG C. LHA/LHD D. LPD |
A. CVNs |
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1-23 Which of the following are allowed to be worn around Rotary machines? A. Bracelets B. Earrings C. Rings D. Unbuttoned longsleeve shirts |
B. Earrings |
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1-24. It is required to wear leather gloves when handling? A. Chemicals B. Electrical equipment C. Hot work D. Sharp materials |
D. Sharp material |
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1-25 Tending Lines are used for? A. Aircraft safety B. Aircraft oscillation C. Personnel safety D. Securing aircraft |
C. Personnel safety |
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1-26 Generally, small stuff is line that is less than? A. 1 3/4 B. 5 inches C. 10 inches D. 16 inches |
A. 1 3/4 inches |
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1-29 What is the mechanical advantage of the gun tackle A. 2.1 B. 3.1 C. 4.1 D. 5.1 |
A. 2.1 |
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1-30 It is imperative that equipment is stowed in it's assigned area for what reason? A. Identification B. Inventory C. Inspection D. Ready for use |
D. Ready for use |
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2-1 The A/S32A-30A is primarily designed for towing _______ A. Aircraft B. Aircraft parts C. Power plants D. Ground support equipment |
D. Ground support equipment |
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2-2 What is the secondary mission of the A/S32A-30A A. Tow aircraft parts B. Tow large aircraft C. Tow Power plants D. Tow small aircraft |
D. Tow small aircraft |
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2-3 The A/S32A-32 tow tractor (SD-2 spotting dolly) is controlled by the use of a? A. Joystick B. Remote control C. Radio transmission D. Steering wheel |
A. Joystick |
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2-4 What is the maximum total capacity of the A/S32A-30A? A. 40,000 lbs. B. 50,000 lbs. C. 60,000 lbs. D. 70,000 lbs. |
A. 40,000 lbs. |
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2-5 The overall height of the A/S32A-32 is? A. 20 inches B. 30 inches C. 40 inches D. 50 inches |
B. 30 inches |
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2-6 What is the drawbar pull of the A/S32A-32? A. 11,000 lbs. B. 12,000 lbs C. 13,000 lbs. D. 14,000 lbs |
D. 14,000 lbs. |
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2-7 How many phases are there in the ground support licensing program? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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2-8 Who Will handle the phase 2 portion of the ground support licensing program A. AIMD expert B. AIMD officer C. Division D. Safety |
C. Division |
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2-9 Phase two of the ground support licensing program covers? A. On-the-job training B. Post operation C. Pre-operation D. Safety
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A. On-the-job training |
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2-10 What type of material is the NWC-4 universal wheel chock made from? A. Aluminum B. Plastic C. Polyurethane D. Wood |
C. Polyurethane |
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2-11 What is the difference between the regular TD-1B and the type used on amphibious assault ships? A. Capacity B. Length C. Material D. Parts |
B. Length |
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2-12 For specific information considering the high-power tiedown assembly for each type of aircraft you would refer to the? A. NAVAIR 00-80T-96 B. NAVAIR 17-1-537 C. NAVAIR 19-1-137 D. MiM |
B. Navair 17-1-537 |
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2-13 When utilizing the NWC-4 universal wheel chock, where should the adjustable end of the chalk be placed on the aircraft wheel? A. Aft B. Forward C. Forward Main mount D. Outrigger |
A. Aft |
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2-14 The TD-1B can be tightened by using the? A. Chain pocket B. Nodes C. Tensioner assembly D. Wall tube |
C. Tensioner assembly |
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2-15 The 24 ALBAR is designed specifically for what aircraft? A. AV-8B B. CH-53 C. SH-60 D. MV-22 |
C. SH-60 |
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2-16 When The aircraft elevator is loaded to capacity, with all pumps and use, what is the total duty cycle time? A. 50 seconds B. 60 seconds C. 70 seconds D. 80 seconds |
B. 60 Sec. |
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2-17 The horizontal Locking bars of the aircraft elevator are powered? A. Electronically B. Hydraulically C. Manually D. Pneumatically |
D. Pneumatically |
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2-18 Aircraft elevator safety stanchion should not be operated in? A. Automatic mode B. Emergency mode C. Manual mode D. Safemode |
A. Automatic mode |
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2-19 V-1 division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation? A. Hanger deck B. Flight deck C. Machinery room D. Pump room |
B. Flight Deck |
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2-20 V-3 division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation? A. Hanger deck B. Flight Deck C. Machinery room D. Pump room |
A. Hanger deck |
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2-21 A division is responsible for what part of the aircraft elevator operation? A. Hanger deck B. Flight Deck C. Machinery room D. Pump room |
C. Machinery room |
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2-22 There are how many different compositions of nonskid? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
A. 2 |
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2-23 Nonskid Coding kits are supplied in how many components? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D 4. |
B. 2 |
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2-24 The shelf life of nonskid is? A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 4 years |
A. 1 year |
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2-25 What is the most preferred method of nonskid removal? A. Abrasive-blast B. Power tools C. Shot-blasting D. Water-jetting |
D. Water-jetting |
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2-26 In order to make sure the correct primer coverage, the DFT Braden must be taken when the primer has? A. Cured B. Dried C. Reached ambient Air temperature D. Reached ambient deck temperature |
A. Cured |
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2-27 When completing the primer application process, what will allow corrosion to set in and degrade the process? A. Deck temperature B. Holiday C. Humidity D. WFT |
B. Holiday |
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2-28 VLA markings on the hanger Deck are placed ____ from the deck A. 12 feet B. 13 feet C. 14 feet D. 15 feet |
C. 14 feet |
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2-29 The ships frame number markings are placed on both the starboard and port Bulkheads at frame intervals of? A. 5 B. 10 C. 15 D. 20 |
B. 10 |
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2-30 For what class ship does the naval air warfare Center visual landing aids general service bulletin, No. 8 establish standards certification requirements and inspections? A. ACS B. CVN C. LHD D. LPD |
B. CVN |
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3-1 What Color wand is utilized by the catapult topside safety Petty Officer? A. Amber B. Green C. Red D. White |
D. White |
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3-2 What Color wand is utilized by the weight board operator? A. Amber B. Green C. Red D. White |
D. White |
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3-3 What flight Deck personnel utilizes one stubby and read banded wand? A. Deck edge operator B. Hook runner C. Ordinance arming crew D. Plane checker |
C. Ordnance arming crew |
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3-4 On The flight deck of a CVN, what color Wands are utilized by the LSE? A. Two Amber B. Two blue standard C. Two red standard D. One red standard and one green standard |
D. One red standard and one green standard |
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3-5 What symbol is worn on the life vest of a helicopter plain Captain? A. C B. E C. H D. P |
C. H |
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3-6 What symbol is worn on the life vest of helicopter LSE? A. C B. E C. H D. P |
C. H |
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3-7 On The Flight Deck, all officers, Chief Petty Officer's, and leading petty officers are indicate by? A. The color of their trousers B. Caller devices C. Their jersey color D. Three orange stripes |
D. Three orange stripes |
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3-8 During and aircraft move, the brake rider is required to keep the canopy open in order for? A. The brake Rider to see the crew B. The brake Rider to hear C. The plane captain to see the path of travel D. The cockpit to ventilate |
B. The brake rider to hear |
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3-9 Upon Aircraft landing, who is responsible for the installation of the down locks? A. Landing signalman enlisted B. Chalk walkers C. Plane captain D. Maintenance crew |
C. Plane captain |
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3-10 Before commencing an aircraft move, who is responsible for verifying the qualifications of the move members? A. Director B. Leaving Petty Officer C. Pilot D. Plane Captain |
N/A |
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3-11 What hand signal is given before chocks and chains are removed from the aircraft? A. Apply brakes B. Come ahead C. Hold D. Stop |
A. Apply brakes |
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3-12 During and aircraft elevator evolution, when the words "standby for a turn " are past, the elevator must be? A. Lowered to the hanger Bay B. Raised to the Flight Deck C. Slowed down immediately D. Stopped immediately |
B. Raised to the Flight Deck |
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3-13 Before commencing elevator movement, the horn must be sounded how many times? A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four |
C. Three |
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3-14 Any damage to an aircraft, no matter how slight, must be immediately reported to the? A. Air wing Coordinator B. Air boss C. ACHO D. Air maintenance officer |
C. ACHO |
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3-15 In operations requiring taxiing of aircraft, directors are stationed at intervals of ____ feet along to Flight Deck? A. 30 to 80 B. 40 to 90 C. 50 to 100 D. 60 to 100 |
C. 50 to 100 |
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3-16 The Standard position for director is ahead of the aircraft in line with the? A. Cockpit B. Left wing tip C. Right wing tip D. Nose |
B. Left wing tip |
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3-17 Squadron inspectors must not perform inspection while in aircraft is? A. Fueling B. Preparing to take off C. Taxing D. Starting |
C. Taxiing |
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3-18 After The launch bar has been properly seated and verified by the hookup Petty Officer, he or she gives what signal to the director? A. Go B. Increase thrust C. Pass control D. Raise launch bar |
A. Go |
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3-19 According to the NAVAIR 00-80T-120, Aircraft recovery stanchions are manned ____ minutes prior? A. 30 B. 40 C. 50 D. 60 |
A. 30 |
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3-20 What is the purpose of having a tow tractor in a ready condition during recovery? A. To tow aircraft clear from the wire B. To tow aircraft with broken struts C. To tow aircraft with blown tires D. To tow aircraft with no hydraulics |
C. To toe aircraft with blow tires |
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3-21 What is the initial tie-down requirement for the F/A-18 A. Four B. Five C. Six D. Nine |
C. Six |
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3-31 During high winds on shore, multi engine aircraft are tied down and secured at _____ points. A. Four B. Six C. Eight D. Nine |
B. Six |
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3-32 On shore station, what types of stakes provided the greatest aircraft security? A. Corkscrew B. Polyurethane C. Plain metal D. Wooden |
A. Corkscrew |
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3-33 Vehicles operating in the vicinity of aircraft must limit their speed to 5 mph within _____ feet. A. 20 B. 30 C. 40 D. 50 |
D. 50 |
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3-34 What is the maximum speed limit, in miles per hour (mph) on a runway where no aircraft are present? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 |
A. 10 |
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3-35 A transient vehicle on the air station displaying a red flag is carrying ______ A. Emergency equipment B. Explosives C. Medical personnel D. Medical supplies |
B. Explosive |
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3-36 At an air terminal, a vehicle visual signal of a white light is a signal telling you to_____ A. Call tower B. Proceed C. Return D. Stop |
C. Return |
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3-22 For information concerning the attachment points in the certain aircraft, you should refer to the ____? A. NAVAIR 80T-105 B. NAVAIR 80T-120 C. NAVAIR 51-25-19 D. MIM |
D. MIM |
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3-23 As a minimum, what tiedown category is required for refueling operations? A. Heavy weather B. Initial C. Intermediate D. Permanent |
B. Initial |
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3-24 At what pounds per square inch (psi) is fire main pressure used for undercutting ice during severe cold weather? A. 100 B. 125 C. 200 D. 250 |
A. 100 |
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3-25 The mobile crash crane is secured with a minimum of ___ tiedown. A. 10 B. 13 C. 14 D. 16 |
B. 13 |
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3-26. When aircraft embark, when is the aircraft integrity watch NOT set A. In cold weather B. In heavy weather C. During general quarters D. In rough sea state |
C. During general quarters |
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3-27 Who is the aircraft integrity watch responsible to when in port? A. ACHO B. Air boss C. Air wing commander D. OOD |
D. OOD |
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3-28 The integrity watch messenger of the watch composition is provided by ____. A. The air wing B. V-1 division C. V-2 division D. V-3 division |
B. V-1 division |
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3-29 What integrity watch team member is responsible for the scheduling of required training and lectures? A. ACHO B. Air wing watch coordinator C. Integrity watch officer D. Integrity watch petty officer |
B. Air wing watch coordinator |
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3-30 Transient aircraft requiring assistance while taxiing on the runway will be met by a vehicle displaying the words _____. A. COME THIS WAY B. FOLLOW ME C. FOLLOW SLOWLY D. STRAIGHT AHEAD |
B. FOLLOW ME |
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4-1 Who may authorize the movement of aircraft while in port? A. Air department duty officer B. Director C. Officer of the deck D. Air wing commander |
A. Air department duty officer |
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4-7 During the spotting of aircraft, in anticipation of heavy weather as many aircraft as possible should be moved _____. A. inboard to the island structure B. To tail facing the wind C. To the hangar bay D. To the aft end of the flight deck |
C. To the hangar bay |
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4-2 How many helicopters can be launched simultaneously from an LPD? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
C. 3 |
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4-3 On the AV-8B aircraft, the steering accumulator must be _____ before attaching the tow bar A. Depressurized B. Lowered C. Raised D. Pressurized |
A. Depressurized |
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4-4 To move the MV-22 aircraft, use of what device is the preferred method to power the brake system? A. Auxiliary brake pump B. Auxiliary power unit C. Auxiliary power plant D. Gas turbine starter |
A. Auxiliary brake pump |
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4-5 How many tie down requirements are on a amphibious assault ships? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
D. 4 |
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4-6 When parking aircraft on the hangar bay, you should allow clearance for ______. A. Fire lanes B. Fire plugs C. Maintenance D. Support equipment |
B. Fire plugs |
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4-7 During the spotting of the aircraft in anticipation of heavy weather, as many aircraft as possible should be moved______. A. Inboard to the island structure B. To tail facing the wind C. To the hangar bay D. To the aft end of the flight deck |
C. To the hangar bay |
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4-8 How many pounds per square inch (psi) should the braking system of the AV-8B be pressurized before towing? A. 2,000 B. 2,500 C. 3,000 D. 3,500 |
A. 2,000 |
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4-9 When personnel are used as counterweight to tow an AH-1 aircraft, personnel should position themselves on the ______. A. Ammo bay doors B. Cockpit C. Skids D. Tail end |
A. Ammo bay doors |
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4-10 For detailed information for the proper utilization of aircraft handling single, you make reference to what manual? A. NAVAIR 80T-106 B. NAVAIR 80T-113 C. NAVAIR 80T-120 D. NAVAIR 80T-122 |
B. NAVAIR 80T-113 |
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4-11 Making a sharp turn while taxing and AV-8B under heavy gross weight will cause the aircraft outrigger to _____. A. Misalign B. Slide C. Break D. Deflate |
D. Deflate |
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4-12 The jet efflux produced by an AV-8B during vertical operations will exceed what temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit? A. 500 B. 400 C. 300 D. 200 |
D. 200 |
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4-13 During wing stow/unstow operation, the tiedown chains on the MV-22 must be ______. A. Readily available B. Removed C. Slack D. Tight |
C. Slack |
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4-14 The maximum safe relative wind conditions for folding or unfolding the MV-22 proprotor blades and wing stow/unstow operation is _____ knots. A. 65 B. 55 C. 50 D. 45 |
D. 45 |
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4-15 During flight operations, who is responsible for ensuring the mobile firefighting equipment is manned and ready? A. Aircraft handing officer B. Flight deck leading petty officer C. Flight deck officer D. Flight deck supervisor |
C. Flight deck officer |
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4-16 Arming of helicopters shall be conducted after the pilot has signified that he or she is ready for ______. A. Breakdown B. Engine starts C. Taxiing D. Takeoff |
D. Takeoff |
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4-17 Arming shall be conducted only while the aircraft is at a complete stop and control of that aircraft has been turned over to ______. A. Arming crew superior B. Director C. Launch officer D. Landing signalman |
A. Arming crew superior |
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4-18 Who is responsible for indicating to the LSE/Director what aircraft requires dearming upon landing? A. Aircraft handling officer B. Aircraft dearming supervisor C. Explosive ordnance disposal superior D. Flight deck superior |
B. Aircraft dearming superior |
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4-19 Who is responsible for providing the personnel for the aircraft integrity watch? A. Air department B. Embarked units C. Crash and salvage crew D. V-3 division |
B. Embarked units |
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4-20 Who ensures that a complete FOD walk down has been conducted prior to flight operations? A. Aircraft handling officer B. Air officer C. Aviation combat element officer D. Commanding officer |
A. Aircraft handling officer |
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4-19 Who is responsible for providing the personnel for the aircraft integrity watch? A. Air department B. Embarked units C. Crash and salvage crew D. V-3 division |
B. Embarked units |
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4-20 Who ensures that a complete FOD walk down has been conducted prior to flight operations? A. Aircraft handling officer B. Air officer C. Aviation combat element officer D. Commanding officer |
A. Aircraft handling officer |
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4-21 in preparation for flight operations, who is responsible for ensuring that all antennas, flagstaffs and lifelines are lowered? A. Air officer B. First lieutenant C. Officer of the deck D. Ships boatswain |
A. Air officer |
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4-19 Who is responsible for providing the personnel for the aircraft integrity watch? A. Air department B. Embarked units C. Crash and salvage crew D. V-3 division |
B. Embarked units |
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4-20 Who ensures that a complete FOD walk down has been conducted prior to flight operations? A. Aircraft handling officer B. Air officer C. Aviation combat element officer D. Commanding officer |
A. Aircraft handling officer |
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4-21 in preparation for flight operations, who is responsible for ensuring that all antennas, flagstaffs and lifelines are lowered? A. Air officer B. First lieutenant C. Officer of the deck D. Ships boatswain |
A. Air officer |
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4-22 What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to taxi aircraft? A. Any color B. Blue C. Green D. Red |
A. Any color |
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4-23 What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to start engines? A. Any color B. Amber C. Green D. Red |
D. Red |
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4-24 What color beacon of the deck status light is displayed when clearance has been granted to engage rotors? A. Amber B. Blue C. Green D. Green and red |
A. Amber |
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4-25 During recovery, the words "stand by to recover aircraft" are passed or the 5MC. What color beacon is displayed on the deck status light? A. Amber B. Green C. Green and red D. Red |
D. Red |
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4-26 Who is responsible for setting fight quarters? A. Air officer B. Air wing commander C. Officer of the deck D. Operations officer |
C. Officer of the deck |
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4-27 What color flight deck jerseys are worn by combat cargo personnel? A. Brown B. Green C. Red D. White |
D. White |
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4-28 From whom does the LSE request permission to engage or disengage rotors? A. Aircraft handling officer B. Air officer C. Flight deck superior D. Officer |
C. Flight deck superior |
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4-29 Who can authorize an aircraft to engage rotors while the ship is in a turn? A. Air officer B. Commanding officer C. Officer of the deck D. Pilot in charge |
B. Commanding officer |
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4-30 What steady velocity of winds, in knots, is considered optimum for pick up and delivery during vertical replenishment? A. 5 to 15 B. 10 to 20 C. 15 to 30 D. 15 to 35 |
C. 15 to 30 |
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5-10 What is the minimum number of personnel it takes to deploy a 1 1/2 inch AFFF hose? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 |
A. 3 |
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5-11 What is the maximum number of personnel it takes to deploy a 2 1/2 inch hose? A. 3 B. 5 C. 7 D. 9 |
C. 7 |
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5-12 During a fight deck fire evolution, what person is responsible for the organization and dispatch of personnel to the scene leader? A. Air boatswain B. Aircraft heading officer C. Background assistance leader D. Hose team leader |
C. Background assistance leader |
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5-13 Who is responsible for providing assistance to the air department for casualty evacuation? A. Air boatswain B. Air officer C. Aircraft handling officer D. Air wing commander |
D. Air wing commander |
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5-14 during a multi aircraft fire in the hangar bay of an LHD, who will supervise the activation of the hangar bay sprinkler system? A. Air boatswain B. Aircraft handling officer C. Damage control assistant D. Hangar deck officer |
D. Hangar deck officer |
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5-15 What type of fire extinguisher should be kept readily available for a ruptured liquid oxygen converter? A.CO2 B. Halon C. PKP D. Water |
D. Water |
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5-16 How many personnel are required for immediate response manning using the P-25 firefighting vehicle? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
C. 3 |
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5-17 control for operating the emergency lighting on the AFFF hose outlets are located In _______. A. Damage control central B. Flight deck control C. Hangar deck control D. Primary fight control |
D. Primary flight control |
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5-1 In order to smother a fire, what element of the fire triangle needs to be removed? A. Fuel B. Heat C. Oxygen D. Tetrahedron |
C. Oxygen |
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5-2 In order to starve a fire, what element of the fire triangle needs to be removed? A. Fuel B. Heat C. Oxygen D. Tetrahedron |
A. Fuel |
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5-3 In order to cool a fire, what element of the fire triangle needs to be removed? A. Fuel B. Heat C. Oxygen D. Tetrahedron |
B. Heat |
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5-4 What class of fire is the burning of energized electrical equipment? A. A B. B C. C D. D |
C. C |
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5-5 What class of fire is the burning of petroleum based products? A. A B. B C. C D. D |
B. B |
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5-6 What class of fire is the burning of magnesium? A. A B. B C. C D. D |
D. D |
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5-7 Which of the following extinguishing agents is used initially on class "C" fires? A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon D. PKP |
B. CO2 |
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5-8 Which of the following extinguishing agents is used as a last resort on class "C" fires? A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon D. PKP |
D. PKP |
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5-9 On CVN class ships, what is the capacity of the hangar deck salvage forklift? A. 6,000 B. 10,000 C. 20,000 D. 30,000 |
C. 20,000 |
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6-1 On LPD class ship, which person is responsible for the training, supervision, and organization of Flight Deck/landing platform firefighting and rescue team? A. Air boatswain B. Aircraft crash, rescue, and salvage superior C. Air officer D. Helicopter |
B. Aircraft crash, rescue and salvage supervisor |
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6-1 On LPD class ship, which person is responsible for the training, supervision, and organization of Flight Deck/landing platform firefighting and rescue team? A. Air boatswain B. Aircraft crash, rescue, and salvage superior C. Air officer D. Helicopter |
B. Aircraft crash, rescue and salvage supervisor |
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6-2 On a LPD class ship, who has overall responsibility of aircraft firefight, salvage, jettison and personal rescue operations? A. Air boatswain B. Aircraft crash, rescue and salvage superior C. Air officer D. Helicopter control officer |
C. Air officer |
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6-3 On ACS ships, other than LPD class ships, the helicopter control officer is under the direction of what person? A. Air officer B. Air boatswain C. Aircraft crash, rescue, and salvage superior D. Damage control assistant |
D. Damage control assistant |
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6-4 For determining messengers/ phone talkers requirements, which person will make the determination on what mode of communication will be utilized to meet minimum requirements? A. Air officer B. Commanding officer C. Damage control assistant D. Helicopter control officer |
B. Commanding officer |
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6-5 How many AFFF hose teams shall be manned for maintenance turnups without rotor engagement on LPD class ships A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
A. 1 |
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6-6 On a LPD class ship, who is responsible for the direction of all aircraft movement on the flight deck/landing platform during aircraft crash evolutions? A. Air boatswain B. Air officer C. Damage control assistant D. Helicopter control officer |
B. Air officer |
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6-7 What is the minimum working load of the ladder required by the crash and salvage tool inventory? A. 200 pounds B. 220 pounds C. 250 pounds D. 300 pounds |
D. 300 pounds |
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6-8 How many crash axes are required by the crash and salvage tool inventory? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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6-9 How many spanner wrenches are required for each AFFF and saltwater hose station? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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6-10 What is the required weight of the ball peen hammer utilized in the crash and salvage inventory? A. 1 Pound B. 1 1/2 pound C. 2 pound D. 2 1/2 pounds |
B. 1 1/2 pound |
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6-11 Tools in the crash and salvage inventory shall be engraved, displaying the _____. A. Division number B. Hull number C. Serial D. Work center number |
B. Hull number |
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6-12 What is the minimum length requirement of the ladder in the crash and salvage inventory? A. 12 feet B. 15 feet C. 20 feet D. 22 feet |
A. 12 feet |
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6-13 How many additional CO2 extinguishers shall be provided for the flight deck on all ACS for helicopter operations A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
A. 2 |
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6-14 what firefighting equipment is stowed in repair locker and is used for mixing salt water and AFFF concentrate? A. Educator B. Hard lines C. Pipe D. Proportioner |
A. Educator |
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6-15 during the overhaul stage of a fire on a LPD, The senior firefighter will have a _____ A. CO2 bottle B. Halligan tool C. Hose D. PKP |
B. Halligan tool |
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6-16 aircraft Engine wet start fires are caused by _____. A. Engine oil leak B. Engine oil pressure C. Hydraulic leak D. Residual fuel |
D. Residual fuel |
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6-17 Who Will provide immediate first aid and commenced evolution of casualties? A. Background personnel B. Medical personnel C. Rescue personnel D. Over team personnel |
A. Background personnel |
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6-18 How many personnel are utilized for the overhaul team? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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6-19 On board LPD/ACS ships, what is the minimum amount of flight deck fire drills that shall be conducted monthly? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
A. 2 |
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6-20 Personnel assigned as crash, rescue and salvage crew members assigned to LPDs and ACS's shall attend the helicopter firefighting team training course once during a _____. A. 12-month cycle B. 18-month cycle C. 20-month cycle D. 24-month cycle |
D. 24-month cycle |
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6-20 Personnel assigned as crash, rescue and salvage crew members assigned to LPDs and ACS's shall attend the helicopter firefighting team training course once during a _____. A. 12-month cycle B. 18-month cycle C. 20-month cycle D. 24-month cycle |
D. 24-month cycle |
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6-21 Which of the following information shall not be provided to the scene leader by the exercise observer when conducting drills? A. Aircraft damage B. Casualties C. Types of aircraft D. Types of ordnance |
C. Type of aircraft |
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7-1 in which of the following manuals would you find the crash crew information diagram? A. NAVAIR 00-80R-14 B. NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1 C. NAVAIR 00-80R-19 D. NAVAIR 00-80R-20 |
B. NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1 |
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7-2 In which aircraft would you find the ESCAPAC(series) ejection seat? A. AV-8-B B. EA- 18G C. F-16N D. S-3 |
S-3 |
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7-2 In which aircraft would you find the ESCAPAC(series) ejection seat? A. AV-8-B B. EA- 18G C. F-16N D. S-3 |
S-3 |
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7-3 How many personnel are normally part of a rescue team? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 6 |
A. 2 |
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7-4 What Color is the pull handle on most aircraft doors? A. Black B. Blue C. Green D. Red |
D. Red |
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7-5 On which of the following locations on an aircraft fuselage would you not find a hatch? A. Bottom B. Top C. Side D. Rear |
D. Rear |
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7-6 What person is responsible for the coordination of aircraft jettison operation? A. Air boatswain B. Air officer C. Crash chief D. Scene leader |
C. Crash chief |
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7-7 Who is responsible for coordinating drills and training of crash and salvage crew? A. Air boatswain B. Aircraft handling officer C. Crash chief D. Crash leading petty officer |
A. Air boatswain |
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7-8 Who is responsible for the supervision of the installation of aircraft hoisting equipment for each model aircraft on board? A. Air boatswain B. Aircraft handling officer C. Crash chief D. Crash leading petty officer |
D. Crash leading petty officer |
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7-9 How many pounds is the salvage platform capable of supporting? A. 1,000 B. 2,000 C. 15,000 D. 20,000 |
A. 1,000 |
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7-10 When load testing to crash and salvage platform, the load is held off the ground for? A. 30 seconds B. 60 seconds C. 2 minutes D. 5 minutes |
C. 2 minutes |
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7-11 How much weight, in pounds, is applied to the Tailhook dolly when performing a weight test? A. 400 B. 500 C. 600 D. 1,000 |
C. 600 |
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7-12 How often is the load test performed on the crash and salvage platform? A. Annually B. BI-annually C. Semi-annually D. Quarterly |
A. Annually |
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7-13 The 6,000 pound crash and salvage forklift is normally used for performing _____. A. Lifting operations B. Jettison operations C. Rescue operations D. Salvage operations |
C. Rescue operations |
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7-14 What is the maximum lifting capacity of the auxiliary hoist on the CVCC? A. 10,000 B. 50,000 C. 70,000 D. 90,000 |
A. 10,000 |
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7-15 What is the engine operating rpm range of the CVCC? A. 1,500 - 1,900 B. 1,600 - 1,850 C. 1,700 - 1,959 D. 1,800 - 2,100 |
D. 1,800 - 2,100 |
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7-16 How many batteries are in the AACC? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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7-17 What type of material is the tail hook strap made from? A. E-28 tape B. Hemp C. Nylon D. Polyurethane |
C. Nylon |
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7-17 What type of material is the tail hook strap made from? A. E-28 tape B. Hemp C. Nylon D. Polyurethane |
C. Nylon |
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7-18 What type of material are bellybands made from? A. Abaca B. Hemp C. Nylon D. Polyurethane |
C. Nylon |
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7-19 The 15 foot long ALBAR has a maximum gross handling weight of ____ . A. 50,000 pounds B. 70,000 pounds C. 80,000 pounds D. 90,000 pounds |
D. 90, 000 pounds |
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7-20 What type of material is the universal salvage harness made of? A. Abaca B. Nylon C. Polyurethane D. Polyester |
D. Polyester |
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7-21 How many TD-1A/B tiedown chain are there in the crash and salvage inventory? A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18 |
A. 12 |
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7-22 The K-12 forcible entry saw is cooled by _______. A. Air B. Ethylene C. Speed regulation D. Water |
A. Air |
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7-23 How many cycles does the engine of K-12 forcible entry saw have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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7-23 How many cycles does the engine of K-12 forcible entry saw have? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
B. 2 |
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7-24 What is the power source of the K-12 forcible entry saw? A. Batteries B. Gas C. Hydraulic D. Pneumatic |
B. Gas |
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7-25 The welding of forged steel will reduce its breaking strength by ______ A. 10% B. 20% C. 30% D. 50% |
C. 30% |
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7-26 How many adapters are there for the aircraft crash dolly? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
A. 2 |
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7-27 Hydrazine can be found in the auxiliary power unit of what aircraft? A. EA-18 B. EA-6B C. C-2 D. F-16 |
D. F-16 |
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8-1 What training devices used to create an actual burn practice and simulated operations? A. Control field burn B. Mobile aircraft firefighting device C. Pit firefighting device D. Virtual firefighting device |
B. Mobile aircraft firefighting device |
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8-2 Which of the following will not have a primary aircraft emergency alarm intercommunication system installed? A. Control tower B. Dispensary C. Security D. Search and rescue organization |
C. Security |
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8-3 During pump and roll operations, the turret streams on the vehicle shall be set to prevent ______. A. Damage to the aircraft B. Damage to the ordnance C. Impairing the drivers vision D. Wetting the aircraft |
C. Impairing the drivers vision |
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8-3 During pump and roll operations, the turret streams on the vehicle shall be set to prevent ______. A. Damage to the aircraft B. Damage to the ordnance C. Impairing the drivers vision D. Wetting the aircraft I'm |
C. Impairing the drivers vision |
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8-4 How many categories are there for airfield minimum response requirements? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
D. 6 |
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8-3 During pump and roll operations, the turret streams on the vehicle shall be set to prevent ______. A. Damage to the aircraft B. Damage to the ordnance C. Impairing the drivers vision D. Wetting the aircraft I'm |
C. Impairing the drivers vision |
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8-4 How many categories are there for airfield minimum response requirements? A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
D. 6 |
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8-6 Who is authorized to increase Manning as appropriate for each firefighting and rescue vehicle, if the primary mission of the aviation facility involves extra-hazardous flight operations? A. Air officer B. Crash captain C. Station fire chief D. Type commander |
D. Type commander |
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8-7 With exception of extra personnel required to operate firefighting vehicles, what is the minimum required staffing for all types of major aircraft firefighting vehicle performing immediate response? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
A. 2 |
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8-8 How many categories are there for the helistop and heliports requirements? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
B. 3 |
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8-8 How many categories are there for the helistop and heliports requirements? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
B. 3 |
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8-9 When positioning the mounted twin aging unit, it should be positioned to facilitate pulling the nozzle and hoes from the______. A. Front of the vehicle B. Left side of the vehicle C. Right side of the vehicle D. Rear of the vehicle |
D. Rear of the vehicle |
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8-8 How many categories are there for the helistop and heliports requirements? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
B. 3 |
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8-9 When positioning the mounted twin aging unit, it should be positioned to facilitate pulling the nozzle and hoes from the______. A. Front of the vehicle B. Left side of the vehicle C. Right side of the vehicle D. Rear of the vehicle |
D. Rear of the vehicle |
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8-10 In The absence of the station fire chief, who exercises overall control of the airfield other then at that immediate scene of an aircraft? A. Air boatswain B. Air operations C. Crash chief D. Scene leader |
B. Air operations officer |
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8-11 How many principle fire protection functions are at aviation shore facilities? A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5 |
A. 2 |
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8-12 At an aviation airfield facility, who is responsible for the operational readiness, performance, technical training, and management of their respective fire protection organizations? A. Air boatswain B. Air operations officer C. Crash captain D. Fire chief |
D. Fire chief |
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8-13 What is the minimum number of firefighters required to meet the minimum requirement for a category t3 navy airfield? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7 |
A. 3 |
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8-13 What is the minimum number of firefighters required to meet the minimum requirement for a category t3 navy airfield? A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 7 |
A. 3 |
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8-14 Ejection see training for sure activity firefighters should be held at a minimum every ______. A. 90 days B. 120 days C. 180 days D. 365 days |
B. 120 days |
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8-15 In order for Air facility firefighters to maintain proficiency in firefighting, how many live fire training evolutions are conducted semiannually? A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6 |
D. 6 |
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8-16 The daily aircraft firefighting in a rescue journal should be maintained for minimum of _______. A. 1 year B. 2 years C. 3 years D. 5 years |
C. 3 years |
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8-17 What manual requires all aviation firefighting shore facilities to maintain a crash grid map system? A. NAVAIR 80R-14 B. NAVAIR 80R-14-1 C. NAVAIR 80R-20 D. NAVAIR 80T-114 |
D. NAVAIR 80T-114 |
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8-18 How many gallons of water can be discharged per minute with the P-19 bumper turret? A. 200 B. 250 C. 300 D. 350 |
B. 250 |
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8-19 What is the capacity of the AFFF tank on the P-19 firefighting vehicle? A. 110 gallons B. 120 gallons C. 130 gallons D. 140 gallons |
C. 130 gallons |
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8-20 What is the diameter on the handling of the P-19? A 1 inch B. 1 1/2 inch C. 2 inch D. 2 1/2 inch |
A. 1 inch |
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8-21 What type of roof turret is mounted on the Oshkosh T-series fire fighting vehicles? A. Aspirating B. Centrifugal C. Jet stream D. Non-aspirating |
D. Non-aspirating |
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8-22 When waterfall is used on a wheel assembly fire, intermittent application of short burst should be used in interval of _____. A. Every 2-8 seconds B. Every 3-10 seconds C. Every 4-15 seconds D. Every 5-10 seconds |
D. Every 5-10 seconds |
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8-22 When waterfall is used on a wheel assembly fire, intermittent application of short burst should be used in interval of _____. A. Every 2-8 seconds B. Every 3-10 seconds C. Every 4-15 seconds D. Every 5-10 seconds |
D. Every 5-10 seconds |
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8-23 What Will happen to the hydraulic fluid called "Skydrol" when it comes in contact with high temperature from fire? A. Evaporate B. Explode C. Decompose D. Ignite |
C. Decompose |
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8-24 How many wheeled flight line extinguishers should be available for three CH-53 Aircraft? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 |
A. 1 |
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8-25 Portable drills purchased for the use of manually operating the F-35 canopy must have a voltage of at least _________ volts. A. 12 B. 18 C. 16 D. 24 |
B. 18 |
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8-26 What percent of backup ready stock should be maintained by shore-based fire Departments? A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40 |
A. 10 |
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8-27 TAU firefighting apparatus is primarily used for extinguishing what class of fires? A. A B. B C. C D. D |
B. B |
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8-27 TAU firefighting apparatus is primarily used for extinguishing what class of fires? A. A B. B C. C D. D |
B. B |
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8-28 How many pounds of halon are in the P-25 firefighting vehicle? A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70 |
D. 70 |
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8-27 TAU firefighting apparatus is primarily used for extinguishing what class of fires? A. A B. B C. C D. D |
B. B |
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8-28 How many pounds of halon are in the P-25 firefighting vehicle? A. 40 B. 50 C. 60 D. 70 |
D. 70 |
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8-29 How many universal salvage slings are required at a minimum for shore-based salvage? A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12 |
A. 6 |
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8-30 What is utilized for expeditious rescue and pinned victims, lifting heavy debris, and other various needs if entry at the immediate mishap scene is inaccessible to heavy equipment? A. Air bag B. Cribbing C. Power extrication tool D. P-10 |
A. Air bag |
