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244 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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Who is responsible for appointing a MXG technical order custodian to administer technical order requirements in support of assigned MXG missions |
MXG Commander |
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Which is not normally a MXG technical order distribution office (TODO) duty? |
Maintaining physical media technical order libraries/electronic technical orders (eTO) / Electronic tools (eTools) |
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What type of time change technical order (TCTO) is issued when unsafe conditions, if not corrected, could result in serious or fatal personal injury? |
Immediate action |
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What type of time change technical order (TCTO) is issued when a deficiency could result in injury to personnel, damage to property, or unacceptable reductions in combat efficiency? |
Urgent action |
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If the deficiencies in an urgent action time change technical order (TCTO) are not corrected within the specified time limit, what action(s) must be taken? |
Remove the aircraft or equipment from service |
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Which type of TCTO is issued when material, mechanical, operational or tactical deficiencies occur which could result in conditions that reduce the operational life of the equipment? |
Routine action |
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Who is responsible for ensuring that accurate documentation of TCTOs is made upon completion of the inspection or modification procedures outlined in the TCTO? |
Flight or section supervisor |
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Who is given broad discretionary powers to waive compliance with TO procedures in emergency situations? |
On-scene commander |
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Within Air Force Material Command (AFMC), who has the overall responsibility for Air Force policy governing the TO system? |
A4F |
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Which of the following is not an approved communication method for issuing approved TO waivers or deviations? |
Telephone |
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The Air Force supply system is different from civilian supply systems because it |
Deals with thousands of customers worldwide and requires more flexibility |
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Which system allows logistics personnel, customers, and commanders to track every item in the supply system through standardized procedures? |
Standard base supply system (SBSS) |
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Which supply element is the first point in the process of obtaining material from supply? |
Demand Processing |
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Who is responsible for determining the appropriate supply delivery priority for a parts request? |
Customer |
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Which supply priority is appropriate for primary mission aircraft 13 hours after landing |
3 |
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Which urgency justification codes (UJC) are used to show supply requests for bits and pieces to repair a line replaceable unit (LRU) or shop replaceable unit (SRU) spare? |
AR or BR |
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Which type of asset has an expendability, recoverability, reparability code (ERRC) of XF3? |
Field (base) reparable or consumable |
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Which supply tracking document provides a management product for monitoring issue and bench stock supply support? |
M-24, Organization Effectiveness Report |
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Which TO details the deficiency reporting process? |
00-35D-54 |
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Using the Joint Deficiency Reporting System (JDRS), submissions of deficiency reports may be accomplished by |
Anyone |
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At most bases, who performs the function of screening point? |
TO distribution office or quality assurance |
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Who must appoint an individual to be an equipment account custodian? |
Squadron commander |
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Which specific block of supply training is provided for due-in from maintenance (DIFM) monitors? |
IIB |
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After the initial inventory, how often must an equipment account be inventoried? |
Annually |
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Which Logistics Readiness Squadron (LRS) office accounts for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) assets managed on in-use detail records? |
Material management activity |
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Unless delegated, who is responsible for reviewing all requests for special purpose recoverable authorized maintenance (SPRAM) authorizations submitted by SPRAM custodians? |
Mission support (MSG) Commander |
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To which MAJCOM are training detachments (DT) administratively assigned? |
Air Education Training Command (AETC) |
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Which maintenance course normally makes use of the block training method? |
Maintenance orientation |
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Who must approve a waiver before an individual can be added to the special certification roster (SCR) for a task normally performed by a person of a higher grade? |
Maintenance Group Commander (MXG/CC) |
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In order to be given authority to downgrade a “Red-X” an individual must be approved by the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) and hold the minimum grade of |
Master Sergeant (MSgt) |
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Training business area (TBA) provides Air Force personnel with global, real-time |
Visibility of technical qualifications, certifications, and training status |
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In the training business area (TBA) what type of notification does the “system messages” board provide in addition to software releases, projected downtimes, and training update information? |
Application problems |
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The actions that the Training Business Area (TBA) allows you to perform are based on |
Roles that you have been assigned |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)? |
II |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)? |
II |
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How often does the maintenance training section (MTS) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
Monthly |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)? |
II |
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How often does the maintenance training section (MTS) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
Monthly |
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An individual comes due for a training recertification while on temporary duty (TDY), on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning to duty before decertification is required? |
30 |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)? |
II |
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How often does the maintenance training section (MTS) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
Monthly |
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An individual comes due for a training recertification while on temporary duty (TDY), on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning to duty before decertification is required? |
30 |
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Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC) |
Unit training manager |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)? |
II |
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How often does the maintenance training section (MTS) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
Monthly |
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An individual comes due for a training recertification while on temporary duty (TDY), on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning to duty before decertification is required? |
30 |
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Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC) |
Unit training manager |
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Once you have completed the master task list (MTL) for your master training plan (MTP) your next step is to |
Determine training needs |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)? |
II |
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How often does the maintenance training section (MTS) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
Monthly |
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An individual comes due for a training recertification while on temporary duty (TDY), on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning to duty before decertification is required? |
30 |
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Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC) |
Unit training manager |
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Once you have completed the master task list (MTL) for your master training plan (MTP) your next step is to |
Determine training needs |
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Which kinda of tasks require third-party certification? |
Critical tasks |
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All newly assigned maintenance personnel must receive maintenance orientation training within how many days of arrival on station? |
60 |
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Which training phase is made up of the four sub-phases multiphase: major command (MAJCOM) mandatory, free flow, and maintenance qualification training (MQT)? |
II |
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How often does the maintenance training section (MTS) provide a status of training (SOT) briefing to the maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
Monthly |
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An individual comes due for a training recertification while on temporary duty (TDY), on leave, or incapacitated. Provided it has not been more than 60 days since the original due date, how many days are allowed after returning to duty before decertification is required? |
30 |
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Who is responsible for conducting an interview with both the trainee and his/her supervisor before a trainee starts a career development course (CDC) |
Unit training manager |
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Once you have completed the master task list (MTL) for your master training plan (MTP) your next step is to |
Determine training needs |
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Which kind of tasks require third-party certification? |
Critical tasks |
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What are the two most common types of primary maintenance metric indicators? |
Leading and lagging |
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Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance’s capability to provide resources to execute the mission? |
Leading |
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Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance’s capability to provide resources to execute the mission? |
Leading |
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Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends? |
Lagging |
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Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows problems first, as they directly impact maintenance’s capability to provide resources to execute the mission? |
Leading |
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Which primary maintenance metric indicator shows and follows firmly established trends? |
Lagging |
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Mission capable (MC) rate, total not mission capable maintenance (TNMCM) rate, and total not mission capable supply (TNCMCS) rate are all examples of which primary maintenance metric indicator? |
Lagging |
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Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/ equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas? |
Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
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Who is the office of primary responsibility (OPR) for development of wing procedures for control and management of tools/ equipment used on the flight line and in aerospace maintenance industrial areas? |
Maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) |
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In addition to daily accountability checks, how often must support personnel conduct and document a maintenance group commander (MXG/CC) standardized inspection of all support section tools and equipment? |
Annually |
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How many characters (numbers/letters) make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment? |
9 |
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How many characters (numbers/letters) make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment? |
9 |
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Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found? |
Maintenance operations officer or MX superintendent (SUPT) |
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How many characters (numbers/letters) make up an equipment identification designator (EID) code used to identify tools and equipment? |
9 |
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Without a waiver, what is the minimum position an individual must hold before clearing a red X for a lost tool that has not been found? |
Maintenance operations officer or MX superintendent (SUPT) |
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What time frame is used for determining if an item that falls off an aircraft is considered a dropped object? |
Engine start to engine shutdown |
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A dropped object that has resulted in casualties or property damage must be reported in accordance with Air Force Manual (AFMAN) |
10-206, Operational Reporting, (OREP) |
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Which Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) individual assessment is an over-the-shoulder evaluation while the technician performs a task? |
Personnel Evaluation |
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Which Maintenance Standardization and Evaluation Program (MSEP) individual assessment is performed after a technician completes a task? |
Quality verification inspection (QVI) |
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Which Air Force publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation? |
AFI-21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management |
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Which Air Force publication provides general guidance for executing an effective maintenance recovery operation? |
AFI-21-101, Aircraft and Equipment Maintenance Management |
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The maximum total initial duty time (including home station duty, travel time, and recover site duty upon arrival) that a maintenance recovery team (MRT) member may be worked before being given 8 hours of uninterrupted rest is |
16 hours |
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What is the goal of the current AF technical order modernization effort? |
To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up to date digital technical data at the point of use. |
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What is the goal of the current AF technical order modernization effort? |
To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up to date digital technical data at the point of use. |
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What are the three levels of technical order distribution activities that provide basic technical order system support to base-level organizations? |
Group TODO, squadron TODA, and library custodian |
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What is the goal of the current AF technical order modernization effort? |
To provide user friendly, technically accurate, and up to date digital technical data at the point of use. |
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What are the three levels of technical order distribution activities that provide basic technical order system support to base-level organizations? |
Group TODO, squadron TODA, and library custodian |
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What section are MXG TODOs normally assigned to? |
Quality Assurance (QA) |
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What form should be used to establish a TODO account? |
AFTO Form 43 |
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For what purpose are checklists developed? |
To provide abbreviated step-by-step procedures in the sequence deemed most practical for operation and maintenance of systems and equipment. |
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What is the purpose of TCTOs? |
They are used to provide instructions for modifying military systems and commodities within specified time limits. They’re also used to initiate special “one-time” inspections or impose temporary restrictions on systems and commodities. |
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What is the purpose of TCTOs? |
They are used to provide instructions for modifying military systems and commodities within specified time limits. They’re also used to initiate special “one-time” inspections or impose temporary restrictions on systems and commodities. |
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What are the three TCTO Priorities? |
Immediate Urgent Routine action |
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What is the purpose of TCTOs? |
They are used to provide instructions for modifying military systems and commodities within specified time limits. They’re also used to initiate special “one-time” inspections or impose temporary restrictions on systems and commodities. |
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What are the three TCTO Priorities? |
Immediate Urgent Routine action |
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How is an immediate action TCTO issued? |
As ITCTO messages |
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What is the purpose of TCTOs? |
They are used to provide instructions for modifying military systems and commodities within specified time limits. They’re also used to initiate special “one-time” inspections or impose temporary restrictions on systems and commodities. |
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What are the three TCTO Priorities? |
Immediate Urgent Routine action |
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How is an immediate action TCTO issued? |
As ITCTO messages |
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What is the time limit for accomplishment of an urgent action TCTO? |
1-10 days |
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Normally, what is the time compliance for routine action TCTOs? |
30-270 days |
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Normally, what is the time compliance for routine action TCTOs? |
30-270 days |
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What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability? |
QA |
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Normally, what is the time compliance for routine action TCTOs? |
30-270 days |
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What MXG agency is responsible for performing an initial evaluation of a TCTO to determine its applicability? |
QA |
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Who is responsible for attending TCTO planning meetings and should thoroughly review the TCTO before the meeting so clarification requests can be made? |
The flight or section performing the TCTO |
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Why should on scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with technical order guidance during an emergency situation? |
Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment |
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Why should on scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with technical order guidance during an emergency situation? |
Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment |
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Who may temporarily waive specific technical order compliance until operational capability permits or safety personnel is assured for forces engaged in actual combat operations or supporting EWO alert taskings, and for systems or components engaged in contingency operations? |
AOR Commanders |
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Why should on scene commanders use extreme caution when waiving compliance with technical order guidance during an emergency situation? |
Because they could be jeopardizing the safety of personnel and equipment |
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Who may temporarily waive specific technical order compliance until operational capability permits or safety of personnel is assured for forces engaged in actual combat operations or supporting EWO alert taskings, and for systems or components engaged in contingency operations? |
AOR Commanders |
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How long does a technical order waiver remain in effect? |
Until the OPR cancels it in writing, the publication is completely rewritten, or the waiver expires (the expiration date must be specified in the documentation granting the waiver). |
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What three characteristics depict the concept of the supply system? |
The characteristics must be segmented geographically, functionally, and by classification. |
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Describe the SBSS |
An accounting system consisting of standardized computer equipment, programs, procedures, and supply policy. |
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Who is the first point in the process for obtaining material from supply? |
Demand processing element |
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Who is the first point in the process for obtaining material from supply? |
Demand processing element |
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Which element would you call for equipment issues? |
The EAE |
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Who is the first point in the process for obtaining material from supply? |
Demand processing element |
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Which element would you call for equipment issues? |
The EAE |
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In what way must supplies and equipment be protected? |
Protected from hazards such as abuse, fire, corrosion, or anything else that might render them unusable. |
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What do expedite supply requests represent? |
Urgent needs for assets from the supply system in order to prevent a work stoppages or other mission degradation situations. |
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What do expedite supply requests represent? |
Urgent needs for assets from the supply system in order to prevent a work stoppages or other mission degradation situations. |
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Expedite issue requests have UJC codes of “A” or “B”. What supply priority responses are normally assigned to these requests? |
Delivery priorities 01-04 |
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What do expedite supply requests represent? |
Urgent needs for assets from the supply system in order to prevent work stoppages or other mission degradation situations. |
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Expedite issue requests have UJC codes of “A” or “B”. What supply priority responses are normally assigned to these requests? |
Delivery priorities 01-04 |
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Within how many minutes should the supply system deliver a part that has issued with a delivery priority of “1?” |
Thirty minutes |
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What is the highest priority of an expedite request that is used to order parts required for the repair of mission essential equipment? |
MICAP request |
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Who should you contact if you need to request modification of a back order, including changing the UJC or RDD? |
Customer service at LRS or your local supply support section. |
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Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? |
XD or XF |
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Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? |
XD or XF |
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What is the first character of the UJC? |
UND |
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Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? |
XD or XF |
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What is the first character of the UJC? |
UND |
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Which supply document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it’s coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back ordered parts? |
D18 |
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Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? |
XD or XF |
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What is the first character of the UJC? |
UND |
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Which supply document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it’s coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back ordered parts? |
D18 |
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Which supply Managment document facilitates an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and aids in keeping the DIFM delinquency rate to a minimum? |
D23 |
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Repair cycle assets are parts with an ERRC code starting with what letters? |
XD or XF |
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What is the first character of the UJC? |
UND |
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Which supply document can tell what and how many of a particular item you ordered, where it’s coming from, how it will be shipped, and an approximate delivery date for all your priority back ordered parts? |
D18 |
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Which supply Managment document facilitates an orderly and continuous flow of reparable items through the various maintenance activities and aids in keeping the DIFM delinquency rate to a minimum? |
D23 |
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Which supply management documents provides a means to monitor and verify that each due-out is still a valid requirement? |
M30 |
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What DRI&R system is used commonly between the AF and the aviation communities of the Navy and Coast Guard? |
JDRS |
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What DRI&R system is used commonly between the AF and the aviation communities of the Navy and Coast Guard? |
JDRS |
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What details are needed to submit a DR? |
Your email address, unit mailing address, DoDAAC, P/N, S/N, NSN, work unit code, how mail code, manufacturer CAGE code, P/N & NSN of next higher assembly and end item, quantity received, and how many items affected. |
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What DRI&R system is used commonly between the AF and the aviation communities of the Navy and Coast Guard? |
JDRS |
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Once a DR has been submitted, who will inform you when to turn-in the exhibit? |
The action point |
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What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects? |
Block I |
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What block of supply training covers general supply indoctrination subjects? |
Block I |
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What block of supply training must an individual complete to perform duties as a primary or alternate equipment custodian? |
III |
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What form must be used when items on an equipment account are loaned outside the custodian’s span of control? |
AF Form 1297 |
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What two forms could be used to process a voluntary payment in lieu of an ROS? |
DD Form 1131 or DD Form 362 |
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Custodians must verify the R25 list is complete and accurate. Afterwords, they must sign, date and return to the ELO working how many workdays? |
15 |
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Where is a list of formal AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found? |
In part 2 of the career field’s CFETP |
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Where is a list of formal AF-wide training courses for a specific career field normally found? |
In part 2 of the career field’s CFETP |
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What type of aircraft maintenance is centrally produced but delivered to students to be accomplished at their convenience? |
DL |
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What type of training includes advanced and qualification training to develop in-depth expertise within a specialty, broaden knowledge of new specialties, introduce new technologies and systems, develop analytical skills, or increase understanding of the relationship between maintenance specialties? |
Continuation training |
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How can Airmen better prepare themselves for transition to civilian life? |
Professional certifications |
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For maintenance personnel, when must training documentation be maintained for MSgts and above? |
When they perform maintenance on aircraft, missiles or associated equipment. |
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What type of maintenance tasks are normally included on the SCR? |
Only those that have a high potential for personnel injury or damage to equipment. |
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What form is normally used to add someone to the special certification roster? |
AF Form 2426 |
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What form is normally used to add someone to the special certification roster? |
AF Form 2426 |
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What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? |
Decertify the individual and have the person removed from the SCR for that task |
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What form is normally used to add someone to the special certification roster? |
AF Form 2426 |
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What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? |
Decertify the individual and have the person removed from the SCR for that task |
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What information does TBA provide AF personnel both globally and in real time? |
The technical qualifications, certifications, and training status of weapons systems and support professionals AF wide |
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What form is normally used to add someone to the special certification roster? |
AF Form 2426 |
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What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? |
Decertify the individual and have the person removed from the SCR for that task |
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What information does TBA provide AF personnel both globally and in real time? |
The technical qualifications, certifications, and training status of weapons systems and support professionals AF wide |
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In order for TBA to allow all officers, enlisted and civilian personnel anywhere access to their own training records of personnel they supervise anywhere, what else do these individuals need? |
Network access |
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What form is normally used to add someone to the special certification roster? |
AF Form 2426 |
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What should supervisors do when they determine that a person is no longer qualified to perform a task he or she was added to the special certification roster to perform? |
Decertify the individual and have the person removed from the SCR for that task |
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In order for TBA to allow all officers, enlisted and civilian personnel anywhere access to their own training records of personnel they supervise anywhere, what else do these individuals need? |
Network access |
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What is a copy of the TBA production application labeled “TBA UBE” intended for? |
User practice and orientation on the TBA application. It is not for operational unit training management activities. |
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Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? |
Phase I |
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Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? |
Phase I |
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What agencies are required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTS, and ADL course that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS? |
Lead commands |
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Maintenance orientation class given to newly assigned personnel is considered what phase of training under the maintenance qualification program? |
Phase I |
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What agencies are required to develop a list of all mandatory TD, MTS, and ADL course that maintenance personnel must attend in order to work on a specific MDS? |
Lead commands |
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What must MSgts or above attend if available when they will be supervising personnel on an MDS for which they have less than one year of experience? |
Appropriate TD aircraft familiarization course |
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What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC apprentice-level courses? |
MQT |
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What training consists of academic and practical hands-on training courses that complement initial skills training received through AETC apprentice-level courses? |
MQT |
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What phase of training includes specialty training such as engine run, hot pit refuel, and borescope training? |
Phase III, SQT |
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What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement? |
That the initial training has not been performed or loaded for the individual in question |
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What does it mean when someone is showing in IMDS as AWACT without a due date for a particular training requirement? |
That the initial training has not been performed or loaded for the individual in question |
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When accomplishing an inventory of CDC materials, what should you verify prior a trainee beginning a CDC volume? |
The most current version is issued |
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If TBA is not used or available, which AF form should be used to show milestones such as the date a volume is issued, when it is completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, the date the course is ordered, whether the trainee passes or fails the course exam, and any other significant CDC training issues? |
AF Form 623A |
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If TBA is not used or available, which AF form should be used to show milestones such as the date a volume is issued, when it is completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, the date the course is ordered, whether the trainee passes or fails the course exam, and any other significant CDC training issues? |
AF Form 623A |
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When you are building an MTP for your flight/section, what should you do first? |
Develop an MTL |
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If TBA is not used or available, which AF form should be used to show milestones such as the date a volume is issued, when it is completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, the date the course is ordered, whether the trainee passes or fails the course exam, and any other significant CDC training issues? |
AF Form 623A |
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When you are building an MTP for your flight/section, what should you do first? |
Develop an MTL |
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What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a work center requirement? |
If it is performed by 51 percent or more of personnel in the work center |
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If TBA is not used or available, which AF form should be used to show milestones such as the date a volume is issued, when it is completed, any delays, reviews of training progress, the date the course is ordered, whether the trainee passes or fails the course exam, and any other significant CDC training issues? |
AF Form 623A |
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When you are building an MTP for your flight/section, what should you do first? |
Develop an MTL |
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What cutoff should be used to determine if a task should be a work center requirement? |
If it is performed by 51 percent or more of personnel in the work center |
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With some exceptions, what do core tasks identify? |
The minimum task certification that must be achieved by a technician to be upgraded to either 5 or 7 skill level. |
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What can maintenance managment metrics provide when used properly? |
Roadmaps to show where your organization has been, where you’re going, and how (or if) you’re going to get there |
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Average number of deferred discrepancies across the unit’s fleet of possessed aircraft |
DDR |
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Average number of deferred discrepancies across the unit’s fleet of possessed aircraft |
DDR |
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Percentage of “Code 3” aircraft repaired to flyable status is set time, i.e. 4, 8, 12. |
FR |
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Average number of deferred discrepancies across the unit’s fleet of possessed aircraft |
DDR |
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Percentage of “Code 3” aircraft repaired to flyable status is set time, i.e. 4, 8, 12. |
FR |
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Most important and accurate measure of the unit’s maintenance quality |
R/R rate |
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Average number of sorties or hours flown per primary aerospace authorized per month |
UTE rate |
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Average number of sorties or hours flown per primary aerospace authorized per month |
UTE rate |
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The best-known yardstick for measuring a unit’s performance |
MC rate |
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Average number of sorties or hours flown per primary aerospace authorized per month |
UTE rate |
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The best-known yardstick for measuring a unit’s performance |
MC rate |
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Average percentage of aircraft that are unable to meet primary assigned missions (calculated monthly/annually) for maintenance reasons |
TNMCM Rate |
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What is a main objective of the tool and equipment management program? |
To minimize or eliminate FOD to aircraft, engines, missiles and equipment |
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What TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools? |
TO 32-1-101 |
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What TO provides guidance for the periodic inspection of hand tools? |
TO 32-1-101 |
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What does a MIL list? |
All contents in a particular CTK |
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What is TAS with reference to a CTK? |
It stands for TAS, and is the generic term used to describe a computer program/software that provides inventory control over CTK/tool room content and equipment used for performing maintenance . |
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Who is required to coordinate on all locally manufactured weapons related tools and equipment ? |
WWM |
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The EID used to mark tools has 9 characters. What are the four characters collectively called? |
WWID |
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The EID used to mark tools has 9 characters. What are the four characters collectively called? |
WWID |
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What is the definition of dispatchable equipment? |
Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on/off equipment maintenance within or outside the work center. |
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The EID used to mark tools has 9 characters. What are the first four characters collectively called? |
WWID Code |
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What is the definition of dispatchable equipment? |
Items that can be checked out from a support section, tool room, or work center to perform on/off equipment maintenance within or outside the work center. |
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What should be done if a lost tool or item is deemed an inaccessible item that poses no FOD threat and is left in place? |
All information concerning the tool will be maintained in the aircraft historical file until the item/tool is recovered |
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As it pertains to the DOPP, what is the definition of a dropped object? |
Any aircraft part, component, surface, or other item lost from an aircraft during aircrew operations, unless intentionally jettisoned. |
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What units are required to develop an effective DOPP? |
All wings, groups, squadrons and any other units which operate aircraft. |
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Who is required to investigate dropped objects involving transient aircraft? |
Local wing DOPP monitor |
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What does MSEP provide an objective sampling of? |
The quality of equipment, the proficiency of maintenance personnel, and the compliance of lead command and unit MSEP focus areas, programs, and processes. |
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Who serves as the primary technical advisory agency in the maintenance organization, assisting maintenance supervision at all levels to resolve quality problems? |
QA |
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Who is responsible for developing and monitoring the MSEP using a lead command-approved QA database that provides supervisors access to MSEP data? |
QA OIC/SUPT |
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When units develop their MSEP and conduct local inspections, what directives are used to ensure their programs, maintenance technician proficiency, equipment condition, and other focus areas are in compliance? |
AF, MAJCOM, and local directives |
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QA rates PEs based on what type of standard? |
AQL |
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A UCR indicates an unsafe or unsatisfactory condition, other than a DSV, and is chargeable to whom? |
Workcenter supervisor |
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What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs? |
The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has Ben unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircraft’s home station. |
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What is the definition of a maintenance recovery as it pertains to MRTs? |
The repair and successful launch of an aircraft that has Ben unexpectedly grounded at a location other than the aircraft’s home station. |
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What is considered a normal duty time for an MRT during a maintenance recovery operation? |
12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest |
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What is considered a normal duty time for an MRT during a maintenance recovery operation? |
12 hours of work and 12 hours of rest |
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What provides valuable guidance on executing a successful maintenance recovery operation? |
Your MAJCOM, weapons system team, local procedures |
