4N051A Cdc Vol.1

Front 1

How is doctrine applied?

Back 1

Authoritative but not directive.

Front 2

Which of the following is the primary guide used by Air Force Medical Service Commanders
to accomplish their mission?

Back 2

AFDD 2–4.2, Health Services

Front 3

Why is Medical Doctrine necessary?

Back 3

Guides commanders in using assets.

Front 4

What type of doctrine guides organization and employment of forces within distinct
objectives, but is broad in its functional areas and operational environment?

Back 4

Operational.

Front 5

Tactical Doctrine can be explained best by which of the following examples?

Back 5

A car buyer because they can choose specific qualities to fit their individual needs such as speed
or safety factors.

Front 6

Which of the following is not one of the three foundational Doctrine statements airman
should be familiar with?

Back 6

Use of Force.

Front 7

While commander's hold ultimate responsibility for morale, health and wellness of their
personnel, who is responsible for maintaining individual health and fitness?

Back 7

Every airman.

Front 8

When professional knowledge, medical expertise and technological know-how are combined,
what specific Air Force Medical Service Foundational Doctrine is accomplished?

Back 8

Competency.

Front 9

What figure in an Air Force Specialty Codes identifies career grouping?

Back 9

First.

Front 10

How many parts make up the Career Field Education and Training Plan?

Back 10

Two.

Front 11

In what part of the Career Field Education and Training Plan will you locate the Specialty
Training Standard?

Back 11

Two.

Front 12

Where would you find the specific outline of training goals, milestones and circled core
tasks for areas requiring training for the enlisted members within an assigned area?

Back 12

Master Training Plan.

Front 13

Which of the following is identified by a Special Experience Identifier?

Back 13

Aeromedical Evacuation Technician.

Front 14

Who is generally the first member of a unit to have contact with patients and performs a
great deal of care under the guidance of a physician?

Back 14

Aerospace medical service journeyman.

Front 15

When a formalized training program begins and the trainee is primarily focused on
developing patient care skills, customer service skills and beginning to practice leadership and
management skills, the trainee is in training to transition from the

Back 15

journeyman to the craftsman.

Front 16

Why is it important for the 4N0XX to develop excellent customer service?

Back 16

Positively influence the patient's visit.

Front 17

Who may request a 4N0X1 Job Inventory?

Back 17

Career Field Manager.

Front 18

How often is the 4N0XX Job Inventory normally completed?

Back 18

Three years.

Front 19

Who is responsible for completing the Graduate Assessment Survey?

Back 19

Supervisor.

Front 20

What is the purpose of documenting training?

Back 20

Document capability, scope of practice and strength and weakness.

Front 21

On what form would you document specific duty position training that is not listed on the
Specialty Training Standard?

Back 21

AF Form 797, Job Qualification Standard Continuation/Command JQS.

Front 22

When may the AETC Form 156, Student Training Report be removed from the Individual
Training Record?

Back 22

When the Airman is upgraded from the 3-skill level to the 5-skill level.

Front 23

Where would the National Registry of Emergency Medical Technicians certificate and the
cardiopulmonary resuscitation card be filed in the Individual Training Record?

Back 23

Part 6, Section B.

Front 24

What is a key point that should be considered when conducting in-service training?

Back 24

Evaluate learning through performance or tests.

Front 25

What system is the primary tool used to make manpower, budget, and other important
resource allocation decisions for medical personnel?

Back 25

MEPRS.

Front 26

How are activities grouped on the Medical Expense and Performance Reporting System?

Back 26

Type and section.

Front 27

What tool is used to list the personnel assigned to a work center?

Back 27

UPMR.

Front 28

Which of the following is a funded manpower requirement that defines the postion in terms
of function, organization, location, skill, grade and any other characteristic needed to clearly
define the position?

Back 28

Manpower Authorization.

Front 29

Who approves or disapproves an Authorization Change Request?

Back 29

MAJCOM.

Front 30

Who is responsible for the control, care, use and safeguarding of public property under
control of the Air Force?

Back 30

Each individual.

Front 31

Who is the designated individual that is responsible to ensure adequate storage space for
medical supplies and equipment, records are maintained and discipline of supply use?

Back 31

Commanders.

Front 32

By training new personnel on proper equipment what is the supervisor likely to prevent?

Back 32

Equipment damage and injury to a patient.

Front 33

What percentage of medical equipment operation malfunctions are normally attributed to
operator error?

Back 33

70 percent.

Front 34

What is the name of the product that is generated through DMLSS and lists information
pertaining to all supply and equipment items that have been issued to or turned in from a section?

Back 34

Activity issue/turn-in summary.

Front 35

What actions should the property custodian take if a backorder item is no longer needed?

Back 35

Attempt to cancel the order through MEMO.

Front 36

What should you do if an item has been on backorder for more than 30 days?

Back 36

Ask MEMO personnel to check on the order.

Front 37

When does a new property custodian assumes responsibility for items on the
property/equipment list?

Back 37

Upon signing the custodian receipt/locator list.

Front 38

Before taking over an equipment account, the new equipment custodian must

Back 38

conduct a physical inventory of equipment.

Front 39

When may the AF Form 601 be destroyed?

Back 39

When the ordered item is added to or taken off the CRL.

Front 40

How often are equipment inspections usually conducted?

Back 40

Daily.

Front 41

What are the three actions to remember when looking for discrepancies with equipmen

Back 41

Inspect, remove, and report.

Front 42

What is the primary source for recording equipment repair?

Back 42

AF Form 1297, Temporary Issue Receipt or Custodian actions/custodial report listing.

Front 43

Who should you contact to obtain the most current procedures and local policy for
equipment problems or concerns?

Back 43

Biomedical equipment repair technician.

Front 44

Which of the following defines nonmaleficence?

Back 44

The duty to do no harm.

Front 45

Which of the following defines fidelity?

Back 45

Acting in a responsible manner.

Front 46

What specifically defines the scope of practice of the 4N0X1 career field?

Back 46

STS.

Front 47

What are patient responsibilities designed to do?

Back 47

Protect other patients and health care workers.

Front 48

Each medical treatment facility must develop a local policy that includes circumstances
requiring the presence of a third party during an examination or treatment at the request of the
provider or patient for which of the following responsibilities?

Back 48

Chaperone.

Front 49

During which stage of the grieving process is it most important to allow a patient to do most
of the talking?

Back 49

Depression.

Front 50

Which form is used to inform the patient the purpose and uses of information collected in
their medical record?

Back 50

DD Form 2005.

Front 51

Why is the DD Form 2005, Privacy Act Statement – Health Care Records used when
providing medical care?

Back 51

Eliminates the need for a privacy act statement with each medical or dental document.

Front 52

Which category of personnel does the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
affect?

Back 52

Anyone handling patient information.

Front 53

For general guidance regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act, use

Back 53

DOD Regulation 6025.18-R

Front 54

Which phase of a patient relationship is described by establishing the identity and role of
the patient and the health care worker and clarifying the reason for the appointment or
hospitalization?

Back 54

Introductory.

Front 55

Which of the following is considered a barrier to effective communication?

Back 55

Talking too much.

Front 56

Who is considered the patient advocate?

Back 56

Every staff member.

Front 57

Who is an excellent resource to guide a patient that is having difficulty understanding
facility procedures or off-base referral services?

Back 57

The patient advocate.

Front 58

What is the purpose of the Patient Advocacy Program?

Back 58

Provide an unbiased third party.

Front 59

What is the purpose of customer service surveys used in the medical treatment facility?

Back 59

Collect feedback and determine ways to better serve the patients.

Front 60

Should technicians give medical advice over the telephone?

Back 60

No; advice over the phone leads to inaccurate self treatment and is legally risky.

Front 61

How should you handle a non-emergent telephone call for the provider if he/she is with a
patient and the caller does not want to hold?

Back 61

Take a message and hand it to the provider at the earliest opportunity.

Front 62

Which of the following is an appropriate way to help relieve a patient's stress?

Back 62

Remain honest and in control to decrease the patient's anxiety.

Front 63

Analysis of performance and health status is the responsibility of which primary care
management team member?

Back 63

Nurse.

Front 64

What four components make up the PCM team?

Back 64

Provider, nurse, medical technician and health services management technician.

Front 65

When a PCM team is successful in achieving the team goal, what must each member do?

Back 65

Contribute at their highest level of scope of practice.

Front 66

It is important for a health care team to work in harmony to ensure

Back 66

the best care is provided to our customers.

Front 67

Which one of the following is not a habit of successful PCM teams?

Back 67

Being punctual.

Front 68

Who is ultimately responsible for establishing an individual's eligibility for medical care in
the Defense Enrollment Eligibility Reporting System?

Back 68

MPF.

Front 69

At what age are children required to have their own ID cards?

Back 69

Ten.

Front 70

When a patient requests medical care but has questionable eligibility, you should
a. make them an appointment and worry about the details later.

Back 70

have a nurse or other competent medical authority perform a risk assessment.

Front 71

If a patient has an emergency and you do not know if they are eligible for care, you should

Back 71

provide the patient care and then determine eligibility.

Front 72

Patients treated without initial proof of eligibility must sign a statement saying they will
provide eligibility documentation within what time frame?

Back 72

30 days.

Front 73

When confirming a patient's information, which of the following information systems
would you rely on to capture, edit and maintain sponsor/family demographics?

Back 73

DEERS.

Front 74

Enrollment information from DEERS is sent to the MTF at least

Back 74

quarterly.

Front 75

If you are working in CHCS, what function would not be available for you to use?

Back 75

Outpatient coding data.

Front 76

If you are trying to determine the deployment status of a unit, what system should you use
that will support Force Health Protection, Population Health, and MHS optimization?

Back 76

AHLTA.

Front 77

When patient care is not documented what can be assumed about the patient's treatment?

Back 77

No care or treatment was accomplished.

Front 78

Before managed care, who shouldered the responsibility for follow-up care?

Back 78

Patient.

Front 79

The ICD–9 is divided into how many sections?

Back 79

Four.

Front 80

What does the abbreviation NEC stand for when used in ICD–9?

Back 80

not elsewhere classified.