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220 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
1. The study of the functioning of an organism in the presence of disease is called:
Pathophysiology
2. The paramedic is in the BEST position to formulate an appropriate treatment plan for an ill patient if the paramedic:
If the Paramedic can determine the etiology (cause) of the disease.
3. Groups of cells form:
Tissues
4. An organ is composed of:
Various types of tissues
5. The ____ which are found within the cell's cytoplasm, operate in a cooperative and organized fashion to maintain the life of the cell.
Organelles
6. What part of the cell produces the body's major energy source in the form of adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
Mitochondria
7. The ____of the cell contains ribonucleic acid (RNA).
Nucleus
8. What type of tissue lines the intestines, blood vessels, and bronchiole tubes?
Epithelial tissue
9. Endothelial cells that line the inside of blood vessels:
Endothelial Cell
10. Which of the following statements regarding connective tissue is MOST correct?
Connective tissue binds the other types of tissue together.
11. Nonstriated muscle is also called ____ muscle.
Smooth Muscles (Involuntary)
12. Unlike skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle is:
Striated involuntary
13. ____ nerves exit from between the spinal vertebrae and extend to various parts of the body.
Peripheral
14. What structure conducts electrical impulses away from the cell body?
Axons
15. Homeostasis is MOST accurately defined as:
All organisms constantly adjust their physiological processes in an effort to maintain an internal balance.
16. Which of the following is an example of homeostatic failure?
Anytime the body fails to maintain it’s normal function due to outside influences. “When normal cell signaling is interrupted, disease occurs” (example would be a failure to maintain body temperature)
17. In healthy adults, a loss of more than ¬¬__% of total body fluid is required to alter homeostasis and cause illness.
30% in adults, 10-15% in children
18. An endogenous ligand is:
Molecules that are produced by the body
19. Unlike endocrine hormones, exocrine hormones:
Reach their target via a specific duct that opens into an organ
20. All of the following are endocrine hormones, EXCEPT:
No answers to choose from… The book gives examples of “thyroid hormones, adrenal steroids” that ARE endocrine hormones.
21. Enlargement of the heart due to chronically elevated blood pressure is called:
Hypertrophy
22. An alteration in the size, shape, and organization of cells is called:
Dysplasia
23. Approximately 45% of a person's body weight is:
Intracellular fluid
24. Cerebrospinal fluid and synovial fluid are MOST appropriately classified as ___ fluids.
Interstital
25. Dehydration is generally a more serious concern in elderly patients than in younger adults because:
total body water is lower in older adults. Only about 45% body wt.
26. The net effect of osmosis is to:
equalize the concentrations of a solute on both sides of the cell membrane.
27. The movement of water and a dissolved substance from an area of high pressure to an area of low pressure is called:
filtration.
28. When comparing two solutions, the solution that has a higher solute concentration and a higher osmotic pressure is referred to as a/an __________ solution.
Hypertonic.
29. Lactated Ringer's is a/an __________ solution because its solute concentration is equal to that of the inside of the cell.
Isotonic.
30. If the sodium potassium pump is impaired due to insufficient potassium in the body:
sodium accumulates and causes the cell to swell.
31. Plasma comprises approximately ___% of the blood.
55%.
32. What type of pressure is generated by dissolved proteins in the plasma that are too large to penetrate the capillary membrane?
Capillary collided osmotic pressure.
33. Ascites is defined as:
an abnormal accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity.
34. The cardinal sign of overhydration is:
edema.
35. Acute pulmonary edema:
impairs O2 diffusion into pulmonary Capillary.
36. Edema in an upper extremity following a mastectomy is the result of:
decreased lymphatic drainage.
37. When blood osmolarity increases:
pituitary gland releases ADH which stimulates kidneys to reabsorb water and decrease the bloods osmolarity.
38. Baroreceptors, which are located in the carotid artery, aorta, and kidneys, are MOST sensitive to changes in:
Blood Pressure
39. The MOST prevalent cation of the extracellular fluid is:
Sodium
40. Renin is a protein that is released into the bloodstream by the _________ in response to changes in __________.
Kidneys/ Blood pressure, blood flow, the amount of sodium in the tubular fluid, and the glomerular filtration rate.
41. When renin is released:
It converts the plasma protein angiotensinogen to angiotensin I
42. Aldosterone acts on the kidneys by:
To increase the reabsorption of sodium into the blood and enhance the elimination of potassium in the urine.
43. The tension exerted on a cell due to water movement across the cell membrane is referred to as:
Tonicity
44. A patient with kidney or liver failure would MOST likely develop:
An isotonic fluid excess.
45. Orthostatic hypotension is a common manifestation of:
Dehydration.
46. Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause hyponatremia?
Excess sweating from hot environmental conditions or exercise as well as gastrointestional losses through vomiting, diarrhea, inappropriate intravenous fluids, or diuretics.
47. Hyperkalemia is MOST accurately defined as:
An elevated serum potassium level.
48. All of the following factors would cause potassium to shift into the cell:
Burns, Metabolic acidosis, insulin deficiency.
49. A diabetic patient who failed to take his or her insulin and presents with peaked T waves on the cardiac monitor and muscle weakness is MOST likely:
Hyperkalemic. (p.6.12)
50. Which of the following medications does NOT shift potassium into the cells?
DOES SHIFT POTASSIUM INTO CELLS: sodium bicarbonate, insulin, albuterol
51. Muscle cramps and paresthesias in a malnourished patient with alcoholism are MOST likely the result of:
Hypocalcemia
52. Half of the body's magnesium is stored in the:
Bones
53. A patient with chronic renal insufficiency who has been taking laxatives and presents with confusion, muscle weakness, and decreased deep tendon reflexes MOST likely has:
Hypophosphatemia
54. Acid-base balance normally remains in a physiologic pH range of:
7.35-7.45
55. The MOST major challenge to pH homeostasis is:
acid production
56. A pH of 7.23 would cause all of the following, EXCEPT:
WOULD CAUSE: neurons are less excitable, so CNS depression, confusion, disorientation, decreased respiratory drive, death
57. Tetany of the respiratory muscles would MOST likely be caused by:
Alkalosis - chronic antacid ingestion, vomiting, or nasogastric suctioning
58. A person who ingests excessive amount of salicylate would MOST likely experience:
Metabolic acidosis
59. Compensatory respiratory alkalosis would MOST likely occur in a patient with:
Pulmonary embolism, acute MI, severe infection, DKA
60. A patient who overdosed on heroin and is unconscious with slow, shallow respirations would MOST likely experience:
Respiratory acidosis
61. Which of the following conditions would be likely to cause hyperventilation?
Pulmonary embolism, acute myocardial infarction, severe infection, diabetic ketoacidosis.
62. When cells are hypoxic for more than a few seconds:
they produce mediators that may damage other local or distant body locations
63. What chemical induces hypoxia by blocking oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria and preventing oxygen metabolism?
cyanide
64. An infectious disease would LEAST likely occur in a patient:
strong immune systems
65. Foreign material such as bacteria and other microorganisms are engulfed and destroyed by:
phagocytes
66. In the presence of infection, white blood cells release endogenous chemicals called _________, which produce fever.
pyrogens
67. Unlike bacteria, viruses:
do not produce exotoxins/endotoxins
68. Apoptosis is MOST accurately defined as:
normal cell death
69. If an injury leading to cell degeneration is of sufficient intensity and duration:
irreversable cell injury will lead to cell death
70. Which of the following disease processes is more common in women?
osteoporosis, rheumatoid arthritis, breast cancer
71. The prevalence of a particular disease refers to:

????
72. Most immunologic diseases that exhibit familial tendencies:
involve an overactive immune system
73. Allergies are acquired following:
initial exposure to a stimulant, known as an allergen
74. Recurrent episodes of rheumatic fever would MOST likely cause:
permanent myocardial damage, especially to the cardiac valves
75. An inflammatory condition of the respiratory system that results in intermittent wheezing and excess mucus production is called:
asthma
76. Major risk factors for lung cancer include:
smoking
77. Early signs or symptoms of breast cancer include:
a small, painless lump, thick or dimpled skin, or a change in the nipple
78. Patients with type 1 diabetes mellitus:
(insulin-dependent diabetes) need exogenous insulin to survive
79. Hemolytic anemia is a disease characterized by:
increased destruction of red blood cells
80. Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is MOST correct?
an inherited disorder characterized by excessive bleeding; a sex-linked condition, occurring only in males
81. Patients with congenital prolongation of the Q-T interval are at GREATEST risk for:
palpitations and ventricular arrhythmias, especially torsade de pointes
82. Syncope is probably NOT caused by a life-threatening arrhythmia if it occurs:
CAUSES OF LIFE-THREATENING ARRYTHMIAS: exercise-induced syncope; syncope associated with chest pain; history of syncope in a close family member (parent, sibling, or child); syncope associated with startle (loud noises such as phones or alarm clocks)
83. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is characterized by:
excessive thickening of the heart muscle
84. Generally, the only physical finding in a patient with a prolapsed mitral valve is:
a “clicking” sound heard during cardiac auscultation.
85. A person with a normal total cholesterol level:
person’s with abnormally low levels of HDL and/or elevations of LDL are at an increased risk of coronary heart disease.
86. Gout is a condition in which:
uric acid accumulates in the blood and joints, causing pain and swelling of the joints, especially the big toe.
87. Common signs and symptoms of ulcerative colitis include all of the following, EXCEPT:
SIGNS AND SYMPTOMS INCLUDE: abdominal pain, fever, chills, and profuse diarrhea, with stools containing pus, blood, and mucus.
88. What disease is characterized by erosions in the mucous membrane lining of the gastrointestinal tract, specifically the stomach?
Peptic Ulcers
89. Common health risks associated with obesity include all of the following, EXCEPT:
hypertension, hyperlipidemia, cardiovascular disease, glucose intolerance, insulin resistance, diabetes, gallbladder disease, infertility, and cancer of the endometrium, breast, prostate, and colon.
90. Muscular dystrophy is characterized by:
weakness and wasting of groups of skeletal muscles, leading to increasing disability.
91. Stage 1 of Alzheimer's disease is characterized by:
memory loss, lack of spontaneity, subtle personality changes, and disorientation to time and date.
92. Gross distortions of reality, withdrawal from social contacts, and bizarre behavior are MOST characteristic of:
schizophrenia
93. How does the body respond to hypoperfusion?
releases catecholamines (ie, epinephrine and norepinephrine), which produce vasoconstriction (increased systemic vascular resistance).
94. When oxygen does not reach the cell, the cell reverts to:
anaerobic metabolism
95. The MOST common cause of cardiogenic shock is:
acute MI.
96. What type of shock occurs when blood flow becomes blocked in the heart or great vessels?
Obstructive.
97. The MOST common type of exogenous hypovolemic shock is:
external bleeding.
98. Distributive shock occurs when:
blood pools in expanded vascular beds and tissue perfusion decreases.
99. Anaphylactic shock is characterized by:
wheezing. Widespread vasodilation.
100. A loss of normal sympathetic nervous system tone causes:
nuerogenic shock.
101. In decompensated shock, systolic blood pressure is:
less than 5% of the age.
102. Strength of a person's peripheral pulses is related to:
stroke volume and pulse pressure.
104. The inflammatory response to irritation or injury is characterized by all of the following signs:
pain, redness, swelling
105. The chief white blood cell of the immune response is the:
lymphocyte.
106. Red bone marrow is essential for the formation of:
mature blood cells; it produces B lymphocytes.
107. After T lymphocytes leave the bone marrow, they mature in the:
thymus gland.
108. ___ are the MOST abundant white blood cells, are largely responsible for protecting the body against infection, and are key components of the first response to foreign body invasion.
Neutrophils
109. Which of the following statements regarding basophils is MOST correct?
they are essential to the nonspecific immune response to inflammation because they release histamine and other chemicals that dilate blood vessels.
110. Unlike basophils, mast cells:
resemble basophils but do not circulate in the blood. They are found in the connective tissues, beneath the skin, in the gastrointestinal mucosa, and in the mucosal membranes of the respiratory system.
111. An injection of immunoglobulin is an example of:
a concentrated form of antibodies obtained from donors.
112. The induction phase of the immune response begins when:
a part of the immune system recognizes on antigen.
113. B lymphocytes produce antibodies when they are activated by:
Helper T cells
114. Opsoninization is a process in which:
an antibody coats an antigen to facilitate its recognition by immune cells
115. If nonencapsulated bacteria enter the body:
macrophages begin to ingest them immediately.
116. Older people have increased levels of autoantibodies, which:
partly explains why older people are pron to autoimmune disease.
117. The two MOST common causes of inflammation are:
Infection and injury.
118. During the acute inflammatory response:
It involves both vascular and cellular resistance. After transient arteriolar constriction, the arterioles dialate, allowing an influx of blood under increased pressure.
119. Slow-reacting substances of anaphylaxis (SRS-A) are also known as:
Leukotrienes.
120. Aspirin and non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) reduce inflammation and pain by:
inhibiting prostaglandin synthesis.
121. ____ is the protein that bonds to form the fibrous component of a blood clot.
Fibrin
122. The destruction of a blood clot is called:
fibrinolysis cascade.
123. Factor ____ is the antihemophilic factor.
VIII
124. Interleukins function by:
attracting white blood cells to sites of injury and bacterial invasion.
125. When nerve cells and cardiac myocytes are injured:
They can’t be replaced and scar tissue lays down instead.
126. Wounds that heal by primary intention:
Occurs in clean wounds with opposed margins (eg. surgical wound)
127. Which of the following disease processes would MOST likely cause delayed or dysfunctional wound healing?
Diabetes and AIDS
128. Angiogenesis is MOST accurately defined as:
The growth of new blood vessels.
129. In general, a child's immune system is not fully developed until he or she is between:
2 and 3 years of age.
130. The body's rejection of an organ following transplantation is MOST likely the result of:
The immune system attacking the foreign tissue or organ
131. A type 1 hypersensitivity reaction is:
An acute reaction that occurs in response to a stimulus. (bee sting, penicillin, shell fish).
132. Unlike an allergic reaction, an autoimmune reaction:
Targets a persons own tissue.
133. All of the following diseases are autoimmune diseases:
Graves disease; Type 1 Diabetes;Rheumatoid arthritis; Myasthemia Gravis.
134. If the cause of a disease is unknown, it is said to be:
Idiopathic.
135. Type O blood contains:
Neither a or b antigens but contains both a and b plasma antibodies.
136. If an Rh-negative person receives Rh-positive blood:
Hemolysis and anemia can occur.
137. The resistance stage of the stress reaction is characterized by:
Stimulating the adrenal gland to secret 2 types of corticosteroid hormones that increase the blood glucose level and maintain b/p: Glucocorteroids and mineralcorticoids.
138. Severe, prolonged stress:
Does not cause death directly, it does cause the body to lose its ability to fight disease in its efforts to manage stress.
1. By definition, infancy begins at:
Infants (1 month to 1 year)
2. At birth, a pulse rate of up to ____ beats/min and a respiratory rate of up to ____ breaths/min are considered normal.
Pulse rate of 90 – 180 beats/min & Repiratory rate of 30-60 breaths/min
3. By the age of 1 year, an infant's tidal volume ranges from:
The volume increases to 10 to 15 mL/kg
4. Just after birth, the ductus arteriosus constricts and closes, resulting in:
The infants blood pressure changes, and the foramen ovale an opening in the septum of the heart closes.
5. Which of the following vital signs is NOT consistent with that of a child between 1 and 3 years of age?
Outside these ranges: (pulse) 90-150, (resp) 20-30, (BP) 80-100, (temp) 96.8 - 99.6
6. Infants are referred to as belly breathers because:
The rib cages of infants are less rigid than those of older humans, and the ribs sit horizontally.
7. Barotrauma secondary to bag-mask ventilations in an infant means that your ventilations:
Ventilations that are too forceful can result in trauma from pressure.
8. For the first year of life, an infant has naturally acquired passive immunities because:
While in the womb, the infants collect antibodies from the maternal blood.
9. The _________ reflex happens when an infant is startled and opens his or her arms wide.
Moro.
10. An infant's fontanelles are typically fused together by the age of:
18 months.
11. The circadian rhythm refers to a person's:
sleep pattern.
12. At 2 months of age, an infant should be able to:
Recognize familiar faces; able to track objects with the eyes.
13. In most infants, the primary method of communicating distress is:
Through crying.
14. Anxious avoidant attachment is observed in infants who are repeatedly:
Rejected.
15. In contrast to infants, toddlers:
HR and respiratory rate are slower; systolic BP is higher
16. Upper respiratory tract infections are more common in toddlers than in infants because:
Loss of passive immunity in the immune system
17. Teething is commonly accompanied by:
Fever
18. In what age range can most children begin to use and understand full sentences?
3-4 years
20. In conventional reasoning, school-age children:
look for approval from peers/society
21. The pulse rate of a 16-year-old adolescent typically ranges between:
60-100bpm
22. Which of the following statements regarding growth spurts in adolescents is MOST correct?
boys experience this stage of development later in life than girls do
23. Which of the following psychosocial changes is common during adolescence?
privacy becomes an issue; they struggle to find their own identity--to define who they are; show greater interest in sexual relations; they are fixated on their public image and are terrified of being embarrassed
24. Which of the following physical changes occurs in adults over 25 years of age?
discs in the spine begin to settle, height can sometimes be affected, causing “shrinking”. Fatty tissue increases, which lead to weight gain. Muscle strength decreases, and the reflexes slow.
25. In general, normal psychosocial factors that affect the life of a 35-year-old person include all of the following, EXCEPT:
3 words (work, family, stress). strive to create a place for themselves in the world “settle down”, love and childbirth, enjoy more stable periods of life.
26. Patients between 41 and 60 years of age are LEAST susceptible to:
they are susceptible to (vision and hearing loss, cardiovascular health, cancer, menopause in women)
27. The term mid-life crisis BEST describes a person who:
makes a dramatic change to try to reclaim their youth.
28. Which of the following factors typically does NOT affect the vital signs of a 65-year-old patient?
Does: health. Meds. Past medical Hx.
29. The decline in cardiac function associated with aging is largely related to:
atherosclerosis.
30. As a result of the increase in systolic blood pressure associated with aging:
the left ventricle must then work harder, so it becomes thicker, losing its elasticity in this process.
31. Vascular compensation for changes in blood pressure decreases with age due to:
decrease in HR, a decline in CO, and the inability to elevate cardiac output to match the demands of the body.
32. In older adults, the size of the airway ____ and the surface area of the alveoli ___.
Increases, decreases
33. Relative to younger adults, older adults generally have a harder time breathing because the:
Loss of respiratory muscle mass, the stiffness of the thoracic cage and decreased surface area available for the exchange of air.
34. As the smooth muscles of the lower airway weaken with age:
Strong inhalation can make the walls of the airway collapse inward and cause inspiratory wheezing.
35. You would MOST likely see an increased end-tidal CO2 reading in an otherwise healthy older adult because:
Vital capacity decreases and residual air volume increases with age.
36. Which of the following statements regarding renal function in older adults is MOST correct?
Aging kidneys respond less efficiently to hemodynamic stress and to fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
37. Which of the following statements regarding nervous system function in the older adult is MOST correct?
All of the following are correct; The brain may shrink 10-20%. Nerve endings deteriorate. Motor and sensory nerves network becomes slower, less responsive. Loss of 5-50% neurons occur.
38. Older adults are prone to subdural hematomas because:
Age related shrinkage creates a void between the brain and outermost layer of the meningies. Trauma can move the brain, and brindge veins can move and tear.
39. When assessing an older adult's pupils and ocular movements, you should recall that:
Pupils are generally smaller, and capacity of the eyes lens diminishes visual activity and makes pupils sluggish when responding to light.
40. According to the terminal drop hypothesis:
A persons mental function declines in the last 5 years of life.
1. A paramedic who looks the part of a professional:
Inspires a lot more confidence in patients, in family members, and in the public than one who pays no attention to his or her appearance.
2. Communication is MOST accurately defined as:
Is the act of transmitting information to another person & for paramedics, it can be verbal or through body language
3. Repeating the key parts of a patient's responses to your questions demonstrates:
Active listening
4. When a patient thanks you, your MOST appropriate response should be:
”You’re very welcome!”
5. When a patient repeatedly apologizes to you because he or she is incontinent, you should say:
“It’s ok, you don’t need to be sorry. This is what we do and we’re here because we want to be”
6. When functioning at a noisy scene, communication will be MOST effective if you:
Reduce any noise possible (i.e. - music, tv, etc.), but ultimately, it is best to remove patient from scene and relocate the back of the ambulance.
7. If you want reliable answers to personal questions, you should:
Try to manage your scene so you can ask these kinds of questions quietly and in private.
8. Conveying calm, unmistakable, genuine concern for someone you've never met before is the MOST essential challenge as a/an:
therapeutic communicator
9. The MOST effective way to reinforce your interest in and concern for your patient is to:
Use a calm and steady tone of reassurance (watch your inflection)
10. Regardless of what a patient asks, the paramedic should:
immediately acknowledge it
11. By properly introducing yourself to a patient, you are also saying that:
you are in charge of the pts health and pt can communicate with you as an equal.
12. When you address a patient by saying, “Hi, my name is Stephen Rahm and I'm a paramedic. What's your name?” the patient:
must be able answer you in seconds and accounts for mini metal examination.
13. When a patient tells you his or her name, it is MOST appropriate for the paramedic to:
ask the pt how they wish to be addressed.
14. Controlling a patient's fear involves:
First, by your own sense of competence and professional calm. Second, by honestly caring about someone. Third, by giving people information.
15. Which of the following statements regarding a patient's physical pain is MOST correct?
People deserve to have their pain relieved as completely as possible, then and there - with a medical consultation if necessary.
16. It is important to remember that if a patient is not personally sensitive to modesty because of an impaired mental state:
Family members most certainly are.
17. When you ask a patient an uncomplicated question in plain, simple English, and he or she responds with an unnecessarily complicated or inappropriate response, you should consider that the patient is:
Consider that the pt is lying, but that isn’t always the case
18. Professional skepticism is:
A useful tool; it can facilitate sound, clinical decision-making
19. Which of the following is NOT an example of an open-ended question?
OPEN ENDED QUESTIONS: How have you been feeling lately, do you have an idea of what is causing this, do you have any other concerns about your health, is there anything else you would like to discuss?
20. It would be MOST appropriate to ask a patient a closed-ended question when:
You need answers to specific questions
22. If a patient avoids answering a specific question, you should:
encourage them to provide more
23. If a patient provides a confusing or disorganized response to your question, you should:

???
24. If a patient asks for your advice regarding a treatment decision that his or her physician made, you should:
suggest they obtain their medical advice from a doctor
25. If the wife of a critically ill man asks you if her husband is going to die, the MOST appropriate response should be:
“We think he (or she) is very sick, but we’re doing everything we possibly can to help”
26. A patient's vital signs, ECG findings, and blood glucose reading should be:
deserve to be told to the patient if they ask, it is not a secret
27. You will distance yourself from your patient as a person if you:
avoid contact with patients as people (ie, using lots of big, complicated medical words and answering patients questions with half-truths.)
28. Eye-to-eye contact with a patient communicates:
honesty and concern and is considered a baseline necessity of sincere communication of any kind.
29. When touching a patient as a form of reassurance, the paramedic should:
gently touch patients on a neutral part of the body, such as a shoulder or arm.
30. Standing in front of a patient with your arms crossed conveys:
confrontation, not concern.
31. If a patient sees you as someone with whom it is safe to be, who does not pose a threat, and who honestly cares, then he or she will MOST likely:
be reassured that you will handle the crisis.
32. The highest form of mental function in a human being is the:
appropriate humor.
33. A sick or injured patient who is thinking clearly:
should be able to answer simple questions in a second.
34. If a patient is unable to tell you who he or she is, where he or she is, and what day of the week it is:
you should suspect decreased blood flow to the brain.
35. Stereotyping an elderly, very young, or hostile patient during your attempt to communicate with him or her:

???
36. If a patient refuses to talk, and he or she is not exhibiting signs of decreased mental status, it is MOST appropriate for the paramedic to:
there’s no need to force the issue. Instead, make eye contact, express your concern, explain what your are doing, invite them to answer questions and let them know it’s all right if they don’t wish to talk.
37. If the paramedic is unable to defuse a hostile patients anger, the paramedic should:
defer to police
38. When communicating with older patients, it is MOST important to remember that:
Try not to presume that older people are any harder to communicate with just because they’re old.
39. If a parent insists on monitoring your conversation with his or her adolescent son or daughter, you should:
It should raise question. Don’t refuse the prerogative of a parent but be sure to communicate the situation to the ER physician and chart it accurately.
40. When the paramedic encounters a patient who has difficulty communicating, he or she should:
Use Family members or caregivers who know the patient well can facilitate efforts.
41. When communicating with a patient whose cultural background differs from the paramedic's, it is MOST important for the paramedic to:
Understand the differences inherent in all people than adjust your efforts to accommodate and overcome cultural barriers.
42. Touching a conscious elderly patient in a nursing home without his or her permission:
Is particularly demeaning. You are nonverbally communicating, “you arent important”.
43. What hand gesture is interpreted by many Arabic and some Latin countries as the equivalent of an extended middle finger?
The thumbs up sign.
44. Many __ believe that touching the head may put their soul in jeopardy.
asians
45. Islamic and Hindu cultures avoid:
Touching with the left hand, as traditionally this hand was used for unclean functions.