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378 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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rostral vs. caudal
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nose vs. tail
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four imaginary planes
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shoulder and hip movements
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Is the knee proximal or distal to the leg?
Is the knee proximal or distal to the thigh? |
proximal
distal |
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movement of the thumb
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lateral movements
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regions of the body
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movements of hand and foot
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posterior root contains the processes of the ____ neurons carrying information ____ the CNS
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sensory, to
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anterior root contains ____ which carry information ____ the CNS
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motor fibers, from
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The cell bodies of the sensory neurons are located in the ____
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spinal (dorsal root) ganglion
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The cell bodies of the motor fibers are located within the _____
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anterior grey horn of the cord
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ganglion
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a collection of nerve cell bodies located outside of the nervous system
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Medially the anterior (ventral) and posterior (dorsal) roots divide into ___.
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ROOTLETS
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A ___ is the area of the cord that gives rise to the anterior or receives the posterior rootlets.
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SPINAL SEGMENT
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Laterally the posterior and anterior roots join to form a ___.
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SPINAL NERVE
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Note the rootlets
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___ innervate intrinsic back muscles & a narrow strip of skin on the back.
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POSTERIOR RAMI
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____ innervate most of the other skeletal muscles of the body, including those of the limbs and trunk. They innervate most of the remaining areas of the skin, except for certain regions of the head.
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ANTERIOR RAMI
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anterior to posterior:
anterior cutaneous branch lateral branch of " anterior branch of lateral cutaneous branch lateral cutaneous branch posterior cutaneous branch (didn't discuss the arrow adjacent to vertebral body but it's the sympathetic ganglion) (red) anterior branch of lateral cutaneous lateral cutaneous branch of T4 posterior cutaneous branch of T4 |
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Name the 31 pairs spinal nerves
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Eight cervical (C1-C8)
Twelve thoracic (T1-T12) Five lumbar (L1-L5) Five sacral (S1-S5) One coccygeal (Co) |
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Where do the spinal nerves emerge
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All exit through the intertebral formena
C1-C7 above associated vertebra C8 between C7 and T1 all the rest below associated vertebra |
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the termination of the spinal cord
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conus medullaris
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soma = ___
visceral = ___ |
body (conscious voluntary)
guts (internal) |
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Cells that migrate anteriorly give rise to muscles of the limbs and trunk (___) & to the associated dermis.
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HYPAXIAL
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Cells that migrate posteriorly give rise to muscles of the back (___) and the associated dermis.
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EPAXIAL
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know these and which are somatic afferent and somatic efferent
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A ___ is that area of skin supplied by a single spinal cord level, or on one side of the body, by a single spinal nerve.
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dermatome
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Nipples are innervated by ___ and the umbilicus ___
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T4, T10
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When you use the dermatome “map” for clinical testing, what information are you trying to obtain?
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lesion associated with a specific spinal segment
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Be able to name the nerve
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Proximal to distal:
Lateral femoral cutaneous Anterior femoral cutaneous Infrapatellar cutaneous Medial crural cutaneous |
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Proximal to distal:
Lateral sural cutaneous Superficial fibular (peroneal) cutaneous Sural nerve Deep fibular (peroneal) |
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dermatome
L4 inervates the skin at the patella |
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cutaneous of a peripheral nerve
and its called posterior femoral cutaneous |
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peripheral nerve map
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A ___ is that portion of a skeletal muscle innervated by a single spinal cord level, or on one side, by a single spinal nerve.
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myotome
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3 things visceral motor nerves innervate
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smooth muscle, cardiac muscle and glands
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The visceral MOTOR component is commonly referred to as the ___ or the ___.
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autonomic division of the PNS
autonomic nervous system (ANS) |
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Two parts of the autonomic nervous system
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sympathetic and parasympathetic
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The two neurons in the autonomic nervous system and their cell body location
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preganglionic - CNS
postganglionic - autonomic ganglion |
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What is the definition of a ganglion?
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A collection of nerve cell bodies located outside of the central nervous system.
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The sympathetic portion originates from the ___ levels.
The parasympathetic portion originates from the ___ levels. |
thoraco--lumbar
cranio--sacral |
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Only two things motor neurons can do.
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muscles contract, glands secrete
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red is sympathetic, blue is parasympathetic
also note the sympathetic chain ganglion and the dashed lines are postganglionic |
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Which organs in the body receive their parasympathetic innervation from the vagus nerve?
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anything in the thorax and most of the abdomen down to the descending colon
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How many spinal nerves have white rami communicantes?
How many spinal nerves have gray rami communicantes? |
T1-L2
All |
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Where are the neuronal cell bodies of the nerve fibers located in the white rami?
Where are the neuronal cell bodies of the nerve fibers located in the gray rami? |
intermediolateral cell column
sympathetic chain |
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There are __ vertebrae
__ cervical __ thoracic __ lumbar __ sacral __ coccygeal |
33
7 12 5 5 4 |
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Identify primary and secondary curves
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What is in the transverse formina of the cervical vertebrae
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vertebral artery
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Two parts of the disc
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Only remnant of the notochord
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nucleus pulposus
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Strong broad band on anterolateral bodies and IV discs from pelvic surface of sacrum to the anterior tubercle of C1
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Anterior longitudinal ligament.
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Narrow & runs in the vertebral canal along the posterior aspect of the vertebral bodies.
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Posterior longitudinal ligament.
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joins adjacent arches
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Ligamentum flavum
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top to bottom:
interspinous ligament supraspinous ligament anterior longitudinal ligament |
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posterior longitudinal ligament
ligamentum flavum |
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___ are involved with the movements of the upper limbs & thoracic wall (respiratory). Innervated by anterior rami.
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Extrinsic muscles
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___ are deep and innervated by posterior rami. They support and move the vertebral column & help move the head.
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Intrinsic muscles
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top to bottom:
superior nuchal line c7 spine of the scapula th12 thoracal lumbar fascia |
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Latissimus Dorsi nerve supply is C6, C7, C8
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Rhomboid minor and major
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blood supply to trapezius
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transverse cervical
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nerve to trapezius
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spinal accessory (cranial nerve XI)
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posterior primary rami
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scalp
thumb middle finger pinky finger nipple umbilicus patella anus |
C2
C6 C7 C8 T4 T10 L4 S5 |
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Where does the spinal cord extend to and what is this called
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L1 and L2, conus medullaris
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know the layers of the cord
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surgeons can use the denticate ligament to separate what is ventral and what is dorsal
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Watch out for the ___ when clamping a AAA
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identify curvatures
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.
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what are the SITS muscles
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Supra
Infra Teres Minor Subscapularis |
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The arrows are:
circumflex scapular artery thoracal dorsal 1 superior thoracic 2 thoracoacromial lateral throacic 3 subscapular anterior circumflex humeral posterior circumflex humeral |
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.
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How are multiple proteins produced from a single gene? (5 ways)
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Editing of mRNA (Apolipoprotein)
Alternative splicing of mRNA Alternative reading frames Nested Genes Post-translational modification of protein |
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Understand how the 21 genetically-encoded amino acids differ from each other in structure and properties
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Describe the key structural features of the peptide bond and explain its crucial role in protein structures
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it has partial double bond character
rigid and planar trans configuration uncharged but polar |
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describe the levels of protein structure
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2 types of Beta Structures
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___ has a repetitive primary structure with a Gly in every third position, which help form the triple helix.
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Collagen
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Beta sheets, parallel or anti-parallel H-bonded strands; ___ has less stable H-bonding.
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parallel
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Most proteins have modular structures containing multiple ___. These are contiguous regions within a polypeptide chain that have separate folds and are not intertwined.
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domains
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___ is an example of a all alpha protein
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myoglobin
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___ is an example of an all beta protein
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Serum retinol-binding protein
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___ is an example of a multidomain protein
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Progelatinase A
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Are multiple chains in a quaternary structure more or less stable?
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more
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List the forces that stabilize protein 3D structures
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Covalent bonds (Peptide bonds
disulfide bonds & other crosslinks) Hydrogen-bonds van der Waals interactions & hydrophobic interactions (nonpolar vdw) ionic (electrostatic) interactions |
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Homologs can be ___ which means they come from the same genes or ___ which means they have the same AA sequence but different genes
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orthologs
paralogs |
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PROTEIN MISFOLDING disease ___ leads to polyneuropathy: muscle wasting, walking impaired, peripheral nerve destruction by amyloid deposits
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AMYLOIDOSIS
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Describe some of the major types of post-translational modification of proteins and their varied significance.
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Proline hydroxylation in collegen formation requires ___, a lack of which lead to ___
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vitamin C
scurvy |
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Enyzmes operate by
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lowering the free energy of the transition state
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__ are non-protein molecules needed for catalysis.
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cofactors
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Enzyme with cofactor: ___; without cofactor: ___.
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holoenzyme
apoenzyme |
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Cofactors are either:
- Metal ions, e.g. Zn2+, Mg2+ - ___: small organic molecules (derived from vitamins) |
Coenzymes
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__ Km values are associated with tighter binding substrates
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low
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What is best measure of enzyme efficiency with different substrates?
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Factors that affect enzyme activity
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The two most common types of reversible inhibition are ___ inhibition which increases the apparent Km and ___ which decreases the apparent Vmax
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competitive
noncompetitive |
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list some drugs that are inhibitors
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crixivan for HIV
methotrexate and 5-fluorouracil for cancer penicillin - bacterial cell walls |
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HOW ENZYMES ARE REGULATED
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___ enzymes are regulated by molecules called effectors that bind noncovalently at a site other than the active site.
___ effectors are when the substrate itself is the effector ___ effectors are when the substrate is different |
Allosteric
homotrophic heterotrophic |
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Walk through the timeline and cell numbers of oogenesis
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Primordial germ cells start in the yolk sac and migrate to the primitive gonad of the embryo.
They form primary follicles and mitosis produces about 7 million. About the 7th month many die with the survivors entering prophase of meiosis I. At birth there are about 700,000 at prophase of meiosis I. By puberty many become atretic leaving about 400,000 15 to 20 follicles begin to mature each month with 1 being ovulated. 500 ovulated in a lifetime. |
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Draw the hormone levels of menstruation
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Cleavage
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series of mitotic cell divisions that result in the formation of the early embryonic cells which are termed blastomeres.
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Morula
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solid (12-32 blastomeres) ball of cells; 3-4 days after fertilization. In the female, one of the X chromosomes is inactivated in each cell at about this time.
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Blastocyst
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after the morula enters the uterine cavity a fluid filled cavity (blastocytic cavity) develops within it.
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Zygote
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sperm + oocyte
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Gastrulation
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formation of a blastocyst into a gastrula (3 layered embryonic disc)
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Centrally located cells = inner cell mass or ___
Other cells = ___ |
EMBRYOBLAST
TROPHOBLAST |
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Neurula
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when the neural tube develops from the neural plate. This is the 1st appearance of the nervous system and the next stage after the gastrula.
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Embryo
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this period extends to the end of the 8th week (56 days) by which time all of the major structures are present
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Fetal period
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begins on day 57 (ninth week) and ends when the fetus is completely outside its mother
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Conceptus = ___ + ___ or associated membranes. All parts that develop from the zygote
Embryo Embryonic portion of the placenta & It’s associated membranes (amnion, chorion & yolk sac). |
embryo, adnexa
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Define gestational age vs. fertilization age
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gestational age = 40 week or 280 days
fertilization age = 38 weeks or 266 days |
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What are the layers of the bilaminar embryonic disc
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Epiblast - makes the three germ layers
Hypoblast - yolk sac |
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What are the two parts the the blastocyst
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embryoblast and trophoblast
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In the area over the embryoblast, the trophoblast has differentiated into two layers an inner layer of mononuclear cells the ___ and an outer multinucleated zone ___
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cytotrophoblast
syncytiotrophoblast |
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In the amniotic cavity, on the surface of the epiblast, the ___ forms. The leading edge of the primitive streak is known as the ___. This moves from the caudal end to the cranial end toward the ___ which eventually forms the mouth.
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primitive streak, primitive node, prechordal plate
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___ mesoderm is directly adjacent to the notochord and divides into paired cuboidal bodies called ___.
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paraxial, somites
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___ mesoderm forms the uro/genital system.
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Intermediate
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___ mesoderm forms the body walls.
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Lateral
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corpus luteum produces primarily ___ and also ___
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progesterone, estrogen
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Neural crest cells form the ___ ganglia and the ___ ganglia, as well as other things
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dorsal root, autonomic
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___ forms the diaphragm
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septum transversum
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___ = vertebrae (spinal defects result from abnormal induction of the sclerotomes)
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Sclerotome
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___ = with lateral plate mesoderm form the dermis of the skin.
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Dermatome
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___ = muscles
___ = deep axial m. of the back. ___ = hypaxial m. of thoracic and abdominal cavities |
Myotome
Epimere Hypomere |
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___ mesoderm becomes the parietal layer and the ___ mesoderm becomes the visceral layer
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somatic, splanchnic
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C3 4 5 keeps the ___ alive (phrenic nerve)
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diaphragm
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the diaphragm is formed by:
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1. Septum transversum (central tendon)
2. 2 pleuroperitoneal folds 3. Muscles from dorsal & lateral body walls. 4. Mesentery of the esophagus (crura) |
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The ________ divides the body cavity into the thoracic and peritoneal cavities.
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septum transversum
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The ________ cavity is divided into the pericardial and 2 pleural cavities by the ______________ membranes
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thoracic, pericardiacoplerual
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The ___________ membranes are part of the diaphragm along with mesoderm, dorsal mesentery of the esophagus and the __________ ___________.
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?
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___ form muscle and bone of face and head
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somitomeres
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___ – protective case around brain
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Neurocranium
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___ – bones of the face
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Viscerocranium
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.
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name the 3 sutures on the skull
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.
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achondroplasia is the most common form of ___
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dwarfism
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___ induces adjacent mesechyme to proliferate & differentiate into cartilage & muscle.
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Apical ectodermal ridge (AER)
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___ = growth plate
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epiphysial plate
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Formation of the Vertebral column
___ week sclerotome cells migrate around the spinal cord & notochord. ___ = caudal half of each sclerotome grows into and fuses with the cephalic half of each adjacent sclerotome. Thus, each vertebra is formed from 2 adjacent sclerotomes. ___ fills in between = intervertebral disc |
4th
Resegmentation Mesenchyme |
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name process
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duplopodia
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name process
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syndactaly
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name process
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amelia, something went wrong with AER, thalydamide in A
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name process
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in utero amputation, amniotic banding syndrom
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Muscular System
Develops from the ___ germ layer Skeletal muscle is from ___ mesoderm which forms the somites & somitomeres. Smooth muscle is from ___ mesoderm surrounding the gut. (some from ectoderm; e.g. pupillary, mammary gland & sweat gland muscle. |
mesodermal
paraxial splanchnic |
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.
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___ myotomes form the extraocular muscles
___ myotomes form the tongue musculature |
Preotic
Occipital |
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DNA is read in the ___ to ___ direction
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3', 5'
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___ reads RNA to create copy DNA
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reverse transcriptase
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DNA synth. occurs in a ___ to ___ direction
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5' to 3'
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The purines are ___ and ___, while the pyrimidines are ___ and ___
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Adenine and Guanine
Cytosine and Thymine |
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Base pairing consists of ____ between purines and pyrimidines
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hydrogen bonding
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G-C bonds are ___ than A-T bonds
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stronger
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Forces that hold two DNA strands together are ___ and ___
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hydrogen bonds, pie-electron interactions between the bases (base stacking)
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___ is the reversible inclusion of a molecule (or group) between two other molecules
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intercalation
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Unique sequences contain the genes for proteins but in addition also contain many unused sequences. It is estimated that only __% of the human genome actually has a function.
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10
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Intermediate repetitive sequences are also transcribed into RNA. They include
rRNA genes, gene families, transposons (about __% of the human genome consists of retrotransposons). |
10
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Highly repetitive DNA, also called ___ DNA, is not transcribed. Its function is
not known. It is found in the ___ and ___ but also some other places. |
satellite
centromeres and telomeres |
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___ is an enzyme that cuts a DNA sequence at a specific site.
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restriction endonuclease
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The most abundant intermediate-repetitive DNA sequences
in mammals are long and short interspersed elements, LINES and SINES (long and short interspersed elements). One very common SINE is the ___ sequence. |
Alu
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The complex between DNA and proteins in the nucleus is called
___ |
chromatin
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Histones associate with DNA to form ___ which can be seen on DNA as “beads on a string”.
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nucleosomes
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Histone __ is bound to the DNA between nucleosome cores. The interaction between
neighboring _same_ molecules allows the formation of higher order chromatin structures. |
H1
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Each nucleosome core contains ___ bp of DNA wound around it. There is about
one nucleosome “bead” visible per ___ bp of DNA. So about __ bp would be the linker DNA. |
146
200 50 |
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Histones have a high content of amino acids ___ and ___ because they are positively charged and readily bind to negatively charged DNA.
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Lys
Arg |
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DNA makes exactly __ turns around the core of the nucleosome and there are __ bp per turn of the
double helix. |
2
10 |
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The interaction between the H1
molecules then causes the “beads-on-a-string” structure to coil into a solenoid structure with a diameter of __ nm. |
30
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___ is transcribed and ___ is not
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Euchromatin
heterochromatin |
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Inactivated X forms a structure called a ___
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barr body
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During what embryonic stage does X activation occur
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morula
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Only one X chromosome
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Turner's Syndrome
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XXY
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Klinefelter's Syndrome
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The Meselson-Stahl experiment showed that DNA replication is ___
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semiconservative
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The result of replication of circular DNA: Two interlinked DNA circles.
They can only be separated by ___ which makes double-stranded cuts. |
topoisomerase II
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___ links the
Okazaki pieces to form a continuous DNA strand. |
DNA ligase
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___ means RNA and DNA combined
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heteroduplex
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___ synthesizes RNA primer.
___ extends DNA Okazaki fragment from primer ___ eliminates downstream RNA primer by nick translation. ___ ligates Okazaki fragment to rest of lagging strand. |
Primase
Polymerase III Polymerase I DNA ligase |
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___ unwinds DNA
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topoisomerase
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__ opens DNA strands to be replicated
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helicase
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Replication on leading strand is done by ___
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polymerase I
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To prevent the loss of genetic
information the ends of eukaryotic chromosomes (linear) carry ___ |
telomeric repeats.
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Germ line cells contain the
enzyme ___ which can elongate a shortened telomere. |
telomerase
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___ is an autosomal recessive disease characterized by early onset of many features of aging, by an unusual spectrum of cancers, and by genomic instability.
It is caused by a mutation in the WS gene. The WS protein possesses 3’-5’ DNA helicase activity as well as 3’-5’ exonuclease activity. It probably functions as a DNA processing enzyme that resolves aberrant DNA structures via both exonuclease and helicase activities. Aberrant DNA structures lead to aneuploidy, which is associated with all cancers. |
Werner syndrome
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Mutations usually become apparent only after ___ yielding one
wildtype and one mutant cell. |
cell division
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DNA ___ repair refers to processes that simply reverse the chemical damage without breaking the phosphodiester bond.
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direct
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DNA ___ repair is when the damaged or mutated base is excised and replaced by the correct base. This process makes use of the redundant genetic information that is present in the complementary DNA strand.
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excision
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When you see Nonsense mutation think “Stop Codon”
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A point mutation when a pyrimidine is changed to another
pyrimidine, or a purine to another purine. |
transitions
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A point mutation when a pyrimidine is changed to a purine,
or a purine to a pyrimidine. |
transversions
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.
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An ___ is a DNA sequence, usually located upstream of the promoter, to which
transcription factor proteins bind. |
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Name three different DNA-binding motifs found in transcription factors.
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Explain how eukaryotic mRNA synthesis is terminated.
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Amino acid activation occurs in two steps and is catalyzed by ___:
1. The amino acid is covalently linked to ___ 2. The activated amino acid is then transferred to its cognate tRNA, and __same__ is released. |
aminoacyl tRNA synthetase
AMP |
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Explain the "checking reaction" and how it affects fidelity of translation.
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Describe the basic subunit structure of a ribosome.
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Note this is in eukaryotes and the initiation factors fall off before start codon
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closed loop structure is more efficient
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Explain why eukaryotic mRNA usually is monocistronic.
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Eukaryotic mRNA is said to be monocistronic (cistron is a synonym for gene). In
contrast, bacterial mRNA often is polycistronic, i.e., it can code for several proteins, because internal Shine- Dalgarno sequences allow initiation of translation at multiple sites on the mRNA. Recently, however, polycistronic mRNAs have also been found in eukaryotes. |
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Describe the direction of translation in relation to the polarity of mRNA.
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DNA is read 3'-5'
RNA is read 3'-5' |
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what are transcription factors and what do they do
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they are protein that binds to DNA regions called enhancers
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.
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What is studied in gross anatomy?
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anything you can see with the naked eye
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4 disciplines in anatomy
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Gross Anatomy, Histology, Embryology (developmental anatomy), Neuro-Anatomy
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4 types of tissues
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Epithelium, connective tissue, muscle and nerve
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Steps to prepare tissues
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Fixation
Dehydration and cleaning Embedding (parafin for LM, plastic for EM) Sectioning (8-10 microns) Mounting and staining |
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Types of microtome blades
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LM - steel
EM - diamond |
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Internal yardstick
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RBC ~7.5 microns
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platelets
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What is H&E
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Hematoxylin - basic blue stain
Eosin - acidic red stain |
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What do karyocytes make?
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platelets
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Fat
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5 characteristics of epithelium
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Line Surfaces
Avascular Lie upon a Basal Lamina Demonstrate Polarity Often have surface specializations (microvilli, cilia) |
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why it is important to pay attention to the basal lamina
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can determine if tumor has metastasized
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6 Functions of epithelium
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Protection
Transcellular transport Secretion Absorption Selective permeability Detection of sensations |
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Epithelium
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lines surfaces exposed to the outside world
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Mesothelium
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lines body cavities (pleura, peritoneum)
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Endothelium
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lines blood vessels
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Ectoderm
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gives rise to epidermis and glands of skin
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Endoderm
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gives rise to lining of respiratory and GI tracts
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Mesoderm
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gives rise to lining of male and female ducts
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3 ways to classify Epithelium
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1. Number of layers
2. Shape of cells 3. Surface modifications |
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microvilli - location and purpose
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intestinal lining cells
increases surface area for transport and absorption |
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apical domain
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lining the lumen
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cilia - location and purpose
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trachea, oviduct
motile and move mucus or ova |
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stereocillia - location and purpose
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found in epididymus
absorption |
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describe the structure of cilia
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Axoneme 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules
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zonulae occludens
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belt-like junction which encircles the cell
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zonulae adherentes
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belt-like adherence of adjoining cells
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desmosomes (maculae adherens)
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spot welds, resist shearing forces
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gap junctions (nexus)
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regions of inter cellular communication
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infection of the gut
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enteritis
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epidermis renewal
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28 days
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small intestine renewal
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4-6 days
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which direction is epithelial cells renewed
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from basal region
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metaplasia
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the change of one cell type to another
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carcinoma
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malignancy from epithelium
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adenocarcinoma
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malignancy of glandular epithelium
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Parenchyma vs. Stroma
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functional part of an organ vs. structural part
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3 components of connective tissue
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cells, matrix, fibers
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4 types of proper connective tissue
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loose areolar,
dense connective tissue, reticular tissue adipose tissue |
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3 types of specialized connective tissue
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cartilage
bone blood |
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3 components of ground substance
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glycosomainoglycans
proteoglycans adhesive glycoproteins |
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2 types of fibers
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collagen I-VII
elastic = elastin core with microfibrils of fibrillin |
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5 classifications of connective tissue
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embryonic
loose (areolar) dense reticular adipose |
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types and examples of dense ct
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dense irregular - dermis
dense regular collagenous - tendons and ligaments dense regular elastic - large blood vessels |
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5 ct subgroups
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fibroblasts
adipose cells pericytes mast cells macrophages |
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what do fibroblasts do
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produce and secrete procollagen into extracellular matrix where it forms tropocollagen then collagen
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red-glycogen, blue-mitochondrion
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yellow-rER, red-nucleolus
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rER
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red-nuclear membrane, white-mitoch.
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rER
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sER
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red-Golgi, blue-mitochondria
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blue-trans face, red-cis face
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cristae in mitoch
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tubular cristae in mitochondrion
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red-primary lysosome, blue secondary lysosome
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blue-rER, red-glycogen. Note size difference.
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sER
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glycogen and mitoch.
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red-nucleus, blue-lipid droplets
Note the size of the lipid. |
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crystalline inclusions
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chromosome during mitosis
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Names of the connective tissue muscle sheaths, by size descending.
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epimysium, perimysium, endomysium
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muscle fiber = ___
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the cell
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the functional unit of contraction is called a ___
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sarcomere
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Be able to draw a sarcomere with all the different named lines.
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plasma membrane of a muscle cell is called ___
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sarcolema
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at the A - I junction are located the ___ which is surrounded by the ___ of the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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T - Tubules, terminal cisterna
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___ are the thick filaments and ___ are the the thin filaments
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myosin, actin
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Skeletal muscle cells and the single neuron that innervates them is considered a ___
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motor unit
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The transmitter for muscles is ___ and the receptor is ___
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acetylcholine, nicitinic
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what else lives in the synaptic cleft
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acetlycolinesterase
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___ monitor the length and changes in length of muscles
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muscle spindles
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nuclei at the center of a muscle cell is ___ at the periphery it is ___
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cardiac, skeletal
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Dense structures making up intercolated discs
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desmosomes (macula adherentes
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___ allow intercolated discs to facilitate communication
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gap junctions
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In smooth muscle ___ are sarcolemmal vesicles; act like T tubules in skeletal & cardiac muscle. sequester & release Ca++
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Caveoli
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In smooth muscle, the ___ act like z disc proteins seen in striated muscle.
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dense bodies
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___ is growth by cell division
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hyperplasia
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___ is growth by increasing cell mass
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hypertrophy
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___ muscles do not regenerate
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cardiac
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skeletal muscle cells do not regenerate by ___, they do so via ___
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mitosis, satellite cells
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___ muscles retain their ability to divide by mitosis
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smooth
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The ___ is an example where smooth muscle not only grows by hypertrophy, but also by hyperplasia
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uterus
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extrafusal
intrafusal dorsal root |
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The somatic system, the neurotransmitter is ___ and the receptors are ___ receptors (but are different from the ganglionic ones)
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acetylcholine, nicotinic
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List the neurotransmitters and receptors for symp. and parasymp.
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Symp.
ACh - N - ganglion - NE - Alpha/Beta Parasymp. ACh - N - ganglion - ACh - muscarinic |
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Activation of MR can activate smooth muscle by the __ mechanism, and can slow the heart by the __ mechanism.
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M3, M2
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All MR are blocked by a prototype antagonist called ___
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ATROPINE
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Neurotrans. and receptor for adrenal medulla and releases the catacholamines ___ ___
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ACh, N
Epi, NE |
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What are the NE receptors?
E receptors |
a1 a2 B1
a1 a2 B1 B2 B3 |
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Adrenergic receptors located in autonomic effector organs:
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heart, smooth muscle, exocrine glands and brain
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Some effector organs, such as the ___ ___ ___ receive innervations only from the SS.
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sweat glands, kidneys, and adrenal medulla
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describe the innervation of the sweat glands
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sympathetic-cholinergic
ACh -> N, ganglion ACh -> M3 (the other sympathetic is ACh -> N ganglion NE -> a,B) Atropine decr. sweating and produces scarlet flush |
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Describe ANS innervation of the heart
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Sympathetic branch
NE, E-> β1 Stimulatory effect Parasympathetic branch Ach -> M2 Inhibitory effect |
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Heart during stress easy to block with β-blocker ___ (β1, β2 blocker)
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Propranolol
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ANS effects of the heart
sinus node ___ AV node ___ Everywhere ___ |
HR
conduction velocity contractility |
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Describe the ANS activity on Bronchiolar smooth muscle
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SS
E -> β2 -> Relaxation PS ACh -> M3 -> Constriction |
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Describe the ANS innervation of the pupil
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SS: NE, E -> a1 -> radial muscle contraction (mydriasis: pupil dilation)
PS: ACh -> M3 -> circular muscle contraction (miosis: pupil constriction) |
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Describe ANS innervation of the lens
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PS ONLY
PS: ACh -> M3 -> cilliary muscle contraction, lens round and flat good for near vision also opens trabecular meshwork increases drainage (good for claucoma) |
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Describe clinical use of NE
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B1 of heart -> incr. HR
a1 of small arterioles -> incr. BP and TPR supports blood pressure during surgery |
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Describe clinical use of E
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B1 of heart -> ↑HR
B2 lung -> relax a1 artiorles -> vasoconstr. diverts blood to skeletal muscle a1 pupil -> dialation a2 vasodiltion -> incr. blood to heart and brain B2 liver -> incr. glycogen catablolism B3 fat cells |
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___ blocks B1 and B2, ___ blocks B1 > B2
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Propanolol, Metoprolol
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Effect of β Blockers on the heart:
At rest ___ (PS) During work ___ (PS) During stress ___ (SS) |
not much
not much yes |
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Asthma
Emphysema β2 agonist (___) -> broncodilation M3 blocker (___) -> decr.secretion Do not give ___ blocker |
Albuterol
Ipratropium β2 |
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Why is epinephrine the drug of choice for anaphylactic reaction?
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Activates B2 of smooth muscle in lung to increase pulmonary ventilation
increase CO, BP beta 1 and HR beta 1 |
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Explain the reason for injecting sometimes epinephrine together with other drugs
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Reduction of local blood flow to keep other drugs such as anesthetics from diffusing. Activates a1 of small arterioles to constrict.
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What would you expect nicotine (smoking) will do to your heart rate, blood pressure, gut
motility and the secretion of epinephrine by the adrenal medulla, before and after using a beta blocker such as propranolol. |
Before Propanolol, HR, BP, gut motility and epi. secretion by adrenal medulla would all increase
After Propanolol, B1 and B2 are blocked, HR, BP and gut mot. all would decrease but adrenal medulla activity would still be increased because there are not B receptors involved. |
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Describe the effects of epinephrine that help you to deal with a stressful situation, like if
you were running for your life. Include the type of receptors used for each effect. |
B1 - Heart - incr. HR and contractility
B2 - smooth muscle relaxation - incr. pulmonary ventilation and blood flow to muscles a1 - vasoconstriction - skin and gut - diverts to skeletal muscle - pupil dilation mydriasis a2 vasodilation of coronary and pial endothelial - incr. blood to heart and brain |
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Why ganglionic nicotinic receptor antagonists are rarely used clinically?
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Lack of specificity, they inhibit at the same time the sympathetic and the parasympathetic effects.
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A) The acetylcholine receptors in the SA node are classified as___
B) The acetylcholine receptors in the intestine are___ C) The acetylcholine receptors in the parasympathetic ganglia are___ D) The acetylcholine receptors in the sweat glands innervated by sympathetic cholinergic fibers are___ E) The acetylcholine receptors in the sympathetic ganglia are___ |
A) M2
B) Muscarinic C) Nicotinic D) Muscarinic E) Nicotinic |
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Draw the pathway for the synthesis of the catecholamines: Dopamine,
Norepinephrine and Epinephrine. |
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Draw a diagram explaining the metabolism of catecholamines.
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Describe the symptoms of muscarine poisoning
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increased salivation, sweating (perspiration), and tearflow (lacrimation)
DUMBELS diarrhea urination miosis bronchoconstriction emesis lacrimation salivation |
