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100 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What three sources give supervisors a starting point for determining whether their currentmishap prevention program is adequate?

a. AF Form 55, Material Data Safety Sheets (MSDS), and self-inspection checklist.


b. AF Form 2420, AF Form 55, and self inspection checklist.


c. AF Form 797, AF Form 623a, and AF Form 55.


d. AF Form 623A, AF Form 55, and material safety data sheet (MSDS).

a. AF Form 55, Material Data Safety Sheets (MSDS), and self-inspection checklist.
When will you receive additional training in Air Force hazardous communications safetyprogram (AFHCP) specific hazards?

a. Annually.


b. Bi-annually.


c. Semi-annually.


d. Upon initial assignment and before exposure to hazardous materials.

d. Upon initial assignment and before exposure to hazardous materials.
What is your first responsibility when receiving a new or updated material safety data sheet(MSDS)?

a. Study it to determine how it affects your operations.


b. Log the MSDS in the safety book.


c. Remove the hazard from service.


d. File it with the other MSDS.

a. Study it to determine how it affects your operations.

What is the most common type of Air Force mishap?


a. Ground.


b. Aircraft.


c. Chemical.


d. Environmental.

a. Ground.

A timely mishap investigation relies on


a. prompt notification.


b. mishap witnesses.


c. corrective action.


d. safety standards.

a. prompt notification.

Air Force mishaps that result in total destruction or damage beyond economical repair to anAir Force aircraft are considered Class


a. A.


b. B.


c. C.


d. D.

a. A.

What mishap classification is assigned if an employee is injured and misses at least 8 hoursof work?


a. Class A.


b. Class B.


c. Class C.


d. Class D.

c. Class C.

When must the preliminary report be initiated for class A and B off-duty ground mishaps?


a. after the 2nd duty day.


b. after the 3rd duty day.


c. within 10 duty days after.


d. within 30 duty days after.

a. after the 2nd duty day.

What AF Form do you log Class C off-duty ground mishaps on?


a. 738.


b. 739.


c. 1057.


d. 1058.

c. 1057.

What are the two types of safety boards that occur when dealing with an aircraft mishap?


a. SIB and accident investigation board (AIB).


b. PSB and the safety investigation board (SIB).


c. Pre-safety board (PSB) and the interim safety board (ISB).


d. Interim safety board (ISB) and the safety investigation board (SIB).

d. Interim safety board (ISB) and the safety investigation board (SIB).

Who serves as the liaison between local medical authorities or coroners and militaryinvestigators during an interim safety board (ISB)?

a. ISB investigating officer (IO).


b. ISB maintenance member.


c. ISB medical member.


d. ISB recorder.

c. ISB medical member.
Who works directly for the board president and is charged with generally facilitating theproceedings of the entire board?

a. Pilot member.


b. Maintenance member.


c. Commander’s representative.


d. Air Force safety center representative.

d. Air Force safety center representative

What are the four elements of the base disaster response force (DRF)?


a. Command post, control centers, disaster control group, and specialized elements.


b. Command post, control centers, disaster control group, and security forces elements.


c. Security forces chief, control centers, disaster control group, and specialized elements.


d. Command post, security forces chief, disaster control group, and specialized elements.

a. Command post, control centers, disaster control group, and specialized elements.

Physiological mishaps should be filed as what Class of mishap?


a. A.


b. B.


c. D.


d. E.

d. E.

Weapons safety training is conducted by the


a. aircrew flight equipment shop supervisor.


b. base or unit ground safety officer or NCO.


c. base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO.


d. personnel in the maintenance training division.

c. base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO.

Weapon safety training is required

a. annually.


b. before you perform explosive related maintenance.


c. anytime you are assigned to a new weapons system.


d. initially, before you perform explosive related maintenance, and then annually.

d. initially, before you perform explosive related maintenance, and then annually.

If there is no major command (MAJCOM) weapons safety training plan available, who isresponsible for developing a local plan?


a. You or the personnel in your section.


b. The base or unit ground safety officer or NCO.


c. The base or unit weapons safety officer or NCO.


d. The personnel in the maintenance training division.

a. You or the personnel in your section.

You are developing local written procedures for an explosive safety training program. To dothis properly, you need not include the


a. actions to be taken during emergencies.


b. references to standard publications.


c. explosive and personnel limits.


d. step-by-step procedures.

b. references to standard publications.

To perform a periodic inspection of an explosive operation properly, you would


a. not limit your inspection to one area.


b. limit your inspection to one specific area.


c. time the inspection to coincide with the wing safety inspection.


d. request assistance from someone outside of your area for a more honest evaluation.

a. not limit your inspection to one area.

When may an explosives-laden vehicle be loaded and unloaded while the engine is running?


a. Never.


b. If it has been chocked and is on level pavement.


c. Only when the vehicle has spark arrestors installed on it.


d. When the engine is required to provide power for support equipment used to load and/orunload explosives.

a. Never.

When you transport explosives on base, you would establish a


a. primary and alternate route.


b. route that has no variations in grade.


c. daytime route and a nighttime route.


d. route that goes straight to the aircrew flight equipment shop

a. primary and alternate route.

Aircrew flight equipment explosives must be carried in


a. shipping containers.


b. protective containers.


c. a properly marked box.


d. explosion-proof containers.

b. protective containers.

Which is not a fundamental principle that must be observed when you are planning andconducting explosives operations?


a. Fewest number of people.


b. Minimum amount of time.


c. Using the two-man concept.


d. Smallest quantity of explosives.

c. Using the two-man concept.

Who is authorized to visit an area during an explosives operation?


a. Visiting dignitaries.


b. Inspection personnel.


c. Contractor personnel.


d. Electro-environmental specialist.

b. Inspection personnel.

How often must containers of oily rags, combustible scrap, and waste materials be emptied?


a. Daily.


b. When full.


c. At the end of each shift.


d. As determined by the element chief.

a. Daily.

To be acceptable for storage, explosives must be


a. clean.


b. segregated.


c. undamaged.


d. assigned a hazard classification.

d. assigned a hazard classification.

Within the aircrew flight equipment shop, which limitation applies to the number ofsurvival kits and spare components that are undergoing maintenance at any one time?


a. Space.


b. Storage.


c. Personnel.


d. Net explosives weight (NEW).

d. Net explosives weight (NEW).

Explosive items are assigned to compatibility groups for


a. storage.


b. storage and maintenance.


c. storage and transportation.


d. maintenance and transportation.

c. storage and transportation.

To provide the greatest protection from inadvertent ignition in storage facilities, you mustgive priority to items that are


a. self-initiated.


b. self-propelled.


c. easily initiated.


d. accidentally initiated prone.

b. self-propelled.?

Serviceable and unserviceable explosive items must be


a. integrated.


b. segregated.


c. stored in an approved shipping container.


d. turned in to the munitions storage area as soon as possible.

b. segregated.

Aircrew flight equipment shops are authorized to store a/an


a. limited quantity of explosives.


b. minimum quantity of explosives.


c. approved quantity of explosives.


d. mission-essential quantity of explosives.

d. mission-essential quantity of explosives.

Before granting an explosive facility license, the base explosive safety representative must


a. inspect the proposed facility.


b. obtain the commander’s approval.


c. coordinate with the base fire chief.


d. ensure all personnel are trained in explosive safety.

a. inspect the proposed facility.

To be acceptable for the storage of explosives,


a proposed facility musta. have at least two exits.


b. be protected from dry, cool temperatures.


c. be protected from moist, hot temperatures.


d. contain a minimum of three fire extinguishers.

c. be protected from moist, hot temperatures.

Who enters the office symbols of the coordinators on the AF Form 2047, Explosive FacilityLicense?


a. Base fire chief.


b. Squadron commander.


c. Aircrew flight equipment shop supervisor.


d. Installation weapons safety representative.

a. Base fire chief.

What is your most important trait when it comes to training?


a. Attitude.


b. Experience.


c. Knowledge.


d. Performance.

a. Attitude.

Training conducted in the form of one-way video and two-way audio is called


a. computer-based instruction.


b. computer-based training.


c. videotape training.


d. video teletraining.

d. video teletraining.

Responsibility for determining the overall direction of training within an Air Force specialtyrests with the


a. Air Force specialty manager.


b. Major command (MAJCOM) functional manager.


c. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).


d. Air Education and Training Command (AETC) manager.

c. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM).

After a student graduates from technical school, within how many months will a supervisorreceive a field evaluation questionnaire?


a. 1 to 3.


b. 4 to 6.


c. 6 to 8.


d. 8 to 10.

b. 4 to 6.

Which column on the graduate assessment survey (GAS) indicates the rating ofsatisfactory?


a. S.


b. BS.


c. WBS.


d. WAS.

a. S.

How many days in advance do most units forecast or project ancillary training?


a. 40.


b. 50.


c. 60.


d. 70.

c. 60.

Which person will assist you in filling out any locally required paperwork for projectingancillary training within your work center?


a. Base training manager (BTM).


b. Unit training manager (UTM).


c. Base education officer.


d. Military personnel commander.

b. Unit training manager (UTM).

You can best evaluate the effectiveness of training received by your technical schoolgraduates by using the


a. command job qualification standard (CJQS).


b. air Force job qualification standard (AFJQS).


c. specialty training standard (STS).


d. AF Form 797.

c. specialty training standard (STS).

When you decertify a newly reassigned person on a task they are not qualified to do, youmust then place that person in


a. a career development course.


b. a field training detachment.


c. qualification training.


d. continuation training.

c. qualification training.

What do training waivers provide?


a. Automatic upgrade.


b. Guarantee way out of completing training.


c. Way for trainees to work on equipment not qualified on.


d. Means for saving training resources without affect career progression.

d. Means for saving training resources without affect career progression.

Information about your career progression in an Air Force specialty can be found in yourCareer Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), Part


a. I.


b. II.


c. III.


d. IV.

a. I.

Prior to using the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP), you must ensure it is


a. the latest edition.


b. approved by your supervisor.


c. required for your duty position.


d. listed on your unit manning document.

a. the latest edition.

Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) lists all the tasks and knowledgeitems common to an Air Force specialty (AFS)?


a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

a. 1.

Which column of the specialty training standard (STS) defines the “contract” with thetechnical school?


a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

d. 4.

A proficiency code of “2b” in column 4 of the specialty training standard (STS) indicatestask


a. performance and subject performance.


b. knowledge and subject performance.


c. knowledge and subject knowledge.


d. performance and task knowledge.

?

The list of tasks on an AF Form 797 pertain only to


a. air force specialty codes (AFSC) with extensive on-the-job training (OJT) programs.


b. one particular base or work center.


c. Air Mobility Command (AMC).


d. Air Combat Command ACC).

b. one particular base or work center.

When developing an AF Form 797, what do you not provide?


a. Task developers.


b. Sub-tasks required.


c. The task and its title.


d. Technical or training references.

a. Task developers.

A task developed for an AF Form 797 must be measurable, observable, and


a. be certified.


b. be a part of a sub-task.


c. have a definite beginning and end.


d. authorized by the major command (MAJCOM) functional manager.

c. have a definite beginning and end.

An occupational survey report (OSR) is an all-inclusive survey of all the tasks within a/an


a. work center.


b. Air Force.


c. duty position.


d. Air Force specialty.

d. Air Force specialty.

Major command (MAJCOM) and Air Education and Training Command (AETC) subjectmatter experts (SME), in conjunction with occupational survey report (OSR) data, help developthe


a. command job qualification standard (CJQS).


b. air force job qualification standard (AFJQS).


c. specialty training standard (STS).


d. course training standard (CTS).

c. specialty training standard (STS).

When filling out your occupational survey, it is important that you answer questions thatapply to tasks you


a. did in the last six months.


b. did in your last duty position.


c. are currently doing in your job.


d. are projected to do in the next six months.

c. are currently doing in your job.

The Air Force Occupational Measurement Squadron (AFOMS) provides two products.They are an occupational survey report and a


a. training extract (TE).


b. field interview result.


c. specialty training standard (STS).


d. graduate assessment survey (GAS).

a. training extract (TE).

If representatives of the utilization and training workshop (U&TW) disagree on a specialtytraining standard (STS) item, how is it resolved?

a. All participants have a vote for or against.


b. Air Education and Training Command (AETC) resolves the disagreement.


c. Air Force career field manager (AFCFM) resolves the disagreement.


d. Each major command (MAJCOM) with the exception of Air Education and TrainingCommand (AETC) has one vote for or against.

d. Each major command (MAJCOM) with the exception of Air Education and Training Command (AETC) has one vote for or against.

Prior to assigning an individual their work duties, you should


a. erase all tasks in the individual’s on-the-job training (OJT) records.


b. evaluate the individuals OJT records.


c. train the individual on the task.


d. perform task evaluations.

b. evaluate the individuals OJT records.

The status of resources and training system (SORTS) is designed to indicate a unit’s


a. ability to undertake its full mission.


b. training capabilities.


c. operations tempo.


d. morale.

.

What is the responsibility of a pilot unit?


a. Developing and maintaining standard manpower and logistics details.


b. Establishing equipment load list only.


c. Establishing manning standards only.


d. Establishing the production goals.

.

Which quality inspection do we perform on a survival kit before it is closed?


a. Quality control inspection (QCI).


b. Critical point inspection (CPI).


c. Quality process inspection (QPI).


d. Critical control inspection (CCI).

.

Where can the office of primary responsibility (OPR) information be found for an Air Forcepublication?


a. Indexes.


b. Back cover.


c. AF master catalog.


d. Cover page of the publication.

.

Who is the final reviewer of all DD Form 1144, Support Agreements?


a. Wing commander.


b. Flight equipment officer.


c. Staff judge advocate.


d. Squadron commander.

.

What instruction covers the management of a composite tool kit (CTK) program?


a. TO 32–1–101, Maintenance & Care of Hand Tools.


b. AFI 11–301, Aircrew Flight Equipment (AFE) Operations.


c. AFI 21–101, Aerospace Equipment Maintenance Management.


d. AFI 10–601, Mission Needs and Operational Requirements Guidance and Procedures.

.

Who is responsible for tool accountability and control within a specific section of youraircrew flight equipment shop?


a. Composite tool kit (CTK) custodians.


b. Superintendent.


c. Everyone.


d. NCOIC.

.

Consumables such as halocarbons may be placed in composite tool kits (CTK)


a. if they are identified on the master inventory list (MIL) as consumables.


b. if they are unable to leak and cause damage to the CTK.


c. if used up completely before the end of the day.


d. at no time, consumables may never be placed in a CTK.

.

How often should a comprehensive inspection of all composite tool kits (CTK) beaccomplished?


a. Daily.


b. Weekly.


c. Monthly.


d. Annually.

.

At which milestone of the acquisition process is the production decision made?


a. A.


b. B.


c. C.


d. D.

.

When are mission need statements required?


a. Only when solutions require new developments.


b. Only when solutions require upgrade of existing systems.


c. When solutions require new developments, new procurements, or an upgrade of existingsystems.


d. When solutions require new developments and procurements of a suitable existing Departmentof Defense (DOD) system not currently Air Force approved.

.

Which agency develops the operational requirements document?


a. Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center (AFOTEC) and Air Force MaterielCommand (AFMC).


b. AFOTEC only.


c. AFMC only.


d. Lead operating command.

.

The code 412A is defined as which type of code?


a. Program element monitor code (PEMC).


b. Budget program activity code (BPAC).


c. System program office code (SPOC).


d. Force element code (FEC).

.

Who is responsible for the aircrew flight equipment special programs office (SPO)?


a. Human Systems Group (HSG).


b. Program management directive (PMD).


c. Air Force Operational Test and Evaluation Center (AFOTEC).


d. Air Force Directorate for Acquisition of Tactical Programs (SAF/AQPT).

.

What is conducted throughout a system’s life cycle to ensure the Air Force acquires andmaintains operationally effective and suitable systems that meet users’ needs?


a. Developmental test and evaluation.


b. Operational test and evaluation.


c. Deficiency reporting.


d. Surveillance.

.

What provides an assessment of the vulnerability or lethality of a weapon system as itprogresses through its development and prior to the full-rate production decision?


a. Developmental test and evaluation.


b. Operational test and evaluation.


c. Combined test and evaluation.


d. Live fire test and evaluation.

.

What is conducted in an environment as realistic as possible to determine the system’seffectiveness and suitability, and to ensure requirements are met?


a. Protection analysis.


b. Report of discrepancy.


c. Operational test and evaluation.


d. Developmental test and evaluation.

.

Vol 1.xps 76. (026) How many parts are there to the typical objective statement?


a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

.

What is the first step in developing a lesson plan?


a. Write the objective statement.


b. Research.


c. Instructor notes.


d. Gather facts.

.

Which aircrew continuation class is used for members prior to their first flight?


a. LL01.


b. LL02.


c. LL03.


d. LL04.

.

The equipment used for aircrew flight equipment continuation training must be inspected atwhat interval?


a. 30 days.


b. 90 days.


c. 180 days.


d. 360 days.

.

Who has the authority to allow operational equipment to be used for training?


a. Major command.


b. Wing commanders.


c. Aircrew flight equipment shop NCOIC.


d. Aircrew flight equipment superintendents.

.

What should be your number one concern when instructing aircrew flight equipmentcontinuation training (AFECT) courses?


a. Mission accomplishment.


b. Care of equipment.


c. Student learning.


d. Safety.

.

Who must document compliance with an operational risk management (ORM) program thathas been conducted within your training program?


a. Aircrew flight equipment instructor.


b. The aircrew flight equipment superintendent (AFES) or aircrew flight equipment officer(AFEO).


c. Major command (MAJCOM).


d. Noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC).

.

What instruction is used to develop an installation deployment plan (IDP)?


a. AFI 10402.


b. AFI 10403.


c. AFI 10404.


d. AFI 10405.

.

Who provides overall control, direction, and supervision of large-scale exercises?


a. Unit deployment manager (UDM).


b. Deployment control center (DCC).


c. Installation deployment officer (IDO).


d. Cargo deployment function (CDF).

.

Which work center ensures the deploying personnel are properly accounted for andprepared for deployment?


a. Logistic readiness unit (LRU).


b. Cargo deployment function (CDF).


c. Personnel deployment function (PDF).


d. Personnel readiness unit (PRU).

.

Which work center is not part of the Installation Deployment Officers (IDO) activationprocess?


a. Logistic readiness unit (LRU).


b. Cargo deployment function (CDF).


c. Personnel deployment function (PDF).


d. Personnel readiness unit (PRU).

.

Which Air Force instruction (AFI) describes the air expeditionary force (AEF) Unit TypeCode Status Reporting Tool (ART)?


a. AFI 10403.


b. AFI 10244.


c. AFI 11301.


d. AFI 11302.

.

Who is responsible for the overall AF current operations, readiness and training?


a. Base superintendent.


b. Base Commander.


c. Directorate of Operations.


d. Numbered Air Forces (NAFs).

.

How many pounds can each ring on a 463L pallet restrain?


a. 5,000.


b. 7,500.


c. 10,000.


d. 25,000.

.

What guidance is used to develop a concept of operations (CONOPS)?


a. AFI 10401.


b. AFI 10403.


c. AFI 11302.


d. AFI 25101.

.

What is the minimum amount of days following a significant radiological event willinstallations receive assistance from specialized federal assets?


a. 5.


b. 10.


c. 12.


d. 24.

.

Which of the following is not a step to preemptively mitigate the effects of a radiologicalwarfare (RW) event?


a. Integrated Defense.


b. Integrated Offense.


c. Contamination Prevention.


d. Intelligence collection and analysis.

.

The minimum of how many yards from the boundary of the aircrew contamination controlarea (ACCA), should the toxic fee area (TFA) main personnel, rest and recovery area be placed?


a. 100.


b. 200.


c. 300.


d. 400.

.

When setting up an aircrew contamination control area (ACCA), who is responsible fordividing manpower into groups or teams by color?


a. Civil engineering supervisor.


b. Base commander.


c. ACCA manager.


d. Wing commander.

.

A minimum of how many trained attendants are required to run standard operations of anaircrew contamination control area (ACCA)?


a. Two.


b. Three.


c. Four.


d. Five.

.

Which decontamination area is where the boot and protective over garment removal phasetakes place?


a. 1.


b. 2.


c. 3.


d. 4.

.

When you use the M295 decontamination kit, you start your decontamination process of anaircrew member from


a. waist up and then back down to feet.


b. the bottom of an individual and work up.


c. the top of the individual and work down.


d. one side of the individual to the other.

.

Within how many business days after you mail the registration form in will the data beentered into the National 406 MHz Beacon Registration Database system?


a. 2.


b. 3.


c. 4.


d. 5.

.

What is considered normal vision?


a. 20/10.


b. 20/20.


c. 20/30.


d. 20/40.

.

What night vision goggle (NVG) limitation occurs during the hours of darkness that mayimpact the NVG mission?

a. System design characteristics.


b. Environmental conditions.


c. Physiological considerations.


d. Aircraft type/design considerations.

.