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139 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back

Disease causing the most deaths overall

Heart Disease

Cancer with the highest mortality

Lung Cancer

Cancer with the highest mortality in males

Lung Cancer

Cancer with the highest mortality in females

Lung Cancer

Most common cause of death for adolescents

Motor Vehicle Accidents

Most common cancer in females

Breast Cancer

Most common cancer in males

Prostate Cancer

Most common type of cancer overall (males/females)

Skin Cancer

Most common type of skin cancer (males and females)

Basal Cell Cancer

Skin cancer with highest mortality
Melanoma

Gynecological cancers include cancers of

Vulva, Vagina, Cervix, Uterus, Ovary

Most common gynecological cancer


Uterine/Endometrial

Second most common gynecological cancer

Ovarian

Chronic bony growth located midline in the hard palate (benign physiological variant)

Torus palatinus

A tongue with multiple fissures and irregular smoother areas on its surface that make it look like a topographic map. May complain of soreness after eating or drinking acidic substances (benign physiological variant)

Geographical tongue

Slow growing white plaque that has a firm to hard surface that is slightly raised on the tongue or inside the mouth.

Leukoplakia. Precancerous and not a benign physiological variant. Sometimes due to poorly fitting dentures, chewing tobacco. Refer patient for biopsy d/t potential of becoming malignant.

Painless white patch or patches that appears corrugated. Located on lateral aspects of tongue and is associated with HIV/AIDS. Caused by Epstein Barr virus infection of tongue. Not pre-malignant

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia (OHL)

USPSTF recommended guidelines on mammogram screenings

Baseline mammogram at age 50 (w/ or w/o CBE), then biennially until age 75. For women 40-49, mammograms are based on individual factors.

USPSTF recommended guidelines on ovarian cancer screenings

Routine screenings not recommended

When do you rule out ovarian cancer?

Older women c/o vague abd/pelvic symptoms (stomach boating, low back ache, constipation) and is found to have a palpable ovary on bimanual exam.

What is the initial workup for ovarian cancer?

Intravaginal ultrasound and CA 125

What are the risk factors for ovarian cancer?

Early menarche or late menopause, nulliparity, endometriosis, PCOS, family hx of ovarian cancer. Women w/ BRCA 1 and 2 mutations are also high risk for breast or ovarian cancer.

What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for cervical cancer?

Baseline at age 21 then every 3 years. Not necessary if hysterectomy with removal of cervix.

What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for prostate cancer?

Routine screening is not recommended

What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for testicular cancer?

Routine screening is not recommended

What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for colon cancer?

Age 50 to 75. Baseline at 50 years. Use high-sensitivity fecal occult blood test yearly, sigmoidoscopy every 5 years, or colonoscopy every 10 years.

What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for skin cancer counseling?

Age 10 to 24 years. Educate fair skinned persons to avoid sunlight between 10a.m. and 3p.m., use sunblock SPF 15 or higher.
What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for smoking cessation?

Ask all adolescents and adults about tobacco use.
What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for fall prevention in community-dwelling older adults?

Age 65 years or older, moderate-intensity aerobic activity for 150 mins or 2.5 hours per week (brisk walking).

Who is at high risk for ovarian cancer?

Ashkenazi Jew, BRCA gene, family hx of 2 or more first or second degree relatives.
What are the USPSTF screening guidelines for AAA?

One time screening only on men age 65-75 who are cigarette smokers. Screening test is ultrasound of the abdomen.

What is Barrett's Esophagus?

Precancerous lesion of esophageal cancer.

How often do people with Barrett's Esophagus have endoscopic exams with biopsy?

Annually or every 6 months for high grade lesions.

What is one of the treatment regimens for people with Barrett's esophagus?

High dose PPIs for a lifetime.

What is the first-line treatment for mild, uncomplicated GERD ?

Lifestyle changes (avoid eating 3 to 4 hours before bedtime, dietary changes, weight loss if overweight.

When should you consider referral to a gastroenterologist for upper endoscopy?

If patient is high risk for esophageal cancer (age 50 years or older, smoker, chronic GERD).

Tanner Stage I for Girls

Prepubertal pattern

Tanner Stage II for Girls

Breast bud and areola start to develop

Tanner Stage III for Girls

Breast continues to grow with nipples/areola (one mount/no separation).

Tanner Stage IV for Girls

Nipples and areola become elevated from the breast (a secondary mount).

Tanner Stage V for Girls

Adult Pattern

Tanner Stage I for Boys

Prepubertal Pattern

Tanner Stage II for Boys

Tests with scrotum starts to enlarge (scrotal skin starts to get dark/more ruggae).

Tanner Stage III for Boys

Penis grows longer (length) and tests/scrotum continues to become longer.

Tanner Stage IV for Boys

Penis becomes wider and continues growing in length (tests are larges with darker scrotal skin and more ruggae).

Tanner Stage V for Boys

Adult pattern

What are the characteristics of physiological gynecomastia?

Disc like breast tissue that is mobile under each nipple/areola, breast may be tender, and the breast can be asymmetrical (one breast larger than the other).

Who is at highest risk for pseudo-gynecomastia?

Overweight to obese males

Foods with high tyramine content can cause dangerous interactions with what class of drug?

MAOI inhibitors (Marplan, Nardil, Parnate)

Gluten should be avoided with what disease process?

Celiac disease/celiac sprue

What are examples of goods with gluten?

wheat (spelt and kamut), rye, barley, oats

What are plant sterols and sterols responsible for?

Reducing cholesterol, LDL, triglycerides.

What are examples of sterols?

Benecol spread, wheat germ, sesame oil, corn oil, peanuts

What are monounsaturated fats and fatty acids helpful in treating?


Reduces risk of heart disease

What are examples of foods high in monounsaturated fats and fatty acids?

Olive oil, canola oil, some nuts like almonds, walnuts, sunflower oil/seeds.

What diet is high in monounsaturated fats and fatty acids?

Mediterranean diet

What are saturated fats and trans fats responsible for?

Increasing risk of heart disease

What are examples of saturated fats and trans fats?

Lard, beef fat, deep fried fast foods

What do Omega-3 and fish oils help treat?


Reduces the risk of heart disease

What are examples of Omega-3 and fish oils?
Fatty cold water fish (salmon, fish oils, flaxseed oils, and krill oil.

What does dietary magnesium do?

Decrease blood pressure , dilates blood vessels.

What foods are high in magnesium?

Nuts, beans, whole what,

What does dietary potassium do?

Decrease BP

What foods are high in potassium?

Most fruits and some vegetables

What is folate responsible for?

Decreases homocysteine levels and fetal neural defects

Who is at higher risk for NSAID and aspirin allergies?

People with nasal polyps and atopic history.

What reaction is anaphylaxis classified as?

Type I IgE-Dependant

What is the most common trigger for anaphylaxis in children?

Food

What is the most common trigger for anaphylaxis in adults?

Insect stings and medications

What age is considered young gerontological?

65-84

What age is considered frail elderly?

85 and older

What amount of weight loss is considered pathological?

10%

Describe the rash of scarlatina.

Sandpaper like texture and is accompanied by a sore throat, strawberry tongue, and skin desquamination of the palms and soles. Not pruritic.

Describe the rash of impetigo.

Initially appear as papules that develop into bullae that rupture easily, become superficial, bright red weeping rashes with honey colored exudate that crusts as it dries. Very pruritic.

Describe rash of larva migrans.

Creeping eruptions are shaped like red raised wavy lines that are alone or few. They are red and very pruritic, become excoriated from scratching. Maculopapular.

What is the preferred treatment of larva migrans?

Ivermectin once a day for 1-2 days or albendazole for 3 days.

How is larva migrans contracted?

The areas of the body that are commonly exposed to soil and sand such as hands and feet or buttocks are most common locations.

What is the preferred first-line antibiotic for AOM and acute sinusitis in both children and adults?

Amoxicillin.



What is the second line antibiotic for AOM or acute sinusitis? Also used for treatment failure

Augmentin BID or Cefdinir (omnicef) BID

What is the alternative drug used when someone is allergic to PCN?

Azithromycin (Z-pack) and clarithromycin (Biaxin) BID.

What drug is used for symptomatic treatment of AOM and acute sinusitis?

Pseudophedrine. Not for use in children, infants, or those with HTN. Nasal steroid spray BID can also be used.

Which location is the best to auscultate the S3 heart sound?

Pulmonic area

What is the S3 heart sound indicate?

Heart failure

When administering the TB skin (Mantoux) test, what is considered positive?

Must be indurated.

What is the gold standard for diagnosing TB?

sputum culture.

What labs are ordered prior to starting isoniazid?

LFTs

What is another name for DJD?

OA

What is another name for eczema?

Atopic dermatitis

What is another name for arcus senilis?

Senile arcus

What is another name for AOM?

Purulent Otitis Media

What is another name for serous otitis media?

OM w/ effusions, Middle ear effusion

What is another name for Group A Beta Streptococcus?

Strep pyogenes

What is another name for tinea corporis?

Ringworm

What is another name for pinworms?

enterobiasis



What is another name for Vitamin B12?

cobalamin, cyanocobalamin

What is another name for Vitamin B1

Thiamine

What is another name for scarlet fever?

Scarlatina

What is another name for otitis externa?

Swimmer's Ear

What is another name for condyloma acuminata?

Genital warts

What is another name for tic douloureaux?

Trigeminal neuralgia

What is another name for tinea cruris?

Jock itch

What is another name for Thalassemia minor?

Thalassemia trait

What is another name for Giant Cell Arteritis?

Temporal Arteritis

What is another name for psoas sign?

Ilipsoas muscle sign

What is another name for tinea capitis?

Ringworm of the scalp

What is another name for the light reflex?

Hirschsprung test

What is another name for sentinel nodes?

Virchow's nodes

What is another name for the PPD test?

Mantoux or TB test

What is another name for erythema migrans?

early Lyme Disease

What is another name for sinusitis?

Rhinosinusitis

What drug class is the first line treatment of major depression and OCD?

SSRIs

What drug class is the first line treatment of anxiety and insomnia?

benzodiazepines

What is the second line treatment for depression?

TCAs

What other diseases can TCAs treat?

Prophylactic migraines, chronic pain, neuropathic pain,

What are examples of TCAs

amitriptyline (Elavil), nortriptyline (Pamelor)

Who can't be prescribed TCAs and why?

People who are suicidal due to risk of hoarding and overdosing.

What is the first line treatment for OCD, generalized anxiety disorder, panic disorder, social anxiety disorder, and PMS?

SSRIs. Citalopram (Celexa), escitalopram (Lexapro), fluoxetine (Prozac), sertraline (Zoloft), and parocetine (Paxil)

What can the anticonvulsants such as carbamazepine (Tegretol) be used for?

chronic pain and trigeminal neuralgia

What does the alcohol screening tool CAGE stand for?

C: do you feel the need to cut back?


A: are you annoyed when your friends/family ask about your drinking?


G: Do you feel guilty about drinking?


E: Do you need to drink early in the morning (Eye-Opener)

What drug class is preferred for hypertensive patients with osteopenia or osteoporosis?

Thiazide diuretics

INR 3.0 -5.0 W/ No Bleeding

skip 1 dose. decrease maintenance dose. If only minimally prolonged, no need to decrease dose. Check INR in 1-2 days until normal.

INR 5.0-9.0 W/ No Bleeding

omit a dose and givea small dose of oral vitamin K. or omit next 1-2 doses of warfarin. Daily INR monitoring until normal. Decrease daily maintenance dose.

#1 bacterium in CAP

streptococous pneumoniae

#2 bacterium in CAP

haemophilus influenzae

#1 bacterium in atypical pneumomia

mycoplasma pneumoniae

1st line tx for COPD

atrovent (anticholinergic)

What bacteria is more likely to cause pneumonia in someone with COPD or a smoker?

H. influenzae

Tx of bronchitis

increase fluids and rest.


Dextromethorphan BID -QID antitussive


tessalon perles tid antitussive


guaifenesin expectorant mucolytic



s/s pertussis

14 days of one of the following:


paroxysmal coughing


inspiratory whooping or post tussive vomiting


without apparent cause



also accompanied by low grade fever, rhinorrhea

tx of pertussis

first line - macrolides


z pack 500mg day 1 them 250 day 2-5


biaxin bid for 7 days


chemoprophylaxis close contacts


resp drop iso


antitussives mucolytics rest hydration frequent small meals


tdap booster age 11 on

penicillins

amoxicillin, PCN VK

macrolides

erythromycin, azithromycin, clarithromycin

cephalosporins 1st gen

keflex

cephalosporins 2nd gen

cefaclor, ceftin, cefzil

cephalosporins 3rd gen

rocephin, suprax, omnicef

quinolones

cipro, oflaxacin

quinolones with gram + coverage

levaquin, avelox, tequin

sulfa

bactrim, macrobid

tetracyclines

tetra, doxy, mino