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510 Cards in this Set
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- 3rd side (hint)
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What is Self Aid?
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Emergency treatment one applies to oneself
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Name some items that you might use as a splint from your military equipment.
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Bayonet
Rifle Entrenching tool Tent poles and stakes Web belt |
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What is the quickest way to splint a broken leg?
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Tie the broken leg securely to the unbroken leg.
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How many pressure points, which can be used to control bleeding with fingers, thumbs or hands are there on the human body?
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11
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What is the object of First Aid?
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To stop bleeding
Overcome shock Relieve pain Prevent infection |
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What FM covers First Aid for Soldiers?
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FM 4-25.11
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What is First Aid?
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It is the first care given to casualties before treatment by medical personnel can be made available.
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When would you not remove a casualties clothing to expose a wound?
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If in a chemical environment or if the clothing is stuck to the wound.
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What soldiers are most likely to suffer heat injuries?
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Soldiers not accustomed to the heat, overweight soldiers, prior heat casualties, and soldiers already dehydrated due to alcohol use, diarrhea, or lack of water (insufficient use of)
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How high should an injured limb be elevated above the heart to control bleeding?
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2 to 4 inches.
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What are the lifesaving steps? (The ABC's of medical treatment)
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Open the airway and restore breathing
Stop the bleeding / Protect the wound Prevent shock |
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When applying splint, where should the bandages be tied?
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The bandages should be tied with knots against the splint
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Whose first aid dressing should be used on a casualty?
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Use the casualties field dressing.
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How should the ends of an improved pressure dressing be tied?
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Tie the ends together in a nonslip knot, directly over the wound site. DO NOT tie so tightly that it has a tourniquet-like effect.
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Why should you dress and bandage the wound as soon as possible?
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To protect the wound from further contamination of germs, and also to control the bleeding.
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What should you do to indicate that a casualty has received a tourniquet?
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Mark his or her forehead with a T and if possible, note the time of the application of the tourniquet
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Should you ever remove or loosen a tourniquet?
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NO
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How can you prevent athlete's foot?
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Keep your feet clean, use foot powder and change socks daily
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Where is a tourniquet applied?
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Place the tourniquet around the limb, between the wound and the body trunk (or between the wound and the heart). Never place it directly over a wound, a fracture, or joint. Tourniquets, for maximum effectiveness, should be placed on the upper arm or above the knee on the thigh.
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Name 3 categories of heat injuries
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Heat cramps
Heat exhaustion Heat stroke |
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What are the signs and symptoms of heat cramps?
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Cramping in the extremities (arms and legs)
Abdominal Cramps (stomach) Excessive Sweating |
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What is the treatment for heat cramps?
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Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is available.
Loosen his clothing (if not in a chemical environment) In a chemical environment, transport the heat casualty to a noncontaminated area as soon as the mission permits. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water. (The body absorbs cool water faster than warm or cold water; therefore, cool water is preferred if it is available.) Seek medical assistance should cramps continue. |
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What are the signs and symptoms of heat exhaustion?
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Excessive sweating with pale, moist, cool skin
Headache Weakness Dizziness Loss of appetite Cramping Nausea (with or without vomiting) Urge to defecate Chills (Gooseflesh) Rapid Breathing Tingling of Hands/Feet Confusion |
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What would the treatment be for heat exhaustion?
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Move the casualty to a cool, shady area or improvise shade if none is available.
Loosen or remove his clothing and boots (unless in a chemical environment); pour water on him and fan him. Have him slowly drink at least one canteen of water. Elevate his legs. If possible, the casualty should not participate in strenuous activity for the remainder of the day. Monitor the casualty until the symptoms are gone, or medical assistance arrives. |
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What are the signs and symptoms of heat stroke?
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Skin is red, hot and dry
Weakness Dizziness Confusion Headaches Seizures Nausea Stomach pains or cramps Respiration and pulse may be rapid and weak. Unconsciousness and collapse may occur suddenly. |
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What would the treatment be for heat stroke?
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Moving him to a cool, shady area or improvising shade if none is available.
Loosening or removing his clothing (except in a chemical environment). Spraying or pouring water on him; fanning him to permit the coolant effect of evaporation. Massaging his extremities and skin, which increases the blood flow to those body areas, thus aiding the cooling process. Elevating his legs. Having him slowly drink at least one canteen full of water if he is conscious. Seek medical assistance immediately |
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If a casualty were suspected of having a neck/spinal injury or severe head trauma, which method would you use for opening an airway?
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The jaw thrust technique, because in most cases it can be done without extending the neck
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What are two basic types of fractures?
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Open (compound)
Closed (simple) |
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What are some signs of an open fracture?
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Bleeding.
Bones sticking through the skin. Check for pulse. |
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What are some signs of a closed fracture?
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Swelling.
Discoloration. Deformity. Unusual body position. Check for pulse. |
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With an open fracture, what should you do first?
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Stop the bleeding
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What is the basic proven principle in splinting fractures?
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"Splint them where they lie"
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How tight should tourniquet be?
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Tightened until the bright red bleeding has stopped.
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What are the three types of bleeding?
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Arterial- Blood is bright red and will spurt with each heart beat
Venous- Blood is dark red and flows in a steady stream Capillary- Blood oozes from the wound |
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Name 4 common points for checking pulse
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Carotid- The side of the neck
Femoral- The groin Radial- The wrist Posterial Tibial- Ankle |
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What are some signs/symptoms of shock?
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Clammy skin (cool, pale and damp)
Restlessness and nervousness Thirst Loss of blood Confusion Fast breathing Nausea or vomiting Blotched or bluish skin (especially around the mouth and lips) Often perspires freely May pass out. |
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What is the treatment for shock?
“P.E.L.C.R.N.” (Pronounced Pell-Crin) |
Position the casualty on their back
Elevate the Legs Loosen clothing at neck waist or wherever it is binding Climatize (prevent too hot or too cold) Reassure (keep the casualty calm) Notify medical personnel (Help, Get a medic!!) |
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What is the greatest preventive measure for disease?
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Cleanliness
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How do you stop bleeding?
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Apply a field dressing
Manual pressure Elevate the limb Apply a pressure dressing Digital Pressure Apply a tourniquet |
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What is CPR?
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Cardiopulmonary resuscitation, it is used to restore a heart beat
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When can measures taken to restore breathing in an individual be discontinued?
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When a doctor tells you to stop
When others relieve you When you cannot physically continue When the casualty starts to breath on his own |
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What is AIDS?
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AIDS is the end stage of the HIV infection. At this point, the virus has attacked and weakened a person's immune system
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Name two types of rescue breathing
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Mouth to mouth
Mouth to nose |
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What do the letters AIDS stand for?
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Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome
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When should a casualty not be placed in the shock position?
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When the casualty has a:
Head injury Abdominal wound Fractured (unsplinted) leg |
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How long is direct manual pressure applied to control bleeding?
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5 to 10 minutes
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What should you do prior to leaving an unconscious casualty?
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Turn their head to the side to prevent them from choking on their own vomit
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When should a tourniquet be used to stop bleeding?
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As a last resort when everything else has failed or when an arm or leg has been severed off
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What does COLD stand for?
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It is a key word in cold weather protection, it stands for Keep it CLEAN, Avoid OVERHEATING, Wear it LOOSE and in layers and Keep it DRY
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What are the 8 steps in evaluating a casualty?
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Check for:
Responsiveness Breathing Pulse Bleeding Shock Fractures Burns Possible concussions (head injuries) |
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What is the first indication of frostbite?
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Skin becomes numb and white particles/patches form on it
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What do you do to treat frostbite?
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Remove clothing from the affected area, warm with body heat, dress the area and seek additional medical help
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When should an airtight dressing be applied to a sucking chest wound?
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On the exhale.
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How should you position a casualty with an open abdominal wound?
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On his back with his knees up to relieve abdominal pressure
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What do you do with exposed abdominal organs?
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Wrap them in dry clean material and place on top of the abdomen (never try to put them back in)
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How do you take the Carotid pulse?
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Carotid pulse. To check the carotid pulse, feel for a pulse on the side of the casualty’s neck closest to you. This is done by placing the tips of your first two fingers beside his Adam’s apple.
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In reference to carrying a casualty, what are the two-man methods?
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Two-Man Support Carry
Two-Man Arms Carry Two-Man Fore-and Aft-Carry Four-Hand Seat Carry Two-Hand Seat Carry |
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In reference to carrying a casualty, what are the one-man methods?
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Fireman's carry
Supporting carry Arms Carry Saddleback carry Pack-strap carry Pistol belt carry Pistol belt drag Neck drag LBE Carry Using Bearers LBE LBE Carry Using Casualty’s LBE Cradle Drop Drag |
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Should you put any medication or cream on a burn?
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NO
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Name the four types of burns
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Thermal
Electrical Chemical Laser |
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What is the primary objective in the treatment of burns?
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Lessen or prevent shock and infection.
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What are the three categories used in medical evacuation?
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Urgent- within 2 hours
Priority- within 4 hours Routine- within 24 hours |
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What is the first aid procedure for a white phosphorous casualty?
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Smother the flame by submerging the affected area in water or pack with mud. Then remove the particles by brushing or picking them out
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What is the first step in the first aid of a burn victim?
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Remove the casualty from the source of the burn.
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What are the 2 prescribed methods for opening an airway?
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The jaw thrust
Head tilt/chin lift methods |
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What is the major cause of tooth decay and gum disease?
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Dental Plaque
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What are the lines in the MEDEVAC 9-Line?
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Location
Freq/call sign # of patients by precedence Special Equipment Number of Patients by type Security Method of Marking Patient Nationality and status NBC contamination |
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What are the 4 types of waste?
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Human
Liquid Garbage Rubbish |
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What is the water requirement per person, per day in a temperate zone?
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5 Gallons
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A latrine can be no closer than what distance to a water source?
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100 ft
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What is Potable water?
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Water that is safe to drink
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What are the measurements of a straddle trench?
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1 ft wide, 4 ft long and 2 1/2 ft deep
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How many gallons of water will a Lister bag hold?
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36 gallons
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How deep is a cat hole?
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6 to 12 inches
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What is a communicable disease?
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A disease that ca be transmitted person to person, animal to person and insect to person
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What are the 5 "F"s of Field Sanitation?
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Fingers
Feces Flies Foods Fluids |
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What is the best protection against disease or biological warfare?
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Immunization and personal hygiene
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What Field Manual covers Unit Field Sanitation Team?
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FM 4-25.12
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What Field Manual covers Field Hygiene and Sanitation?
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FM 21-10
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What is Field Sanitation?
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The use of measures to create and maintain healthful environmental conditions, these include safeguarding food, safeguarding water, and controlling disease bearing insects and rodents.
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What is a vector?
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Any living organism that can carry a disease-producing virus
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What is palatable water?
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Water that is pleasing to the taste, but which may be unsafe
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What are the 5 communicable disease grouped by the Army?
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Respiratory
Intestinal Insect borne Venereal Miscellaneous |
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What are some diseases carried by the fly?
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Typhoid
Cholera Dysentery |
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What 3 rules apply to water discipline in the field?
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Drink only from approved sources
Conserve water Do not contaminate your sources |
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What are the three most common poison plants?
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Poison ivy
Poison oak Poison sumac |
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Where should the latrine be located in relation to the mess hall?
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At least 100 meters downhill or downstream
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What are some of the diseases carried by the mosquito?
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Malaria
Dengue Yellow Fever Encephalitis Filariasis |
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What are some methods for human waste disposal?
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Straddle trench
Mound latrine Burn out latrine Deep pit Bore hole latrines Pail latrines Urine soak pits |
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How far should garbage pits be located away from the mess area?
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30 yards and no closer than 100 ft from any water sources.
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Enough straddle trenches should be dug to accommodate what percentage of the unit at one time?
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8 percent
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Water that is not properly treated can spread what diseases?
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Common diarrhea,
Leptospirosis Cholera Dysentery Bacillary Typhoid Paratyphoid fever |
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What are two ways to purify water?
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Iodine tablets
Boiling |
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Who gives the final approval on whether water is safe to drink?
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Medical personnel
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What AR covers military justice?
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AR 27-10
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Does a person have to accept an article 15?
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No, he or she has the right to demand a trial by court martial
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What kind of extra duty is an NCO given by an article 15?
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Supervisory duty only
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What is the UCMJ?
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Uniform Code of Military Justice (the statute that prescribes criminal law for soldiers)
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How many articles are there in the UCMJ?
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There are 146 Articles in the UCMJ. There are also sub-articles which total 12, nested within the UCMJ such as the following example: Article 106 deals with "Spies", but Article 106a Deals with "Espionage". It would be more accurate to state a total of 158 Articles in the UCMJ (The 146 Articles + 12 Sub-articles = 158)
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When was the UCMJ enacted?
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1950, congress enacted the UCMJ, which was based upon and replaced the Articles of War, which had been around in various forms since 1775
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What is a Field Grade Article 15?
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An article 15 imposed by an O4 or above
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Who may impose an article 15?
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Any commanding officer, including a warrant officer exercising command
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What does the UCMJ establish?
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It declares what conduct is a crime, establishes the various types of courts and sets forth the basic procedures to be followed in the administration of military justice.
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What are the three classifications of article 15s?
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Summarized
Company grade Field grade |
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What form is used to record Summarized Article 15 proceedings?
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DA Form 2627-1
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What are the maximum punishments that company commanders may impose?
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14 Days extra duty
14 Days restriction 7 Days correctional custody (E3 and below) 7 Days forfeiture of pay 1 Grade Reduction for E4 and below Oral or written letter of reprimand |
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Who is the highest military court?
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The court of military appeals.
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Under what article is Non-judicial punishment imposed?
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Article 15
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Who makes up the court of military appeals?
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5 civilian judges as of Oct 1, 1990 and is in Washington D.C.
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What is one circumstance when a soldier does not have the right to refuse an Article 15 and demand trial by court martial?
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When aboard a ship
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What rights are given to a Soldier under Article 31?
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The rights given to a Soldier under Article 31 are: the right to remain silent, the right to demand trial, and the right to an attorney
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What FM covers Drill and Ceremony?
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FM 3-21.5
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What is a review?
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A military ceremony used to:
Honor a visiting, high-ranking commander, official, or dignitary, and or permit them to observe the state of training of a command. Present decorations and awards. Honor or recognize unit or individual achievements. Commemorate events. |
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What are two prescribed formations for platoons?
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line
column |
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What is the primary purpose of drill (drill and ceremony)?
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The purpose of drill is to enable a commander or noncommissioned officer to move his unit from one place to another in an orderly manner; to aid in disciplinary training by instilling habits of precision and response to the leader’s orders; and to provide for the development of all soldiers in the practice of commanding troops.
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What are the 4 rest positions that can be given at the halt?
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Parade rest
Stand at ease At ease Rest |
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What is the primary value of ceremonies?
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To render honors, preserve tradition, and to stimulate Esprit de Corps
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What is a rank?
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A line, which is only one element in depth.
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What foot is your leading foot?
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The left foot.
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What is the only command given from "Inspection Arms"?
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"Ready, Port, Arms"
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What is an element?
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An individual, squad, section, platoon, company or larger unit forming part of the next higher unit
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When marching, who is the only person in a platoon that is never out of step?
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The platoon guide is the person responsible for maintaining the prescribed direction and rate of march.
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What is a file?
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A column, which has a front of only one element
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If you were marching a squad, when would you give the command "squad halt"?
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When either foot strikes the ground
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What is a formation?
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The arrangement of elements of a unit in a prescribed manner
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After weapons have been issued to a unit and all other soldiers have fallen in with their weapons, what is the next command that you should give?
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Inspection Arms
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While passing the colors or while the colors are passing you, when is the hand salute rendered?
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Six paces before and six paces after
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How many steps per minute is quick time?
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120 steps per minute.
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How many steps per minute is double time?
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180 steps per minute
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What command is given to reverse the direction of a march?
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Rear March
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From what position are all stationary movements given?
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position of attention
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On what foot would you give the command "Mark time march"?
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On either foot
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What is cover?
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Aligning yourself directly behind the man to your immediate front, while maintaining correct distance
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How do you measure a "step”?
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Heel to Heel
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What is depth?
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The space from front to rear of a formation including front and rear elements
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What is the interval between the preparatory command and the command of execution?
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1 step or 1 count
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What are the two parts of most drill command?
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Preparatory command
Command of execution |
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How many steps does each rank take when a platoon is given the command of Open Ranks?
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On the command "March", The first rank takes two steps forward, the second rank takes one step forward, the third rank stands fast and the fourth rank take two 15 inch steps to the rear
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What are the 4 types of commands in a drill?
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Two part
Combined Supplementing Directive |
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What position is the unit guidon once a preparatory command is given?
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The raised vertical position
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What are some examples of a combined command?
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At ease
Fall in Rest |
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Define Cadence
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The uniform rhythm in which a movement is executed.
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What is Close Interval?
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The lateral space between soldiers, measured from right to left by the soldier on the right placing the heel of his left hand on his hip, even with the top of the belt line, fingers and thumb joined and extended downward, with his elbow in line with the body and touching the arm of the soldier to his left.
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What command is given to revoke a preparatory command?
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As You Were
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Who is responsible for training and appearance of the color guard?
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The CSM
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What is a Guidon?
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A guidon is a swallow-tailed flag carried by companies, batteries, troops, and certain detachments.
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When executing a Rear March, on which foot do you pivot?
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Both feet, turning 180 degrees to the right
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What are the three methods used to teach Drill?
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Step by step
By the numbers Talk-through method |
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What 4 movements in marching require a 15-inch step?
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Half step
Left step Right step Backward march |
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How many steps should separate platoons when a company is formed?
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5 steps
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What is the only command that can be given from Inspection Arms, when performing drill with the M16?
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Ready, Port Arms
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What is the "Blue Book"?
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A drill manual used by Baron Von Steuben (a former Prussian officer) to train the colonial army. It preceded the FM 3-21.5. It was known as "The regulations for the Order and Discipline of the Troops of the United States". This book was the first Army Field Manual
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Can a command be changed after the command of execution has been given?
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No
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How far in front of the Honor Company or color company do the colors halt?
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10 steps
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What Army Regulation prescribes the policies for completing evaluation reports that support the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)?
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AR 623-3
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What DA Pamphlet prescribes the procedures for completing evaluation reports that support the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS)?
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DA Pam 623-3
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What does the Evaluation Reporting System (ERS) identify?
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The ERS identifies officers and noncommissioned officers who are best qualified for promotion and assignments to positions of higher responsibility. ERS also identifies Soldiers who should be kept on active duty, those who should be retained in grade, and those who should be eliminated.
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What will a rating chain for an NCO consist of?
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Rated NCO
Rater Senior Rater Reviewer |
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What is the purpose of the D.A. Military Awards Program?
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The objective of the DA Military Awards Program is to provide tangible recognition for acts of valor, exceptional service or achievement, special skills or qualifications, and acts of heroism not involving actual combat.
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What is the highest peacetime award for valor?
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The Soldiers Medal
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During peacetime, who is the approving authority for the Soldier's Medal?
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HQDA
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What is an Award?
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A decoration, medal, badge, ribbon, or appurtenance bestowed on an individual or a unit
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What is a decoration?
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An award to an individual for a specific act of gallantry or service
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What is DA Form 7013?
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Certificate of Appreciation
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What is the highest award given by the Army in time of war?
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The Medal of Honor
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What is engraved on the reverse side of the Medal of Honor?
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The grade, name, and organization of the awardee are engraved on the reverse of the Medal of Honor.
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What is engraved on the reverse side of every Decoration or Good Conduct Medal other than the Medal of Honor?
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The name of the awardee only
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How many stars are on the blue silk shield that the Army Medal of Honor is suspended from?
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13
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Who is the approving authority for the Medal of Honor?
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The U.S. Congress
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Who awards the Medal of Honor?
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The President of the United States
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What is the word inscribed on the suspension bar of the Medal of Honor?
|
Valor
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|
Whose profile is on the Medal of Honor?
|
Minerva, the roman goddess of wisdom and righteous war
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|
Name the ribbon awarded to members of the US Army for successful completion of the Basic and AIT?
|
The Army Service Ribbon
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What is the DA Form 2442?
|
Certificate of Achievement
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What is the time limit for recommending an award?
|
Two Years
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How many "V" devices may be worn on a ribbon?
|
Not more than 1
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|
The “V” Device is authorized for wear on what decorations?
|
Distinguished Flying Cross
Bronze Star Medal Air Medal ARCOM Joint Service Commendation Medal |
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How many different weapons are authorized component bars?
|
19
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For what is the Good Conduct Medal given?
|
For exemplary behavior, efficiency, and fidelity
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What three words are inscribed on the front of the Good Conduct Medal?
|
Honor, Efficiency, and Fidelity
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Who is the approving authority for the Good Conduct Medal?
|
The Company Commander
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How often can you get the Good Conduct Medal?
|
Every 3 years
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Who are the final approving authorities for the AAM, ARCOM, MSM, LM and DSM?
|
AAM = Lieutenant Colonel and above
ARCOM = Colonel and above MSM = Major General and above LM = Lieutenant General and above DSM = U.S. Army Chief of Staff |
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Who can make recommendations for an award?
|
Any person having knowledge of an outstanding act or achievement
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To whom is the Purple Heart awarded?
|
To anyone, military or civilian, wounded or killed in action against an armed enemy
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What is the second highest award for valor?
|
The Distinguished Service Cross
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|
What was the first medal awarded in the U.S. Army?
|
The Purple Heart
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What was the Purple Heart initially awarded for?
|
It was awarded for valor in the revolutionary war
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What is a DA Form 4950?
|
Good Conduct Medal Certificate
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|
What decoration has George Washington's picture on it?
|
The Purple Heart
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Who is the approving authority for the Army Achievement Medal?
|
The battalion commander
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What is a DA Form 87?
|
Certificate of Training
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What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the AAM?
|
For Military Achievement
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What words are inscribed on the reverse side of the ARCOM?
|
For Military Merit
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What is a Fourragere?
|
A ropelike device worn to signify the award of a foreign decoration
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When can a unit award be worn?
|
When serving with a unit that received an award or if you were assigned to the unit when the award was assigned
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Name the four Special Skills Tabs.
|
Ranger
Special Forces Presidents Hundred Sapper |
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What Army Regulation covers the wear and appearance of the military uniform?
|
AR 670-1
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Name three appurtenances.
|
Oak leaf clusters
“V” Devices Numerals Clasps Service Stars Arrowhead Berlin Airlift Device Ten-Year Device “M” Device |
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What DA Form is used to recommend /request an award?
|
DA Form 638
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|
What Army Regulation governs Awards and Decorations?
|
AR 600-8-22
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|
What Army Regulation governs Awards and Decorations?
|
AR 600-8-22
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|
When was the Medal of Honor established?
|
1862
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|
Why is the Purple Heart different than all the other decorations?
|
While clearly an individual decoration, the Purple Heart differs from all other decorations in that an individual is not “recommended” for the decoration; rather he or she is entitled to it upon meeting specific criteria.
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|
What are the three U.S. Army Combat Badges?
|
Combat Infantryman Badge (CIB)
Combat Action Badge (CAB) Combat Medical Badge (CMB) |
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|
Can the Combat Action Badge be awarded to members of the other U.S. Armed Forces and foreign Soldiers?
|
Yes, provided they were assigned to a U.S. Army unit and meet the four specific eligibility requirements for the award of the CAB.
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|
When you take the APFT, what is the minimum number of points you must score in each event?
|
60
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|
What FM covers Physical Fitness Training?
|
FM 21-20
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|
What are the three phases of physical conditioning?
|
Preparatory
Conditioning Maintenance |
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|
About how long is the preparatory phase?
|
2 weeks
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|
About how long is the conditioning phase?
|
The conditioning phase ends when a soldier is physically mission-capable and all personal, strength-related goals and unit-fitness goals have been met.
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|
What does FITT stand for?
|
Frequency, Intensity, Time, and Type (this acronym makes it easy to remember the key factors in the training program)
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|
What is Da Form 3349?
|
Physical profile form
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|
What is the objective of physical fitness training?
|
To enhance soldiers’ abilities to meet the physical demands of war.
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|
What are the three periods of a normal daily exercise routine?
|
Warm-up
Conditioning Cool-down |
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|
What AR covers the Army Physical Fitness Program?
|
AR 350-1 Chapter 1 Section 24
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|
Soldiers 55 years of age or older have the option of taking the 3 event APFT or what?
|
The alternate APFT. An alternate APFT is defined as push–ups, sit–ups and an alternate aerobic event (2.5–mile walk, 800–yard swim, or 6.2–mile bicycle ride).
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|
How many scorers should be supplied for the APFT?
|
A minimum of 1 per every 15 soldiers
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|
What is the DA form 705?
|
Physical Readiness Test Scorecard
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|
Name the two physical fitness formations?
|
Extended Rectangular
Circular |
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|
What does FM 6-22 cover?
|
Army Leadership (Competent, Confident and Agile)
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|
What does FM 7-0 cover?
|
Training the force
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|
|
|
Define Leadership.
|
Leadership is influencing people—by providing purpose, direction, and motivation—while operating to accomplish the mission and improving the organization.
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|
What is purpose?
|
Purpose gives subordinates the reason to act in order to achieve a desired outcome.
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|
What is motivation?
|
Motivation supplies the will to do what is necessary to accomplish a mission.
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|
Describe the "Be, Know and Do".
|
Army leadership begins with what the leader must BE, the values and attributes that shape a leader’s character. Your skills are those things you KNOW how to do, your competence in everything from the technical side of your job to the people skills a leader requires. But character and knowledge—while absolutely necessary—are not enough. You cannot be effective, you cannot be a leader, until you apply what you know, until you act and DO what you must.
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|
What are the three principal ways that leaders can develop others through which they provide knowledge and feedback?
|
Counseling
Coaching. Mentoring. |
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|
A leader’s effectiveness is dramatically enhanced by understanding and developing what areas?
|
Military Bearing
Physical Fitness. Confidence Resilience. |
MPCR
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|
|
What is military bearing?
|
Projecting a commanding presence, a professional image of authority.
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|
What is physical fitness?
|
Having sound health, strength, and endurance, which sustain emotional health and conceptual abilities under prolonged stress.
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|
What are the Army Values?
|
Loyalty
Duty Respect Selfless Service Honor Integrity Personal Courage |
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|
Attributes of an Army leader can best be defined as what an Army leader is. What are the attributes of an Army leader?
|
A leader of character
A leader with presence. A leader with intellectual capactiy. |
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|
Why must leaders introduce stress into training?
|
Using scenarios that closely resemble the stresses and effects of the real battlefield is essential to victory and survival in combat.
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|
What is communication?
|
A process of providing information
|
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|
Name the two barriers of communications
|
Physical
Psychological |
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|
Name some physical barriers of communication
|
Noise of battle
Distance |
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|
Name some things in a unit that affect morale
|
Mess
Military justice Supply Billets |
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|
What are Beliefs?
|
Beliefs derive from upbringing, culture, religious backgrounds, and traditions.
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|
What are the three general orders?
|
I will guard everything within the limits of my post and quit my post only when properly relieved.
I will obey my special orders and perform all my duties in a military manner. I will report violations of my special orders, emergencies, and anything not covered in my instructions to the Commander of the Relief. |
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|
What two types of orders can a guard receive?
|
General orders
Special orders |
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|
What is resilience?
|
Showing a tendency to recover quickly from setbacks, shock, injuries, adversity, and stress while maintaining a mission and organizational focus.
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|
What are the three core domains that shape the critical learning experiences throughout Soldiers’ and leaders’ careers?
|
Institutional training.
Training, education, and job experience gained during operational assignments. Self-development. |
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|
What are the Leader Actions?
|
Influencing – getting people (Soldiers, Army civilians, and multinational partners) to do what is necessary.
Operating – the actions taken to influence others to accomplish missions and to set the stage for future operations. Improving – capturing and acting on important lessons of ongoing and completed projects and missions. |
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|
What are the three levels of leadership?
|
Direct
Organizational Strategic |
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|
|
What Field Manual covers counseling?
|
FM 6-22 Appendix B
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|
|
What are the characteristics of effective counseling?
|
Purpose
Flexibility Respect Communication Support |
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|
What are the three approaches to counseling?
|
Directive
Non-directive Combined |
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|
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Directive counseling.
|
Advantages:
Quickest method. Good for people who need clear, concise direction. Allows counselors to actively use their experience Disadvantages: Doesn't encourage subordinates to be part of the solution. Tends to treat symptoms, not problems. Tends to discourage subordinates from talking freely. Solution is the counselor's, not the subordinate's. |
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|
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Non-Directive counseling.
|
Advantages:
Encourages maturity. Encourages open communication. Develops personal responsibility. Disadvantages: More time-consuming Requires greatest counselor skill. |
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|
Explain the advantages and disadvantages of Combined counseling.
|
Advantages:
Moderately quick. Encourages maturity. Encourages open communication. Allows counselors to actively use their experience. Disadvantages: May take too much time for some situations. |
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|
What are the three major categories of developmental counseling?
|
Event counseling
Performance counseling Professional growth counseling |
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|
What are some examples of Event counseling?
|
Instances of superior or substandard performance.
Reception and Integration Counseling. Crisis Counseling Referral Counseling Promotion Counseling Separation Counseling |
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|
What areas would you cover in a reception and integration counseling?
|
Chain of command familiarization..
Organizational standards. Security and safety issues. Noncommissioned officer (NCO) support channel (who is in it and how it is used). On- and off-duty conduct. Personnel/personal affairs/initial and special clothing issue. Organizational history, structure, and mission. Soldier programs within the organization, such as Soldier of the Month/Quarter/Year, and educational and training opportunities. Off limits and danger areas. Functions and locations of support activities. On- and off-post recreational, educational, cultural, and historical opportunities. Foreign nation or host nation orientation. Other areas the individual should be aware of as determined by the leader. |
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|
|
What are the 4 stages of the Counseling Process?
|
Identify the need for counseling.
Prepare for counseling. Conduct counseling. Follow up. |
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|
|
What are the steps required to prepare for counseling?
|
Select a suitable place.
Schedule the time. Notify the subordinate well in advance. Organize information. Outline the counseling session components. Plan the counseling strategy. Establish the right atmosphere. |
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|
A counseling session consists of what 4 basic components?
|
Opening the session.
Discussing the issues. Developing the plan of action. Recording and closing the session. |
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|
|
What is counseling?
|
Counseling is the process used by leaders to review with a subordinate the subordinate’s demonstrated performance and potential.
|
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|
|
How many human needs are there?
|
4 (Physical, Social, Security and Higher (Religious))
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|
|
What is tact?
|
A keen sense of what to do or say in order to maintain good relations with others and to avoid offense
|
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|
|
What is the objective of counseling?
|
For one person to help another
|
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|
|
What are the 7 steps to problem solving?
|
ID the problem
Gather information Develop criteria Generate possible solutions Analyze possible solutions Compare posible solutions Make and implement the decision |
|
|
|
What is communications?
|
Communications is the flow or exchange of information and ideas from one person to another.
|
|
|
|
Faulty communications causes most problems. True or false?
|
True
|
|
|
|
Leaders should seek to develop and improve what three leader counseling skills?
|
Active Listening
Responding Questioning |
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|
|
To insure that they understand the message sent to them, the receiver should send what back to the transmitter?
|
Feedback
|
|
|
|
What are the qualities of an effective counselor?
|
Respect for subordinates
Self-awareness Cultural awareness Empathy Credibility |
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|
|
In communications, your exchange of information has three important parts. What are they?
|
Message
Content Context |
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|
|
Name some good conditions that make for good discipline
|
High performance standards
Loyalty to superiors and subordinates Competitive activities Tough training Open channel of communications |
|
|
|
What course of action should a supervisor take when a subordinate has been performing below his/her usual standards?
|
Counsel about substandard performance.
Attempt to define the problem with the soldier. Afford opportunity and time to solve the problem. Make a written statement of counseling |
there are 4 of them CAAM
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|
|
What are the stresses that influence behavior?
|
Fear
Hunger Illness Anxiety Fatigue |
|
|
|
By neglecting the welfare of your soldiers, you will probably do what?
|
Lose their respect and loyal cooperation
|
|
|
|
What form is used for counseling?
|
DA Form 4856
|
|
|
|
When is the directive approach in counseling most likely to be used?
|
When time is short, when the LEADER knows what to do, when the counseled soldier has limited problem-solving abilities.
|
|
|
|
Is it a requirement that a leader counsel his/her subordinates?
|
Yes. A leader who neglects to counsel his subordinates is negligent in his performance of duty
|
|
|
|
Is performance counseling limited to bad performance?
|
No. Counseling may also be for good performance
|
|
|
|
What are some counseling techniques leaders may explore during the nondirective or combined counseling approaches?
|
Suggesting Alternatives
Recommending Persuading Advising |
|
|
|
What are some techniques leaders may use during the directive approach to counseling?
|
Corrective Training
Commanding |
|
|
|
What does ASAP stand for?
|
Army Substance Abuse Program
|
|
|
|
What is the mission of ASAP?
|
The ASAP’s mission is to strengthen the overall fitness and effectiveness of the Army’s total workforce and to enhance the combat readiness of its Soldiers.
|
|
|
|
What is meant by deglamorization of alcohol?
|
Personnel will not promote any function glamorizing the use of alcohol through drinking contests, games, initiations, or the awarding of alcoholic beverages as prizes in contests.
|
|
|
|
What army Regulation covers ASAP?
|
AR 600-85
|
|
|
|
Is ASAP participation mandatory for Individuals that are command referred?
|
ASAP participation is mandatory for all Soldiers who are command referred. Failure to attend a mandatory counseling session may constitute a violation of Article 86 of the Uniform Code of Military Justice (UCMJ).
|
|
|
|
What will happen to Soldiers who fail to participate in or fail to respond successfully to rehabilitation?
|
Soldiers who fail to participate adequately in, or to respond successfully to, rehabilitation will be processed for administrative separation and not be provided another opportunity for rehabilitation except under the most extraordinary circumstances, as determined by the CD in consultation with the unit commander.
|
|
|
|
What are the ways that Soldiers can be identified as having a substance abuse problem?
|
Voluntary (self-identification)
Commander / Supervisor Identification Biochemical Identification Medical Identification Investigation and or Apprehension |
|
|
|
What are the objectives of rehabilitation with ASAP?
|
Return Soldiers to full duty as soon as possible.
Identify Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated within the scope of this regulation and to advise their unit commanders. Assist and refer Soldiers who cannot be rehabilitated in the ASAP to a treatment facility in the vicinity where they reside after discharge from the Army. Help resolve alcohol and other drug abuse problems in the family, with the ultimate goal of enabling the Soldier to perform more effectively. |
|
|
|
Commanders may direct drug testing under what conditions?
|
Unit inspections. (either the entire or part of a unit)
Search and seizures/probable cause. Competence for Duty. Rehabilitation. Mishap or Safety Inspection. Consent (specimen may be provided voluntarily by a Soldier). New Entrant. Medical. |
|
|
|
All ASAP referrals are accomplished by the Commander or 1SG using what form?
|
Completing and signing the DA 8003 Referral Form.
|
|
|
|
Can Soldiers that are enrolled in an ASAP rehabilitation program reenlist?
|
Soldiers currently enrolled in the ASAP rehabilitation program are not allowed to reenlist. However, Soldiers who need additional service time to complete their enrollment may be extended for the number of months necessary to permit completion.
|
|
|
|
Will Soldiers who are command referred to ASAP be flagged?
|
Yes, IAW AR 600-8-2 (Suspension of Favorable Personnel Action (flags)).
|
|
|
|
What Does ACS stand for?
|
Army Community Service
|
|
|
|
What does the ACS symbol represent?
|
The heart= giving, the cross= help, the gyroscope= stability
|
|
|
|
What is the ACS mission statement?
|
Facilitate commander’s ability to provide comprehensive, coordinated, and responsive services that support readiness of soldiers, civilian employees and their families.
Maximize technology and resources, adapt to unique installation requirements, eliminate duplication in service delivery, and measure service effectiveness. |
|
|
|
What Army regulation covers ACS?
|
AR 608-1
|
|
|
|
How is ACS staffed for the most part?
|
By volunteers
|
|
|
|
What is the motto of the ACS?
|
Self-help, service and stability.
|
|
|
|
Who qualifies for ACS?
|
All active duty and retired military personnel and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services.
Members of the Army National Guard and U.S. Army Reserve when on active duty and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services. Army appropriated fund (APF) and nonappropriated fund (NAF) employees and their family members, if otherwise eligible for services. Family members of prisoners of war or personnel missing in action, if otherwise eligible for services. Surviving family members of military personnel who died while on active duty, if otherwise eligible for services. |
|
|
|
What can you do to help out ACS?
|
Donate Staple foodstuff to the food lockers, useable household goods, and volunteer your time.
|
|
|
|
What regulation covers the ACES?
|
AR 621-5
|
|
|
|
What regulation covers Army Learning Centers?
|
AR 621-6
|
|
|
|
What are the goals of ACES?
|
Develop confident, competent leaders.
Support the enlistment, retention, and transition of soldiers. Provide self-development opportunities for soldiers and adult family members. Provide self-development opportunities for DACs. Provide self-development opportunities for DAC ACES professional and support staff. |
|
|
|
What does TABE stand for?
|
Test of Adult Basic Education
|
|
|
|
How much of your tuition does the tuition assistance grant pay?
|
100%
|
|
|
|
Name some federal financial aid programs available to Soldiers through ACES
|
Pell Grant
Perkins Loans Guaranteed Student Loans |
|
|
|
What are some of the basic services offered by the Army Continuing Education Center?
|
Basic Skills Education Program (BSEP)
Advanced Skills Education Program (ASEP) High School Completion Program Servicemembers Opportunity Colleges (SOCAD) Veteran's Educational Assistance Program (VEAP)/Montgomery G. I. Bill (MGIB) Skill Recognition Programs Command Language Programs (Head start - Gateway) Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support (DANTES) Education Counseling Services Learning Resource Centers |
|
|
|
What Soldier development programs does ACES provide?
|
Functional Academic Skills Training (FAST).
High School Completion Program. English-as-a-Second Language (ESL) Mission-related Language (Head start and Gateway). Mission-required Language. MOS Improvement Training (MOSIT). |
|
|
|
What does DANTES stand for?
|
Defense Activity for Non-Traditional Education Support
|
|
|
|
What does DANTES do?
|
DANTES provides standardized testing services free to military personnel. Family members and civilians may take DANTES tests but must pay for each test taken.
|
|
|
|
Soldiers with a GT score of less than 110 should be referred to what?
|
BSEP - Soldiers with a GT less than 100 are normally automatically eligible. Soldiers with a GT between 100 and 110 may be command referred.
|
|
|
|
Soldiers who begin their active service after what date are eligible to receive the new GI Bill?
|
July 1985, but they are required to pay $100 per month for the first 12 months
|
|
|
|
What does SOC stand for?
|
Service members Opportunity Colleges
|
|
|
|
What does SOCAD stand for?
|
Service members Opportunity College Army Degrees
|
|
|
|
AER closely coordinates with what other organization?
|
American Red Cross
|
|
|
|
What is AER?
|
AER is a private, nonprofit organization to collect and hold funds to relieve distress of members of the Army and their dependents. AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and their families in time of distress.
|
|
|
|
What does AER stand for?
|
Army Emergency Relief
|
|
|
|
What is the Army Regulation that covers AER?
|
AR 930-4
|
|
|
|
Who does AER help?
|
Soldiers on extended active duty and their dependents.
Members of the Reserve Components of the Army (Army National Guard and U.S. Army Reserve) on continuous active duty for more than 30 days and their dependents. (This applies to soldiers on AD for training (ADT) or serving under various sections of title 10, United States Code). Soldiers retired from active duty because of longevity or physical disability, or retired upon reaching age 60 (Reserve Components) and their dependents. Widows (ers) and orphans of soldiers who died while on active duty or after they retired. |
|
|
|
How are monetary contributions made to AER?
|
Cash, check or allotment
|
|
|
|
When is the AER annual fund campaign held army-wide?
|
March 01 through May 15
|
|
|
|
How does AER provide financial assistance?
|
AER provides financial assistance by either a loan without interest, a grant or a combination of both
|
|
|
|
What is the purpose of AER?
|
AER provides emergency financial assistance to soldiers (active and retired) and their families in time of distress.
|
|
|
|
What is the dollar limit on AER loans?
|
There is no dollar limit. AER Assistance will meet your emergency need.
|
|
|
|
Failure to repay an AER loan (unless repayment would cause undo hardship) will cause the Soldier’s name to be placed on an AER restricted list which is disseminated Army-wide. What does this mean for the Soldier?
|
Individuals who appear on this list will not be approved for AER assistance without the specific prior approval of HQ AER.
|
|
|
|
What is the AER Motto?
|
"Helping the Army Take Care Of its Own"
|
|
|
|
The minimum amount that can be contributed to AER through allotment is what amount?
|
1 dollar each month for 3 months
|
|
|
|
How is AER funded?
|
Through Voluntary Contributions from Soldiers (tax free), through unsolicited contributions, repayments of loans, and income from investments.
|
|
|
|
What is the purpose of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
|
The Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program reinforces the Army’s commitment to eliminate incidents of sexual assault through a comprehensive policy that centers on awareness and prevention, training and education, victim advocacy, response, reporting, and accountability.
|
|
|
|
The Army's policy on Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program applies where and when?
|
Both on and off post and during duty and non-duty hours.
To working, living, and recreational environments (including both on- and off-post housing). |
|
|
|
What are the goals of the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program?
|
Create a climate that minimizes sexual assault incidents, which impact Army personnel, Army civilians, and family members, and, if an incident should occur, ensure that victims and subjects are treated according to Army policy.
Create a climate that encourages victims to report incidents of sexual assault without fear. Establish sexual assault prevention training and awareness programs to educate Soldiers. Ensure sensitive and comprehensive treatment to restore victims’ health and well-being. Ensure leaders understand their roles and responsibilities regarding response to sexual assault victims, thoroughly investigate allegations of sexual assault, and take appropriate administrative and disciplinary action. |
|
|
|
Define sexual assault.
|
Sexual assault is a crime defined as intentional sexual contact, characterized by use of force, physical threat or abuse of authority or when the victim does not or cannot consent.
|
|
|
|
Sexual assault includes what acts?
|
Rape
Nonconsensual Sodomy (oral or anal sex) Indecent Assault (unwanted, inappropriate sexual contact or fondling) Attempts to commit these acts |
|
|
|
More than half of sexual assault offenses include what?
|
Alcohol
|
|
|
|
Prevention of sexual harassment is whose responsibility?
|
The Commander’s Responsibility
|
|
|
|
Define the following terms as they apply to the Army Sexual Assault Prevention and Response Program: victim, alleged perpetrator, and perpetrator.
|
Victim - One who has been sexually assaulted.
Alleged Perpetrator - One who has been accused of committing a crime (subject). Perpetrator - One who has committed a crime (offender). |
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If someone has been sexually assaulted, to whom may they report the crime?
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Their chain of command.
Medical Treatment Facility. Military Police/Criminal Investigation Division. Chaplains. Social Work Services. Family Advocacy. Legal Services. |
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Army Regulation 27-10 outlines the rights of crime victims, what are they?
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The right to be treated with fairness, dignity, and a respect for privacy
The right to be protected from the accused offender The right to be notified of court proceedings The right to be present at all public court proceedings related to the assault unless the court determines that testimony by the victim would be materially affected if the victim heard other testimony at trial, or for other good cause The right to talk to the attorney for the Government in the case The right to seek restitution, if appropriate The right to information regarding conviction, sentencing, imprisonment, and release of the offender from custody. |
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What are the categories of sexual harassment and give some examples?
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Verbal
Non-verbal Physical Contact |
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What does EO stand for?
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Equal Opportunity
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What is an EOR?
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Equal Opportunity Representative
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What rank should an EOR normally be?
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SGT (P) through 1LT
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What are some of the special commemorations / ethnic observances listed in AR 600-20?
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Martin Luther King Jr. Birthday
African-American/Black History Month Women's History Month Asian Pacific Heritage Month Women's Equality Day Hispanic Heritage Month National Native American Indian Heritage Month |
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What Army Regulation covers the EO program?
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AR 600-20 chapter 6
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What are the goals of the EO program?
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Provide EO for military personnel and family members, both on and off post and within the limits of the laws of localities, states, and host nations.
Create and sustain effective units by eliminating discriminatory behaviors or practices that undermine teamwork, mutual respect, loyalty, and shared sacrifice of the men and women of America’s Army. |
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What are the three policies each commander is required to publish and post on equal opportunity?
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Written command policy statements for EO
Prevention of Sexual Harassment Equal Opportunity Complaint Procedures |
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Soldiers are required to have how many periods of EO training per year?
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4 (1 each quarter)
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Define the term ethnic group.
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A segment of the population that possesses common characteristics and a cultural heritage based to some degree on: faith or faiths; shared traditions, values or symbols; literature, folklore, or music; an internal sense of distinctiveness; and/or an external perception of distinctiveness.
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Define the term racism.
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Any attitude or action of a person or institutional structure that subordinates a person or group because of skin color or race.
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Describe minority group
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Any group distinguished from the general population in terms of race, religion, color, gender, or national origin.
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What is sexual harassment?
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1. Sexual harassment is a form of gender discrimination that involves unwelcomed sexual advances, requests for sexual favors, and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature between the same or opposite genders.
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What is an Affirmative Actions Plan (AAP)?
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A management document that consists of statements of attainable goals and timetables. This document is required of all Army organizations, commands, agencies, and activities down to brigade (or equivalent) level. It is designed to achieve EO for all military personnel.
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What action does the Army take against off-post activities, including housing and public accommodations, which arbitrarily discriminate against members of the Army and their dependents?
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Off limits or off limits sanctions may be applied.
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Who is the primary source for solving EO complaints?
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Your Unit Chain of Command
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What is the Army's written policy on EO?
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The U.S. Army will provide EO and fair treatment for military personnel and family members without regard to race, color, gender, religion, national origin, and provide an environment free of unlawful discrimination and offensive behavior.
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What is the primary channel for correcting discriminatory practices and for communications on equal opportunity matters?
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Chain of Command
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Does every unit have an EO representative?
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Yes, each Commander is required to appoint an EOR in the rank of SGT (P) through 1LT.
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What does AFAP stand for?
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Army Family Action Plan
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What Army Regulation covers the Army Family Action Plan?
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AR 608-47
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When was the AFAP program established?
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The AFAP program was established in 1983 as a result of the Chief of Staff, Army (CSA), 1983 White Paper, “The Army Family.”
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The AFAP program creates an information loop between whom?
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The Global Army Family and Leadership. The AFAP provides a means for Army constituents to address and report issues of well-being concern to leadership at regular intervals.
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The AFAP program’s process of improvement begins where?
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At the local level, where an annual symposium is held to examine issues of concern that delegates believe need to be fixed.
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The Army family has been symbolized by the Secretary of the Army as an equilateral triangle. How is each side of the triangle expressed?
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Base: "Family of Components" (Total Force)
Second Leg: "Family of Units" Third Leg: "Family of People" |
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What does the diamond in the first sergeant rank represent?
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The lozenge or diamond used to indicate first sergeant is a mark of distinction and was used in heraldry to indicate achievement.
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What does Army Family Action Plan (AFAP) do?
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AFAP is an Army-wide program to improve Army quality of life. Through AFAP, all members of the Army have a forum to voice concerns to Army leadership and make recommendations for change.
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What types of programs are focused on in the "Family of Components"?
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Programs relating to the Active Army, National Guard, Army Reserve and civilian employees
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What type of programs are focused on in the "Family of Units"?
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Programs relating to the unique relationship of soldiers to their units and unit ties to other components of the command, such as squad to its platoon or the platoon to its company (battery)
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What is the basis for the Army theme, " The Army family"?
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A joint announcement signed by the Secretary and the Chief of Staff of the Army. This announcement was based on the C/S white paper 1983
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What types of programs are focused on in the Family of People?
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Programs relating to all areas of concern to the service members and their families, including the military and civilian retiree
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What are some activities that the American Red Cross offers?
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CPR instruction, Blood drives, Swimming lessons, Communication services (by wire), Financial assistance, Counseling and referral services, Transplantation services, AIDS education, Health and safety services.
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How is the ARC staffed for the most part?
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By volunteers
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What is the major service that Red Cross offers?
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Communication between soldiers and their families for both problem solving and emergency (especially the notification or "red cross message")
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What Army Regulation covers Red Cross?
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AR 930-5
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What Army Regulation covers the Army Retention Program?
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AR 601-280
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What are some reasons that a soldier may be ineligible for reenlistment?
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If the soldier is barred or flagged and if the soldier is enrolled in ASAP
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What is an SRB?
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Selective Reenlistment Bonus
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What is the minimum number of years that a soldier must reenlist for to be eligible for an SRB?
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Three years
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Can a Soldier request separation if a bar to reenlistment is imposed?
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No
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Describe a Bar to Reenlistment.
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Administrative action initiated by the commander to prevent a substandard soldier from reenlisting or reentering the service
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A Bar to Reenlistment is reviewed how often?
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Every three months or 30 days prior to PCS / ETS
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Who can initiate a Bar to Reenlistment?
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Any commander in the soldier’s chain of command
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Who is the final approving authority for a Bar to Reenlistment?
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A Commander who is one approval level higher than the commanding authority
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Soldiers SGM and below who have not reenlisted under the indefinite reenlistment program are required to receive Retention Interviews. When are they done?
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Career Counselor: 30 days from arrival to unit
Unit Commander 90 days from arrival Unit Commander 15-16 months prior to ETS Career Counselor 13-14 months prior to ETS Career Counselor 4 months prior to ETS Reserve Component Career counselor 90-120 days prior to ETS |
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Who may lift a Bar?
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The same authority that approved the Bar may lift it with a written recommendation by the unit Commander
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What type of fire extinguisher must not be used on electrical fires?
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A water fire Extinguisher
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Who is responsible for the Army Safety Program?
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It is the responsibility of each soldier
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The word SAFETY is often associated with what term?
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Risk Management
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What accounts for the majority of accidents?
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Carelessness
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Accidents are reported in accordance with what regulation?
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AR 385-40
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Name 3 safety features commonly found in any barracks.
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Lights in stairwells
Fire lights (emergency lighting) Fire extinguisher and alarms Arms room safety procedures First aid kits CQ Safety posters Handrails Storage of dangerous tools and chemicals |
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What safety features are stressed in the motor pool?
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Reduced speed, no smoking except in designated areas, fire extinguishers in buildings and vehicles, proper utilization of tool safety equipment (goggles, safety toe shoes, etc.)
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How often are fire extinguishers in the barracks required to be checked for serviceability, and how can this be determined?
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Once a month, a tag on the fire extinguisher indicating the date and initials of authorized unit safety personnel
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What AR covers safety?
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AR 385-10
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Where on post can you find out how many privately owned vehicle accidents that were fatal have occurred this year?
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A sign in the vicinity of the outbound gate on post
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Should there be a sponsorship program for a soldier departing a unit?
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yes
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What Army Regulation covers the Total Army Sponsorship Program?
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AR 600-8-8
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What is S-Gate?
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S-Gate provides information for incoming soldiers entering the USAREUR Theater of command.
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What DA Form is used to transmit sponsorship requirements to gaining commands?
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DA Form 5434 or the Electronically Generated DA Form 5434-E
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How soon after the DA Form 5434 is received should a sponsor be assigned?
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10 days unless the sponsorship is declined
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What are the general rules for appointing a sponsor?
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The Soldier should be in a grade equal to or higher ranking than the incoming soldier. The sponsor should be the same sex (gender) as the sponsor. The sponsor should be familiar with the unit or activity and community
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What are the six elements of the sponsorship program?
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DA Form 5434.
Welcome letter. ACS Relocation Readiness Services. Reception. Orientation. Inprocessing. |
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The primary goal of the Army's QOLP (Quality of Life Program) is to promote the development of military group commitment and cohesiveness, is essential to what?
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Readiness (combat effectiveness).
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What are some examples of the QOLP?
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ACS / AER / ARC / EO
Postal services PX / commissary privileges AFN radio and television MWR, education services Community sports programs Recreational facilities Banking services Clubs Gyms (physical fitness centers) |
every single army program!
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What does QOLP stand for?
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Quality Of Life Program
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The Army's Quality of Life program is dedicated to the precept that the Army's number one operational resource must be taken care of. What is this resource?
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The soldier
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Quality of Life needs and the programs and actions to address them, are categorized under two general headings. What are they?
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Living conditions
Duty environment. |
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Who is the senior enlisted advisor to the BOSS council, and approves members selected to serve on BOSS committees?
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The Installation Command Sergeant Major
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According to AR 215-1, what does the BOSS program provide?
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It provides opportunities for active duty soldiers, with an emphasis on single and unaccompanied soldiers, to participate in physical, self-development, leisure, and educational related services.
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What type of program is BOSS?
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BOSS is categorized as a category B Morale, Welfare, and Recreation (MWR) program.
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How many officers are on the BOSS council?
|
Three: President, Vice-President, and Secretary and Treasurer
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What is the lowest level unit that has a BOSS council representative?
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The battery/company level
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What are the 3 pillars of BOSS?
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Recreation and Leisure
Community Service Well Being |
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What is CHAMPUS?
|
Civilian Health And Medical Program for the Uniformed Services. It is a cost-sharing program that is used to provide in-patient and outpatient care for dependants from civilian sources.
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What Army regulation covers CHAMPUS?
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AR 40-121
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Who is Eligible for CHAMPUS?
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Family members of active duty military personnel, Family members of either deceased or retired personnel, and retired military personnel and their family members under the age of 65
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What Does DEERS stand for?
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Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System
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What is DEERS used for?
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To obtain dependent ID cards for eligible spouse and children
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What does NCODP stand for?
|
Noncommissioned Officer Development Program
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What is the goal of NCODP?
|
The goal of the NCODP is to increase and sustain NCO combat readiness and compliment the overarching Army Noncommissioned Officer Professional Development Program.
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As with all leader training and leader development, who is responsible for NCODP?
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The command.
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NCODP is typically managed by whom?
|
The command.
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NCODP is typically managed by whom?
|
The CSM or Senior NCO in the organization.
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|
What are some objectives of NCODP?
|
Develop and strengthen the skills, knowledge, and abilities to train, deploy, and lead soldiers in combat through battle focused training.
Develop NCOs who are self–aware, adaptive, competent, and confident. Realize the full potential of the NCO support channel. Foster a unit environment that enhances continued NCO leader development and encourages self–development as part of a lifelong learning process. |
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What Army Regulation covers NCODP?
|
AR 350-1 Chap 4
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What is the purpose of AR 350-1?
|
Army training and leader development.
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|
What is the M2 .50 Cal machine gun used for?
|
Defend against low-flying hostile aircraft, support the infantryman in both attack and defense, destroy lightly armored vehicles, provide protection for motor movements, vehicle parks and train bivouacs, and reconnaissance by fire on suspected enemy positions
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What is the importance of correct headspace adjustment on the .50 Cal machine gun?
|
Incorrect headspace adjustment can cause a malfunction of the gun and lead to sluggish operation or failure to function freely.
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|
What is the maximum range of the .50 Cal?
|
6,764 meters
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|
What is the muzzle velocity of the .50 Cal?
|
3,050 ft per sec
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What is the maximum effective range of the .50 Cal against point and area targets?
|
Point targets Single shot- 1,500 meters
Area shot- 1,830 meters |
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To control the rate of fire on the M2, the gunner may use what methods of fire?
|
Single shot
Slow Rapid Cyclic |
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Describe the Single Shot method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Place the gun in the single-shot mode and engage the target with aimed shots. The machine gun is accurate out to 1,500 meters.
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Describe the Slow method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Slow fire consists of less than 40 rounds per minute, in bursts of five to seven rounds, fired at 10- to 15-second intervals.
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Describe the Rapid method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Rapid fire consists of more than 40 rounds per minute, fired in bursts of five to seven rounds, at 5- to 10-second intervals.
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Describe the Cyclic method of fire on the M2 .50 Cal.
|
Cyclic fire is when the weapon fires 450 to 550 rounds per minute.
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What is the cyclic rate of fire of the M2 .50 Cal?
|
450-550 rounds a minute
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What type of front sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
|
A semi-fixed blade type with cover
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What type of rear sight does the M2 .50 Cal have?
|
A leaf type rear sight graduated in both yards and mils
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What are the common malfunctions of the M2 .50 Cal?
|
Failure to function freely
Uncontrolled automatic fire |
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What are the common stoppages of the M2 .50 Cal?
|
Failure to feed
Chamber Lock Fire Unlock Extract Eject Cock |
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|
If you turn the M203 windage screw one increment, how far does that move the strike of the round at 200 meters?
|
1 and 1/2 meters
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|
What is the maximum range of the M203?
|
About 400 meters
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|
What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a fire team sized area target?
|
350 meters
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What is the maximum effective range of the M203 against a vehicle or weapon point target?
|
150 meters
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|
What is the minimum arming range of the 40 mm round fired from the M203?
|
14 to 38 meters
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|
What is the rate of fire of the M203?
|
5 to 7 rounds per minute
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What Field Manual covers the M203?
|
FM 3-22.31
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|
What is the casualty radius of a M203 40 mm HE round?
|
5 meters
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|
What are the 4 fundamentals of M203 marksmanship?
|
Steady Position
Aiming Breathing Trigger Control |
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|
The M203 uses several fixed type, low velocity 40 mm rounds. Name some of the common types of rounds used.
|
M433 – High Explosive Dual Purpose
M406 – High Explosive M83A1 (white), M661 (Green), M662 (Red) – Star Parachute M585 – White Star Cluster M713 (Red Smoke), M715 (Green Smoke), M716 (Yellow Smoke) – Ground Marker M781 – Practice M651 – Tactical CS Buckshot |
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What are the two common malfunctions of the M203?
|
Failure to cock
Failure to lock |
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What are the five common stoppages of the M203?
|
Failure to fire
Failure to extract Failure to eject Failure to chamber Safety Fails to stay in position |
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What are the two types of sights on the M203?
|
Leaf
Quadrant |
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|
Describe the M203.
|
The M203 grenade launcher is a lightweight, single-shot, breech-loaded, pump action (sliding barrel), shoulder-fired weapon that is attached to an M16 rifle series, or the M4 carbine series with the M203A1, and M4 carbine series with the rail system.
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At what range do you zero the M203?
|
200 meters
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How long should you wait before opening the breach to unload the weapon if you happen to have a misfire with the M203?
|
30 seconds
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|
What Field Manual covers the M240B?
|
FM 3-22.68 Chapter 3
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|
Describe the M240B.
|
The M240B is a belt-fed, air-cooled, gas-operated, fully automatic machine gun that fires from the open bolt position.
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|
What is the sustained rate of fire for the M240B?
|
100 Rounds per minute fired in 6 to 9 round bursts and 4 to 5 seconds between bursts. Barrel change every 10 minutes.
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What is the rapid rate of fire for the M240B?
|
200 Rounds per minute fired in 10 to 13 round bursts and 2 to 3 seconds between bursts. Barrel change every 2 minutes.
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|
What is the cyclic rate of fire for the M240B?
|
650 to 950 Rounds per minute fired in continuous bursts. Barrel change every minute.
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|
What is the maximum range of the M240B?
|
3725 meters
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|
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B with tripod and T&E?
|
1100 meters
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|
What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for an area target?
|
Tripod – 1,100 meters
Bipod – 800 meters |
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What is the maximum effective range of the M240B for a point target?
|
Tripod – 800 meters
Bipod – 600 meters |
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|
What is the length of the M240B?
|
49 inches
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|
What is the maximum tracer burnout for the M240B?
|
900 meters
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|
What are the proper procedures for performing a function check on the M240B?
|
Places the safety on “F.”
Pulls the cocking handle to the rear, locking the bolt to the rear of the receiver. Returns the cocking handle to the forward position. Places the safety on “S,” and closes the cover. Pulls the trigger. (Bolt should not go forward). Places the safety on “F.” Pulls the cocking handle to the rear, pulls the trigger, and rides the bolt forward. Closes the ejection port cover. |
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|
What is the maximum range of the M249 (SAW)?
|
3,600 meters
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|
What is the maximum effective range of the M249 with tripod and T+E?
|
1,000 meters
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|
What is the maximum range of the M249 against an area target for both tripod and bipod?
|
Tripod – 1,000 meters
Bipod – 800 meters |
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|
What is the maximum range of the M249 against a point target for both tripod and bipod?
|
Tripod – 800 meters
Bipod – 600 meters |
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|
What does S.A.W. stand for?
|
Squad Automatic Weapon
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|
What is the weight of the M249?
|
16.41 pounds
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|
What is the basic load of ammunition for the M249?
|
1,000 rounds (in 200 round drums)
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|
Describe the M249.
|
The M249 machine gun is a gas-operated, air-cooled, belt or magazine-fed, automatic weapon that fires from the open-bolt position.
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|
What FM covers the M249?
|
FM 3-22.68
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|
What are the rates of fire for the M249?
|
Sustained rate is 100 rounds per minute
Rapid rate is 200 rounds per minute Cyclic rate is 650 to 850 rounds per minute |
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|
The M249 is loaded, fired, unloaded and cleared from what bolt position?
|
The open bolt position
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|
What are the steps to the cycle of functioning for the M249?
|
Feeding
Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extracting Cocking |
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|
Name 3 assault firing positions used with the M249
|
Shoulder
Hip Underarm |
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|
What are two unique features of the M249?
|
It has a regulator to change the rate of fire, and it is fed by M16 magazines as well as belt fed
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|
What are the 5 "F"s of Field Sanitation?
|
Fingers
Feces Flies Foods Fluids |
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|
What is the FM concerning the M4 Rifle?
|
FM 3-22.9
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|
What is the first thing you should do when you handle a weapon?
|
Make sure you clear it
|
|
|
|
Name the five phases in Basic Rifle Marksmanship.
|
Preliminary Rifle Instruction
Downrange Feedback Field Fire Advanced Rifle Marksmanship Advanced Optics, Laser and Iron Sights |
|
|
|
What is the purpose of a weaponeer?
|
The weaponeer is capable of simulating all of the BRM live fire scenarios without firing rounds. Immediate feedback is available for critiquing the soldier's application of the integrated act of firing while using the weaponeer device to include misfire procedures.
|
|
|
|
What are the four fundamentals of marksmanship?
|
Steady Position
Proper Aim (Sight Picture) Breathing Trigger Squeeze |
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|
|
During Preliminary Marksmanship Training (PMI), what are the only two positions taught?
|
Individual Foxhole supported
Basic Prone unsupported |
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|
|
What are the two basic elements of the Sight Picture?
|
Sight Alignment
Placing of the Aiming Point |
|
|
|
What does the Acronym SPORTS stand for?
|
Slap, Pull, Observe, Release, Tap and Shoot
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|
|
|
What is remedial action?
|
Remedial action is the continuing effort to determine the cause for a stoppage or malfunction and to try to clear the stoppage once it has been identified.
|
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|
Describe the proper procedures for applying remedial action with the M4.
|
Try to place the weapon on safe
Remove the magazine Lock the bolt to the rear Place the weapon on safe if not already done |
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|
Describe the proper procedure for applying immediate action with the M4.
|
Slaps gently upward on the magazine to ensure it is fully seated, and the magazine follower is not jammed.
Pulls the charging handle fully to the rear. Observes for the ejection of a live round or expended cartridge. (If the weapon fails to eject a cartridge, perform remedial action.) Releases the charging handle (do not ride it forward). Taps the forward assist assembly to ensure bolt closure. Squeezes the trigger and tries to fire the rifle. |
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|
Is SPORTS an Immediate or Remedial Action?
|
Immediate action
|
|
|
|
What is immediate action?
|
Immediate action involves quickly applying a possible correction to reduce a stoppage without performing troubleshooting procedures to determine the actual cause.(SPORTS)
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How many times should immediate action be applied to a weapon?
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Once. (If Rifle still fails to fire, apply remedial action)
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What is a malfunction?
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The weapon ceasing to fire due to a stoppage resulting from mechanical failure of the weapon, magazine or ammo.
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Name the different categories of malfunctions for the M4 Rifle.
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Failure to feed, chamber or lock
Failure to fire cartridge Failure to Extract Failure to Eject |
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What is stoppage?
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A stoppage is a failure of an automatic or semiautomatic firearm to complete the cycle of operation.
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How do you clear a stoppage?
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Apply immediate or remedial action
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What is the definition of Maximum Effective Range?
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The greatest distance at which a soldier may be expected to deliver a target
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What does CLP stand for?
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Cleaner
Lubricant Preservative |
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Describe the M4 Rifle.
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A 5.56 mm, magazine fed, gas-operated, air-cooled, semiautomatic or three-round burst, hand-held, shoulder-fired weapon.
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Describe the max effective rates of fire for the M4 Rifle.
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Semiautomatic - 45 rounds per minute
Burst - 90 rounds per minute Sustained - 12-15 rounds per minute |
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What is the muzzle velocity of the M4 Rifle?
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2,970 feet per second
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Describe the ranges for the M4 Rifle.
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Maximum Range - 3,600 meters
Max Effective Range for a Point Target - 500 meters Max Effective Range for an Area Target - 600 meters |
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What is the basic load of ammunition for the M4?
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210 Rounds total. (7 magazines with 30 rounds in each)
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The elevation knob adjusts the point of aim for the M4 Rifle how much?
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300 to 600 meters
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What is the overall length of the M4 Rifle?
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Buttstock Closed - 29.75 inches
Buttstock Open - 33.00 inches |
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What are the four positions for the buttstock of the M4 Rifle?
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Closed
1/2 Open 3/4 Open Full Open |
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What are the 8 steps in the functioning of the M4 rifle?
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Feeding
Chambering Locking Firing Unlocking Extracting Ejecting Cocking |
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What part of the M4 Rail Adapter System may be removed to perform PMCS?
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Only the Lower Assembly
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