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90 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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What is one classification of equipment whose life expectancy is at least 5 years? a. Nonmedical material. b. Medical Investment. c. Medical Supply. d. Durable supply. |
b. Medical Investment. |
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When assuming custodial responsibility, when should you sign the custody receipt/locatorlisting? a. 7–10 duty days. b. 10–14 duty days. c. As soon as you are appointed as the equipment custodian . d. Only after the inventory has been performed and all corrective actions documented. |
d. Only after the inventory has been performed and all corrective actions documented. |
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When do you submit an AF Form 601, Equipment Action Request, for a piece of equipment that needs replacing? a. At the end of the month. b. At the end of the year. c. When the need for new equipment is identified. d. When “fall-out” money is available for new equipment. |
c. When the need for new equipment is identified. |
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Which equipment management list indicates each specific item the custodian has signed to accept responsibility? a. Custody receipt/locator. b. Back order equipment. c. Equipment support. d. Equipment turn-in. |
a. Custody receipt/locator. |
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How many days does it normally take for an equipment turn-in or transfer to be processed? a. 5. b. 14. c. 20. d. 30. |
a. 5. |
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One man-hour is equivalent to one person working at a normal pace for how many minutes? a. 20. b. 30. c. 60. d. 90. |
c. 60. |
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The description of the workload, associated conditions, a grade and skill level table,approved variances, and a processes analysis summary is the definition of a manpower a. authorization. b. standard. c. requirement. d. unit measure. |
b. standard. |
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A funded manpower requirement is defined as a a. base requirement. b. mission requirement. c. validated and allocated requirement. d. function, organization, location, skill, grade, and other appropriate characteristics. |
c. validated and allocated requirement. |
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What is a manpower requirement? a. A statement of manpower needed to complete a job, workload, mission, or program. b. A funded manpower requirement to complete a job, workload, mission or program. c. The standard quantitative expression representing manpower requirements. d. The standard qualitative expression representing manpower requirements. |
a. A statement of manpower needed to complete a job, workload, mission, or program. |
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Information found in which document provides a clear picture of the manning positions within a medical treatment facility (MTF)? a. Unit manpower. b. Manpower request. c. Mission support plan. d. Manpower requirement. |
a. Unit manpower. |
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What is the numeric code that identifies a particular task that may include an alpha prefix or suffix? a. Air Force specialty code (AFSC). b. Program element code (PEC). c. Position number. d. Job number. |
a. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) |
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What annotates special experience and training not otherwise reflected in the classification system? a. Individuals required grade. b. Functional account code (FAC). c. Organizational structure code. d. Special experience identifier (SEI) |
d. Special experience identifier (SEI) |
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Each position in the unit manning document (UMD) is displayed over fiscal quarters. When does the fiscal year start and end? a. 1 June through 30 May. b. 1 Jan through 31 Dec. c. 1 Sept through 30 Aug. d. 1 Oct through 30 Sept. |
d. 1 Oct through 30 Sept. |
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Who authorizes a change to manpower requests? a. Logistics officer. b. Group superintendent. c. Resource Management Office. d. Medical treatment facilities (MTF) commander. |
c. Resource Management Office. |
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SSgt Johnson is constantly working from one project to another and is unable to bring his units current status in line with the future goals of the organization. What will help you bridge the time span between where your unit is today and where the unit will be in the future? a. Planning. b. Brainstorming. c. Delegating. d. Scheduling. |
a. Planning. |
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TSgt Smith has recently been assigned as the noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC)of a clinic. She has a firm grasp of the organizations goals. There is other information TSgt Smith can use to align the units progression to meet the organization’s goals? TSgt Smith can incorporate a. planning to determine the unit’s progression to meet the organization’s goals. b. current unit data with planning to determine the unit’s progression to meet the organization’s goals. c. historical unit data with planning to determine the unit’s progression to meet the organization’s goals. d. the unit’s progression to meet the organization’s goals. |
c. historical unit data with planning to determine the unit’s progression to meet the organization’s goals. |
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SSgt Mays is the shift leader of the special care unit and works 8-hour day shift. SSgt Mays is constantly stressed, over whelmed, and always has a “hot” project or suspense that needs to be met. What prioritizing tool could SSgt Mays use to make more efficient use of his time?
a. Budget each level of priority having no more than 30% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities. b. Budget each level of priority having no more than 20% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities. c. Budget each level of priority having no more than 15% of D priorities, then evenly split E and F priorities. d. Budget each level of priority having no more than 10% of A priorities, then evenly split B and C priorities.
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d. Budget each level of priority having no more than 10% of A priorities, then evenly split B and C priorities. |
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What priority category must be completed by the end of the duty day? a. A urgent. b. B immediate. c. C lowest. d. D rapid. |
a. A urgent. |
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What categoring priority must be addressed within the next two days? a. Category A urgent. b. Category B immediate. c. Category C lowest. d. Category D highest. |
b. Category B immediate. |
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What categoring priority may be delegated out to other persons within the unit? a. CategoryA urgent. b. Category B immediate. c. Category C lowest. d. Category D highest. |
c. Category C lowest. |
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Who is responsible for final approval of the enlisted duty schedule? a. Noncommissioned officers in charge (NCOIC). b. Nurse managers and NCOICs. c. The base commander. d. The base superintendent. |
b. Nurse managers and NCOICs. |
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What references and guidance does the scheduler use to prepare a duty schedule? a. Air Force Instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance. b. Clinical nursing skills guidebook. c. Lippincott nursing manual. d. AFIs and local guidance. |
a. Air Force Instructions (AFI), operating instructions (OI), and local guidance. |
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Considering factors affecting duty schedules, the inpatient surgical intensive care scheduler should have open lines in communication with other inpatient units to a. update admission statuses. b. check intravenous therapy supplies. c. verify the levels of blood units on hand. d. relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads. |
d. relay patient census and plan for heavy workloads. |
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Who determines and assigns an immediate supervisor to a newly assigned Airman? a. The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or element NCOIC. b. Element NCOIC. c. First Sergeant. d. Commander. |
a. The flight noncommissioned officer in charge (NCOIC) or element NCOIC. |
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The sponsor’s job is to a. help make the relocation process easier for your children. b. help make the relocation process easier for your spouse. c. welcome the new arrival to the unit, and to help make the relocation process easier for all involved. d. welcome the new arrival to the base, and to help make the relocation process easier for all involved. |
d. welcome the new arrival to the base, and to help make the relocation process easier for all involved. |
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What document contains complete information regarding education and training requirements for an Air Force specialty code (AFSC)? a. Specialty training standard (STS). b. AF Form 156, Student Training Report. c. Career field education and training plan (CFETP). d. AF Form 623a, On-the- Job Training (OJT) Continuation Record. |
c. Career field education and training plan (CFETP). |
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When upgrading to a 7-skill level, what is the minimum number of months needed in training? a. 9. b. 12. c. 18. d. 24. |
b. 12. |
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What is the overall objective of the retraining program? a. Assigning Airmen to stateside locations. b. Assigning Airmen to overseas locations. c. Balancing the medical force of each Air Force specialty code (AFSC) needed. d. Balancing the career force of each AFSC needed. |
d. Balancing the career force of each AFSC needed. |
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The Air Force enlisted professional military education (EPME) EPME is a time-in-service(TIS)-based model that ensures a. targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the Continuum of Learning (CoL) across an enlisted Airman’s career. b. optional delivery of ICs throughout the CoL across an enlisted Airman’s career. c. the CoL across an enlisted Airman’s career. d. the CoL across the first enlistment of an enlisted Airman’s career. |
a. targeted delivery of institutional competencies (IC) throughout the Continuum of Learning (CoL) across an enlisted Airman’s career. |
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When you receive an initial formal school graduate, to evaluate the effectiveness of the training received you use information in a. the Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP) and the proficiency codes listed in the 5-skill level column. b. the CFETP and the proficiency codes listed in the 3-skill level column c. AFI 36–2201. d. AFI 36–2202. |
b. the CFETP and the proficiency codes listed in the 3-skill level column |
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In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeymen field, what are the methods by which training is completed? a. Formal courses and on-the-job training. b. Informal courses and on-the-job training. c. Temporary duty assignments. d. Manning assists. |
a. Formal courses and on-the-job training. |
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In the Aeromedical Medical Service Journeymen field, the effectiveness of training involves monitoring what key areas? a. Qualification and certification. b. Upgrade training courses, job proficiency. c. Career development courses, qualification. d. Career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency. |
d. Career knowledge, current qualification and certification, and job proficiency. |
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When referring to tasks applicable to the member’s duty section, which document would you need? a. Career field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). b. Job Qualification Standard (JQS). c. Specialty Training Standard (STS). d. Master Task List (MTL). |
d. Master Task List (MTL). |
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When new personnel arriving to your duty section, which document would you initiate to maintain a 100-percent task coverage of all training requirements? a. Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP). b. Master Training Plan (MTP). c. Maintenance record. d. Six-part folder. |
b. Master Training Plan (MTP). |
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When there are approved changes to the Career Field Education and Training Plan(CFETP), who is the approval authority? a. MTF commander. b. US Air Force Surgeon General. c. Education and Training Flight. d. Major command (MAJCOM) functional managers. |
b. US Air Force Surgeon General. |
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What Air Force Training Record (AFTR) component is used to document training progression involving tasks and skills? a. 623 II. b. 623a. c. 803. d. 1098. |
b. 623a. |
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Who is mandated to have an active training record within Air Force Training Record(AFTR)? a. E–9 and below. b. E–8 and below. c. E–7 and below at Air Force levels. d. E–6 and below at base levels. |
a. E–9 and below. |
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Which document below is maintained in the user file of the Air Force Training Record(AFTR)? a. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) card. b. AF Form 2099, Request for Community College of the Air Force Transcript. c. AF Form 803, Report of Task Evaluations. d. 5-level upgrade training card. |
a. National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians (NREMT) card. |
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Why is Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA) forecasted to replace all functions of Composite Health Care System (CHCS) a. CHCS is primarily used for scheduling appointments and for some order entry procedures. In the future, AHLTA will take over all CHCS functions with added ability to code each patient visit. Overall, AHLTA means shorter waits for patients, faster reporting of diagnostic test results, improved use of medical and professional resources, and significant improvement in the quality of patient care. b. CHCS is primarily used for scheduling appointments and for some order entry procedures. In the future, AHLTA will take over some CHCS functions with added ability to code each patient visit. Overall, AHLTA means shorter waits for patients, faster reporting of diagnostic test results, improved use of medical and professional resources, and significant improvement in the quality of patient care. c. AHLTA was created by the Integrated Inpatient Product Team (IPT) initiative to replace CHCS. d. CHCS was created by the IIPT initiative to replace AHLTA. |
a. CHCS is primarily used for scheduling appointments and for some order entry procedures. In the future, AHLTA will take over all CHCS functions with added ability to code each patient visit. Overall, AHLTA means shorter waits for patients, faster reporting of diagnostic test results, improved use of medical and professional resources, and significant improvement in the quality of patient care. |
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To what extent is Armed Forces Health Longitudinal Technology Application (AHLTA)used for patient care? a. It is not used for all aspects of patient care, including x-ray entry, and coding. b. It is not used for all aspects of patient care, only order entry, and coding. c. It is used for all aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding. d. It is used for some aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding. |
c. It is used for all aspects of patient care including order entry, and coding. |
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What Tri-service Initiative was created operated by the Military Healthcare System (MHS)to standardize electronic documentation of inpatient care? a. Integrated Inpatient Product Team. b. TRICARE Prime. c. Integrated Outpatient Product Team. d. TRICARE Standard. |
a. Integrated Inpatient Product Team. |
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How does the Integrated Inpatient Product Team (IIPT) initiative aim to streamline documentation? a. Minimizes variances and increase training by 50 percent. b. Improves access to training and care by 80 percent. c. Optimizes the use of best practices, maximize training, decrease variance. d. Standardizes and optimizes the use of best practices, minimize training, decrease variance. |
d. Standardizes and optimizes the use of best practices, minimize training, decrease variance. |
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What is the purpose of the individual medical readiness (IMR) software? a. An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) exams, individual medical readiness, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. b. An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, PHA exams, individual medical readiness, and physical examination standards. c. Clinical preventive service standards. d. Physical examination standards. |
a. An automated way of recording, verifying, and storing vital information about individual medical readiness metrics, Preventive Health Assessment (PHA) exams, individual medical readiness, physical examination standards, and clinical preventive services standards. |
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The purpose and outcome of individual medical readiness (IMR) objectives are to a. provide “real-time” medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to immediate supervisors so they can accurately plan duty schedules of their Air Force (AF) personnel. b. provide “real-time” medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of their assigned or enrolled AF personnel. c. optimize the Military Health Service (MHS) readiness status. d. optimize the Department of Defense (DOD) readiness status. |
b. provide “real-time” medical readiness assessment of IMR requirements to commanders, individuals and primary care managers (PCM) so they can manage and optimize the readiness status of their assigned or enrolled AF personnel. |
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What does individual medical readiness (IMR) status RED represent? a. Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago. b. Dental class 1 or class 2. c. Immunizations complete and up to date. [PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.] d. Immunizations missing or out of date. [PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4. Lab requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile.] |
d. Immunizations missing or out of date. [PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4. Lab requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile.] |
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What does individual medical readiness (IMR) status GREEN represent? a. Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago. b. Dental class 1 or class 2. c. Immunizations complete and up to date. [PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.] d. Immunizations missing or out of date. [PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4. Lab requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile.] |
c. Immunizations complete and up to date. [PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.] |
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What does individual medical readiness (IMR) status Yellow represent? a. Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago. b. Dental class 1 or class 2. c. Immunizations complete and up to date. [PHA within last 18 months. Dental class 1 or class 2. Lab requirements are current. No deployment-limiting profile.] d. Immunizations missing or out of date. [PHA more than 18 months ago. Dental class 3 or class 4. Lab requirements are missing. Deployment-limiting profile.] |
a. Preventive health assessment (PHA) less than 18 months ago. |
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Reengineering primary care services known as primary care optimization (PCO) and the need to recapture patient care from the private sector are being completed through a. TRICARE. b. Managed Care. c. Population Health Management. d. Military Health Service Management. |
c. Population Health Management. |
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What tool is used to assist primary care managers (PCM) in managing care for their enrolled population? a. Health Evaluation Assessment Review. b. Primary Care Managers review. c. Occupational Survey Report. d. Job inventory Survey. |
a. Health Evaluation Assessment Review. |
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To assess, monitor and encourage the demand for needed prevention services in the community are the goals for what kind of population health management? a. Demand. b. Condition. c. Community wellness. d. Occupational fitness. |
a. Demand. |
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The demand management concept is based on what foundation? a. Referring patients for specialty health care. b. Assessing already ill patients. c. Curing patients through treatment. d. Teaching patients about prevention. |
d. Teaching patients about prevention. |
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Who is eligible for TRICARE Prime? a. Active duty military and family members of an active duty sponsor. b. Active duty military and spouse of an active duty sponsor. c. Active duty military only. d. Active duty, reserve, and air national guard. |
a. Active duty military and family members of an active duty sponsor. |
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The Health Evaluation Assessment Review (HEAR) survey provides what specific information about the population’s health? a. Cholesterol result risks. b. Patients health risks and needs. c. Dependents health risks and needs. d. Diabetes screening risks. |
b. Patients health risks and needs. |
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What classifies health care financing for the poor? a. TRICARE for Life. b. TRICARE Standard. c. Medicare. d. Medicaid. |
d. Medicaid. |
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With which Health Maintenance Organization (HMO) does Region 2, the Mid-Atlantic area of the United States, have a contract to manage the TRICARE? a. Sierra Health Maintenance Organization (HMO). b. Health Net Federal Services. c. Lead agent. d. Humana. |
d. Humana. |
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Which is the most common choice for eligible beneficiaries? a. TRICARE Prime, Extra, Standard. b. CHAMPUS health insurance. c. Bluecross and Blueshield. d. Medicare. |
a. TRICARE Prime, Extra, Standard. |
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When was TRICARE for Life made available? a. 1 Sept 96. b. 30 Oct 99. c. 30 Sept 00. d. 1 Oct 01. |
d. 1 Oct 01. |
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What is one of the key features of TRICARE Prime? a. No enrollment fee for active duty members and their families. b. Wait list for care in military hospitals and clinics. c. Semi-annual enrollment fee for all dependents. d. Large fee per visit to civilian providers. |
a. No enrollment fee for active duty members and their families. |
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What was the former name of TRICARE Standard? a. Medicare. b. Medicaid. c. Blue Cross. d. Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS). |
d. Civilian Health and Medical Program of the Uniformed Services (CHAMPUS) |
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Under TRICARE Standard, what are the allowable costs for outpatient care for both active duty families and all other beneficiaries? a. 80 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 75 percent for retirees, their families, and all other eligible beneficiaries. b. 70 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 65 percent for retirees, their families and all other eligible beneficiaries. c. 60 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 80 percent for retirees, their families and all other eligible beneficiaries. d. 50 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 100 percent for retirees, their families and all other eligible beneficiaries. |
a. 80 percent of the approved allowable cost for outpatient care for active duty families and 75percent for retirees, their families, and all other eligible beneficiaries |
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A 45-year old patient presents to the emergency room with pain to her extremities. She complains the pain is worse at night? Which type of neuropathy does she have? a. Autonomic. b. Peripheral. c. Proximal. d. Focal. |
b. Peripheral. |
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What additional risk factors contribute to diabetic neuropathy? a. High blood pressure. b. Low insulin levels. c. High cholesterol. d. Lupus. |
a. High blood pressure. |
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Which of the following is a type of neuropathy and a brief description of it? a. Peripheral can cause either pain or loss of feeing in the toes, feet, legs, hands and arms. b. Somantic causes changes to organ systems like the digestive, sexual responses, and perspiration as well as the nerves that serve the heart. c. Medial neuropathy can cause pain in the shoulders, neck, arms that may lead to weakness in the upper body. d. Frontal neuropathy results in the sudden weakness of one muscle group of tendons causing weakness or pain at the site. |
a. Peripheral can cause either pain or loss of feeing in the toes, feet, legs, hands and arms. |
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Why is it important for all diabetic patients to perform daily foot care? a. Because the pain goes unnoticed with increased age. b. Brittle toenails develop due to poor circulation. c. Redness and swelling develop due to poor circulation. d. Blisters and sores appear on the numb areas of the foot because the pressure or injury goes unnoticed. |
d. Blisters and sores appear on the numb areas of the foot because the pressure or injury goes unnoticed. |
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Why do you suction a tracheostomy tube? a. Promote a positive outlook for the patient’s family. b. Clear the upper airway from any foreign body. c. Remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage. d. Clear out the vocal cords for better speech understanding. |
c. Remove secretions from the lower respiratory air passage. |
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When an unconscious patient is unable to breathe on their own, what is established? a. Suctioning. b. Tracheal tube. c. Nasal cannula. d. Endotracheal tube. |
d. Endotracheal tube. |
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When you convert the units 0.001 grams, it would equal to one a. milligram. b. centigram. c. microgram. d. decigram. |
a. milligram. |
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What are the benefits of ensuring medication reconciliation is completed? a. Eliminating narcotic drug errors. b. Increasing supply resources. c. Decreasing manning issues. d. Avoiding medication errors. |
d. Avoiding medication errors. |
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When you gather supplies to approximate a wound, what can be used in place of sutures or staples? a. Skin closure strips. b. Pressure dressing. c. Occlusive dressing. d. Band aid. |
a. Skin closure strips. |
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Why is the primary intention closure used when a surgical incision is made? a. Little tissue loss or damage. b. Wound size and location. c. Improve tissue recovery. d. High tissue loss or damage. |
a. Little tissue loss or damage. |
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In reference to doing a closure, what is a digital block? a. Minimizes the loss of blood. b. Increases wound healing timeframes. c. A tissue block that anesthetize the joint. d. A nerve block that anesthetize the finger. |
d. A nerve block that anesthetize the finger. |
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A patient checks into your clinic for same day surgery; what can you do to improve your customer service skills and make the patient feel at ease? a. Never show empathy or concern. b. Ask your peers what works for them. c. Build rapport and make a good first impression. d. Take as many classes on your off time to improve your customer service skills. |
c. Build rapport and make a good first impression |
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You notice a patient looking lost at the main entrance of the hospital. You approach and ask if he needs assistance. The patient proceeds to complain about a previous visit with their provider.When attempting to resolve this issue, at what level should you initiate resolution? a. Lowest. b. Squadron commander. c. Hospital commander. d. Wing commander. |
a. Lowest. |
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How are customer needs assessed? a. Customer evaluation. b. Employee evaluation. c. Anonymous survey. d. Initial feedback. |
a. Customer evaluation. |
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Why is building rapport at your job important? a. Increases brainstorming. b. Lowers external customer expectations. c. Improves internal and external relations. d. Builds harmonious relationship with patients. |
d. Builds harmonious relationship with patients. |
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What should you do if you cannot solve the patient’s problem? a. Find someone in the organization who can. b. Contact patient administration. c. Refer to front desk personnel. d. No actions are required. |
a. Find someone in the organization who can. |
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Why do you let the provider know if a QRS complex is wider than three blocks? a. Because of a possible heart block. b. Because of ventricular repolarization. c. Because the left atria is pacing the heart. d. You do not need to; the ventricles are normal. |
a. Because of a possible heart block. |
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Why do you need to know if your patient is dehydrated or on drugs prior to performing an electrocardiogram (ECG)? a. Because it elevates the P wave. b. Because it decreases the P wave. c. Because it gives an abnormal reading. d. It could influence the QT interval. |
d. It could influence the QT interval. |
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What is the first node that generates an electrical impulse that travels through the right and left atrial muscles? a. Atrioventricular. b. Sinoatrial. c. Tricuspid. d. Mitral. |
b. Sinoatrial. |
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Why is the repolarization of the atria not seen on an electrocardiogram (ECG)? a. Conduction of atria is weaker. b. Conduction of ventricle is less powerful. c. Electrical activity of the atria is more powerful. d. Electrical activity of the ventricle is more powerful. |
d. Electrical activity of the ventricle is more powerful. |
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What are likely causes of extrinsic mechanisms of arrhythmias? a. Heat exhaustion. b. Hypertension. c. Hypolemia. d. Synovitis. |
a. Heat exhaustion. |
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Which is a responsibility of the Physical Evaluation Board Liaison Officer (PEBLO)? a. Obtains evaluee or Next of Kin (NOK) signature on AF Form 618, Medical Board Report, forwards the completed Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) package to the disposition authority, and makes proper distribution of that authority’s responses. b. Completes AF Form 618, Medical Board Report; obtains signatures from the board members and the approval authority; and assembles the attachments to AF Form 618, Medical Board Report. c. Counseling members or next of kin on the Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356. d. Assists the evaluee in resolving any questions concerning the content of the report or summary. |
c. Counseling members or next of kin on the Physical Evaluation Board (PEB) findings and recommended disposition as documented on AF Form 356. |
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What is the intent of the assignment limitation code? a. Protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition and to prevent the assignment of non- worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations. b. Tracks members who are not worldwide qualified due to medical reasons and refers them to the servicing military treatment facility (MTF) for Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) processing. c. A personnel tool used by Military Personnel Flight (MPF) to ensure members with disabling illnesses/injuries are listed and evaluated every 12 months. d. Works in concert with the Overseas Medical Clearance Program to ensure dependents do not get stationed in locations without the proper medical facilities. |
a. Protect members from being placed in an environment where they may not receive adequate medical care for a possible life-threatening condition and to prevent the assignment of non worldwide qualified personnel to overseas locations. |
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Which is a responsibility of the Medical Evaluation Board (MEB) clerk? a. Schedules cases for board hearings. b. Ensuring accurate and complete case records are sent to the Physical Evaluation Board (PEB). c. Requesting commander’s letter and keeping member’s commander/first shirt apprised of the member’s case status. d. Advising the patient administration or hospital services office of the final disposition of all cases where the member underwent PEB processing in an outpatient status. |
a. Schedules cases for board hearings |
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What two things determine a member’s security clearance? a. Rank and base. b. Citizenship and place of birth. c. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) and assignment. d. Background clearance and date of birth. |
c. Air Force specialty code (AFSC) and assignment. |
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When are medical standards applied? a. Annually at every visit an Active Duty (AD) or Air Reserve Component (ARC) member makes it to your clinic. b. Bi-annually at every clinic visit. c. Every visit an AD or ARC member makes it to your clinic. d. Semi-annual at every visit an AD or Air National Guard (ANG) member makes it to your clinic. |
c. Every visit an AD or ARC member makes it to your clinic. |
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Which conditions are not eligible for referral to the disability evaluation system? a. Unfitting. b. Unsuiting. c. Duty limiting. d. Duty restriction. |
a. Unfitting |
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What is a recommendation resulting from a medical evaluation, which, if applied explicitly,limits or restricts an Airman’s ability to perform primary and/or additionally assigned duties,deploy (mobility), or participate in fitness activities? a. Unfitting. b. Unsuiting. c. Duty limiting. d. Duty restriction. |
d. Duty restriction |
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What is the maximum number of days that the AF Form 469, Duty Limiting ConditionReport and AF Form 422, Notification of Air Force Member’s Qualification Status is good for? a. 90 .b. 120. c. 180. d. 365. |
d. 365. |
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An Airmen should be referred to the Deployment Availability Working Group (DAWG) if a mobility restriction goes over how many days? a. 90. b. 120. c. 180. d. 365. |
A. 90 |
