A & P 1 Lecture

Front 1

Which of the following is not a cranial bone

A. Sphenoid

B. Ethmoid

C. Parietal

D. Maxilla

Back 1

D. Maxilla

Front 2

The suture between the parietal and temporal bones is the _________ suture

Back 2

squamous

Front 3

The mastoid process belongs to which bone?

Back 3

temporal

Front 4

The carotid canal passes through which bone?

Back 4

temporal

Front 5

This bone helps to form the nasal septum

Back 5

ethmoid

Front 6

which of the following bones is not a facial bone?

A. Mandible

B. Lacrimal

C. Hyoid

D. Zygomatic

Back 6

C. Hyoid

Front 7

This facial bone helps to form the nasal septum

Back 7

vomer

Front 8

This facial bone helps form the hard palate

Back 8

maxilla

Front 9

Into which hole to dentists inject lidocaine to prevent paid while working on the lower teeth

Back 9

mandibular foramina

Front 10

which nasal concha is a facial bone?

A. Superior

B. Middle

C. Inferior

D. They are all facial bones

Back 10

Inferior

Front 11

This vertebra has no body

Back 11

Atlas

Front 12

Which type of rib does not connect to the sternum

Back 12

floating ribs

Front 13

The superior portion of the sternum is the _______

Back 13

manubrium

Front 14

If you see a foramen in the transverse process of a vertebra, which type of vertebra are you observing?

Back 14

cervical

Front 15

Demifacets are a characteristic of which type of vertebrae

Back 15

thoracic

Front 16

The pectoral girdle is composed of the:

Back 16

clavicle and scapula

Front 17

the radial groove is located on which bone?

Back 17

humerus

Front 18

the glenoid cavity is part of which bone?

Back 18

scapula

Front 19

Children are often told to keep this process off the table while eating

Back 19

olecranon

Front 20

On which bone is the head found at the distal end

Back 20

ulna

Front 21

which bone is not part of the pelvic girdle?

A. ilium

B. Ischium

C. Pubis

D. Sacrum

Back 21

sacrum

Front 22

The lesser trochanter is found on which bone?

Back 22

femur

Front 23

the heel bone is called the ______

Back 23

calcaneus

Front 24

the lateral malleolus is part of which bone?

Back 24

fibula

Front 25

which tarsal bone is the keystone of the medial longitudinal arch?

Back 25

talus

Front 26

which of the following bones does not directly articulate with any other bones of the skeleton?

A. Rib 12

B. Patella

C. Hyoid

D. Scapula

Back 26

Hyoid

Front 27

the two main types of joint classification are _______ and ______

Back 27

structure and function

Front 28

The hip joint is an example of an ______

Back 28

diarthrosis

Front 29

A fibrous joint connected by ligaments is classified as a ________

Back 29

syndesmosis

Front 30

Which of the following is a cartilaginous joint?

A. Suture

B. Synarthrosis

C. Gomphosis

D. Symphysis

Back 30

Symphysis

Front 31

Which of the following is an examply of a synarthrosis

A. Diarthrosis

B. Suture

C. Symphysis

D. Syndesmosis

Back 31

Suture

Front 32

Synovial joints are examples of _______

Back 32

diarthroses

Front 33

A unique feature of synovial joints is ______

Back 33

a joint cavity

Front 34

All of the following are synovial joints except:

A. temporomandibular

B. interphalangeal

C. intervertebral

D. Elbow

Back 34

intevertebral

Front 35

All of the following are part of a synovial joint except ______

A. bursae

B. ligaments

C. articular cartilage

D. synovial fluid

Back 35

bursae

Front 36

The viscous, egg-white consistency of synovial fluid is due to ______

Back 36

hyaluronic acid

Front 37

What movement has occurred when you bend your fingers to make a fist

Back 37

flexion

Front 38

The opposite movement of supination is ____

Back 38

pronation

Front 39

This movement is a combination of several movements

Back 39

circumduction

Front 40

When the sole of your foot is turned medially, _______ has occured

Back 40

inversion

Front 41

bitting into food involves which two types of movement

Back 41

depression and elevation

Front 42

all of the following except _____ are types of synovial joints

A. condyloid

B. plane

C. saddle

D. suture

Back 42

suture

Front 43

these are the most freely moveable type of synovial joint

Back 43

ball and socket

Front 44

THe carpals form this type of joint with each other

Back 44

plane

Front 45

Hinge joints are classified as ______

Back 45

uniaxial

Front 46

The proximal ends of the radius and ulna form which type of joint

Back 46

pivot

Front 47

The collateral ligaments are found in which of the following joints?

A. Elbow

B. Knee

C. Elbow and Knee

D. Elbow, Knee, and Shoulder

Back 47

Elbow and knee

Front 48

which joint in your body is the most easily dislocated?

Back 48

temporomandibular

Front 49

The trochlear notch helps stabilize which joint?

Back 49

elbow

Front 50

the tendon of the long head of the biceps strengthens which joint

Back 50

shoulder

Front 51

which body joint is the most susceptible to sports injuries

Back 51

knee

Front 52

which synovial joint in your body is only partially enclosed in a joint capsule

Back 52

knee

Front 53

what is the functional unit of a skeletal muscle termed

Back 53

sarcomere

Front 54

a sheetlike extension of the epimysium is caled an ______

Back 54

aponeurosis

Front 55

thick filaments are found in the _______ of the sarcomere

Back 55

A band

Front 56

In a resting muscle cell, the myosin-binding sites are blocked by _______

Back 56

tropomyosin

Front 57

T tubules are an extension of the _______

Back 57

sarcolemma

Front 58

When a muscle cell is at rest, most of the intracellular calcium is found stored in the _______

Back 58

sarcoplasmic reticulum

Front 59

calcium ions in the sarcoplasm will bind to ______

Back 59

troponin

Front 60

What substance must bind to myosin heads in order for the heads to detach from the thin filaments

Back 60

ATP

Front 61

calcium is released from the terminal cisterns in response to_____

Back 61

an action potential

Front 62

How does calcium reenter the terminal cisterns after muscle contraction is finished

Back 62

active transport

Front 63

A single contraction in response to a single threshold stimulus is defined as ______

Back 63

a twitch

Front 64

The force exerted by a contracting muscle is ______

Back 64

muscle tension

Front 65

The time that elapses between the stimulation of a muscle and the contraction of that muscle is defined as the _______

Back 65

latent period

Front 66

Which is not a factor that affects the force of muscle contraction

A. relative size of muscle fibers

B. number of muscle fibers stimulated

C. degree of muscle stretch

D. method of muscle stimulation

Back 66

D. method of muscle stimulation

Front 67

skeletal muscle contractions increase in strength due to _______

Back 67

recruitment of motor units

Front 68

the energy source that is used directly for muscle contraction is _______

Back 68

ATP

Front 69

Muscle soreness maybe due in part to which pathway of ATP production

Back 69

anaerobic glycolysis

Front 70

After about 30 minutes of exercise, which substance becomes the major source of fuel?

Back 70

fatty acid

Front 71

which activity would be most dependent upon creatine?

A. Tennis

B. Soccer

C. Jogging

D. Diving

Back 71

D. diving

Front 72

__________ is the length of time a muscle can continue to contract using aerobic pathways

Back 72

aerobic endurance

Front 73

contraction of which sheet of smooth muscle results in dilation

Back 73

longitudinal layer

Front 74

smooth muscle cells can contract as a unit due to the presence of ______

Back 74

gap junctions

Front 75

calcium binds to this substance in smooth muscle contraction

Back 75

calmodulin

Front 76

smooth muscle contains _______ that correspond to the Z discs of skeletal muscle

Back 76

dense bodies

Front 77

What unique characteristic of smooth muscle allows your stomach to stretch as you eat and not contract immediately to expel food

Back 77

stress-relaxation response

Front 78

which of the following is a characteristic of slow oxidative muscle fibers

A. large diameter

B. few mitochondria

C. high myoglobin content

D. poor blood supply

Back 78

high myoglobin content

Front 79

when naming muscles based on the location of attachment, what is named first?

Back 79

origin

Front 80

which of the following is not a functional classification of muscle

A. agonist

B. antagonist

C. protagonist

D. synergist

Back 80

protagonist

Front 81

synergistic muscles that immobilize a joint are also classified as ______

Back 81

fixators

Front 82

sphincter muscles have which fascicular pattern

Back 82

circular

Front 83

which fascicular arrangement tends to be found in the most powerful muscles

Back 83

pennate

Front 84

what provides the effort in the lever system in a human body

Back 84

muscles

Front 85

_______ serve as a fulcrum on your body

Back 85

joints

Front 86

levers that operate at a mechanical advantage are called _______ levers

Back 86

power

Front 87

levers that operate with great speed and are always at a mechanical disadvantage, are the _______

Back 87

third class levers

Front 88

most of the skeletal muscles in our bodies are part of _________ lever systems

Back 88

third-class

Front 89

bones connected by the coronal suture

Back 89

frontal and parietal

Front 90

keystone bone of cranium

Back 90

sphenoid

Front 91

keystone bone of the face

Back 91

maxillary

Front 92

bones that form the hard palate

Back 92

maxillary and palatine

Front 93

bone that allows the spinal to pass

Back 93

occipital

Front 94

bone that forms the chin

Back 94

mandible

Front 95

bones that contain paranasal sinuses

Back 95

ethmoid

frontal

maxillary

sphenoid

Front 96

bones that contains mastoid sinuses

Back 96

temporal

Front 97

bone of the axial skeleton to which the pectoral girdle attaches

Back 97

sternum

Front 98

bone that contains markings that include the glenoid cavity and acromion

Back 98

scapula

Front 99

bone whose features include the ala, crest, and greater sciatic notch

Back 99

ilium

Front 100

bone that is double curved and acts as a shoulder strut

Back 100

clavicle

Front 101

hip bone that articulates with the axial skeleton

Back 101

ilium

Front 102

the "sit-down" bone

Back 102

ischium

Front 103

anteriormost bone of the pelvic girdle

Back 103

pubis

Front 104

articulates with the acetabulum and the tibia

Back 104

femur

Front 105

forms the lateral aspect of the ankle

Back 105

fibula

Front 106

bone that "carries" the hand

Back 106

radius

Front 107

name of the wrist bones

Back 107

carpals

Front 108

bone which an end shaped like a monkey wrench

Back 108

ulna

Front 109

bone that articulates with the capitulum of the humerus

Back 109

radius

Front 110

what type of joints exhibit a joint cavity

Back 110

synovial

Front 111

what type of joints are sutures and syndesmoses

Back 111

fibrous joints

Front 112

what type of joints have bones that are connected by collagen fibers

Back 112

fibrous joints

Front 113

what type of goints include synchondroses and symphyses

Back 113

cartilageinous

Front 114

what king of joints are all diarthrotic

Back 114

synovial

Front 115

what type of joints are mostly amphiarthrotic

Back 115

cartilaginous

Front 116

what types of joints have bones that are connected by a disc of hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage

Back 116

cartilaginous

Front 117

which type of joints are nearly all synarthrotic

Back 117

fibrous joints

Front 118

which types of joints are the shoulder, hip, jaw, and elbow

Back 118

synovial

Front 119

freely moveable joints are ______

Back 119

diarthroses

Front 120

anatomical characteristics shared by all synovial joints include all EXCEPT

A. articular cartilage

B. a joint cavity

C. an articular capsule

D. presence of fibrocartilage

Back 120

D. presence of fibrocartilage

Front 121

Factors that influence the stability of a synovial joint include:

A. shape of articular surgaces

B. presence of strong reinforcing ligaments

C. tone of surrounding muscles

D. All of these

Back 121

D. All of these

Front 122

The description "Articular surfaces deep and secure; capsule heavily reinforced by ligaments and muscle tendons; extremely stable joint" best describles:

A. the elbow joint

B. hip joint

C. knee joint

D. shoulder joint

Back 122

B. Hip joint

Front 123

immobility of a joint due to fusion of its articular surfaces = _____

Back 123

ankylosis

Front 124

An autoimmune disorder in which joints are affected bilaterally and which involves pannus formation and gradual joint immobilization is ____

Back 124

rheumatoid arthritis

Front 125

the connective tissue covering that encloses the sarcolemma of an individual muscle fiber is called the ____

Back 125

endomysium

Front 126

A _________ is a bundle of muscle fibers enclosed by a connective tissue sheath

Back 126

fascicle

Front 127

______ filaments contain actin

Back 127

thin

Front 128

________ filament contains ATPases

Back 128

thick

Front 129

______ filaments attach to the Z disc

Back 129

thin

Front 130

______ filaments contain myosin

Back 130

thick

Front 131

_____ filaments contain troponin

Back 131

thin

Front 132

______ filaments do not like in the I band

Back 132

thick

Front 133

The function of the ________ in muscle contraction is to transmit the action potential deep into the muscle cells

Back 133

T-tubules

Front 134

The sites where the motor nerve impulse is transmitted from the nerve endings to the skeletal muscle cell membranes are the ________

Back 134

neuromuscular junctions

Front 135

Contraction elicited by a single brief stimulus is called a _______

Back 135

twitch

Front 136

A smooth, sustained contraction resulting from very rapid stimulation of the muscle, in which no evidence of relaxation is seen is called a ______

Back 136

fused tetanus

Front 137

characteristics of isometric contractions include all but:

A. shortening

B. increased muscle tension throughout the contraction phase

C. absence of shortening

D. used in resistance training

Back 137

A. shortening

Front 138

what provides ATP the fastest during muscle contraction

Back 138

a coupled reaction of creatine phosphate with ADP

Front 139

which muscle contraction does not require oxygen

Back 139

creatine phosphate with ADP and anaerobic glycolysis

Front 140

which phase of muscle contraction provides the highest yield of ATP per glucose molecule

Back 140

aerobic respiration of glucose

Front 141

which phase of muscle contraction results in the formation of lactic acid

Back 141

anaerobic glycolysis

Front 142

which phase of muscle contraction has carbon dioxide and water as products

Back 142

aerobic respiration of glucose

Front 143

which phase of mucscle contaction is most important in endurance sports

Back 143

aerobic respiration of glucose

Front 144

the neurotransmiitter released by somatic motor neuron is ________

Back 144

acetylcholine

Front 145

the ions that enter the skeletal muscle cell during the generation of an action potential are ______

Back 145

sodium ions

Front 146

________ holds a reserve supply of oxygen in the muscle

Back 146

myoglobin

Front 147

aerobic exercise results in all of the following except:

A. increased cardiovascular system efficiency

B. more mitochondria in the muscle cells

C. increased size and strength of existing muscle cells

D. increased neuromuscular system coordination

Back 147

C. increased size and strength

Front 148

The smooth muscle type found in the walls of digestive and urinary system organs and that exhibits gap junctions and pacemaker cells is

A. multi unit

b. unitary

Back 148

unitary

Front 149

A muscle that assists an agonist by causing a like movement or by stabilizing a joint over which an agonist acts is a ______

Back 149

synergist

Front 150

The arrangement of muscle fibers in which the fibers are arranged at an angle to a central longitudinal tendon is _______

Back 150

pennate