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292 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
Which agency functions to assist the SECAF in carrying out the responsibilities of the office?
Air Staff
"How many subordinate units does the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) have?"
6
"Which office is responsible for providing administrative support to the Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) by managing workflow, tracking correspondence, administering and monitoring security and safety programs, and overseeing supplies and equipment purchases?"
Executive Service (A1/A1Z)
"This office defines the Culture of Airmen, including core standards, value, and expectations."
Directorate of Airman Development and Sustainment
Which office does AF/A1 communicate with to ensure corporate Air Force requirements link mission capabilities to programmed resources?
Directorate of Manpower and Organization (AF/A1M)
This office plans and executes the Base Realignment and Closure (BRAC) program.
Directorate of Manpower and Organization (A1/A1M)
"The Deputy Chief of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) utilizes the Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P) to communicate all of the following except"
Developing doctrine and legislative guidance
"Which office implements programs, such as “Stop Loss”, to effectively shape and balance the Air Force’s Total Force?"
Directorate of Force Management Policy (AF/A1P)
"Which office serves as the program manager for planning, programming, and developing information technology (IT) for the Deputy of Staff, Manpower and Personnel (AF/A1)?"
Directorate of Plans and Integration (AF/A1X)
Which FOA primarily accomplishes their mission by ensuring the right numbers of people in the right grades and skills are available to perform the missions of unit commanders worldwide?
Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)
The AFPC integrates and executes personnel operations to develop Air Force people and
Meet Field commander require requirements
Who does the AFPC support by providing transition assistance and support?
Air Force retirees
Which directorate assists HQ AFPC with facilitating the professional development of all enlisted members and officers below the grade of colonel?
Assignments
"For assistance with recruiting and training interns to provide future Air Force leaders, HQ AFPC contacts the Directorate of"
Civilian Force Integration
"Which directorate assist HQ AFPC with developing guidance, procedures and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve, and civilian personnel accountability?"
Force Operations
"Which directorate is primary responsible for reporting casualties worldwide, notifying family members, and providing assistance to families and field commanders on benefits and entitlements?"
Force Operation
Which directorate assist HQ AFPC with information technology and life cycle management?
Personnel Data Systems
"Which directorate is responsible for developing guidance, procedures, and training for active duty, Guard, Reserve, and civilian personnel directly supporting Air Force programs?"
Personnel Services
Which FOA is responsible for determining requirements needed to execute wartime and home-station capabilities supporting Air Force concepts of operations (CONOPS)?
Air Force Manpower Agency (AFMA)
"What FOA does the Deputy Chief of Staff, manpower and Personnel (AF/A1) look to for measuring and managing the outcome of improved service delivery and efficient investment in human capital?"
Air Force Personnel Operation Agency
What authorizations were reduced to save money during Program Budget Decision (PBD 720) ?
Manpower
What component is compromised of an information technology solution that is provided to commanders to support their personal needs?
Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM)
How many flights were each organization realigned and consolidated into during Phase I of the MSS transformative structure testing?
Five
The MAJCOM is the highest level of command below HAF and directly above the
Numbered Air Force
How do the MAJCOM monitor the effectiveness of MPS and CSS programs?
Periodic Staff Assistance Visits
"As of August 2009, how many major commands made up the Air Force structure?"
10
The Air and Space Expeditionary Center (AEFC) is a direct reporting unit assigned under
HQ AFPC
The AEFC is responsible for executing the Air Force battle rhythm by centrally managing the scheduling and sourcing of forces to meet the requirements of
Combatant Commanders
"Why did the AEFC move from Langley AFB, VA to Randolph AFB, TX?"
To merge two centers together with a focus on operationalizing personnel under one commander
The Air Force Reserve Command vision is to have citizen
"Airmen fully engaged in global vigilance, reach, and power"
Approximately how many aircraft are assigned to the AF Reserve Command?
440
The Air National Guard (ANG) has both a federal and
State Mission
"Hurricane Katrina, that hit Louisiana/Mississippi Gulf Coast in August 2005, was one of the most devastating hurricanes of all times. Which agency was activated to help with this natural disaster?"
Air National Guard Bureau
"What percentage of the Air Force’s tactical airlift support does the ANG provide for combat communications functions, aero medical evacuations, and aerial refueling operations?"
50%
"When ANG units are not mobilized or under federal control, they report to the"
Governor
What does the first position of an AFSC identify?
Career group
A combination of the first and second positions of an AFSC identifies the
Career Field
"What does the combination of the 1st, 2nd, and 3rd position of an AFSC identify?"
Career field subdivision
The 4th position of an AFSC identifies
Skill level
Which skill level identifies personnel with a high degree of technical knowledge who have acquired additional supervisory capabilities through training and knowledge?
Seven
Which type of AFSC is initially based on how the member is classified at the time of enlistment or during basic training?
Control
The duties and responsibilities of the personnel craftsman include all of the following except
Advise civilians on civilian personnel issues and programs
Which is not a PERSCO function that a personnel craftsman performs?
Personnel Classification
"What skill level identifies enlisted personnel who through experience, training, and performance, have shown a high degree of managerial and supervisory ability?"
9
"Regarding training, a superintendent must emphasize to an Airman that"
Training is a key to the success of the Air Force
What is the SNCO primary purpose?
Mission accomplishment
What rank transitions from being a technical experts and first line supervisors to leaders with operational competence?
MSgt
"These are experienced operational leaders, skilled at merging subordinates talents, skills, and resources with other teams functions to most effectively accomplish the mission"
SMSgt
What enlisted rank must epitomize the finest qualities of a military lender and develop future enlisted leaders?
CMSgt
The strategy of the AF OJT program provides realistic and flexible training by using all of the following capabilities except
Enhancing
The AF OJT program consists of all the following components except job
Satisfaction
What is key to the total training program?
Upgrade Training (UGT)
"What training title is awarded after personnel complete a mandatory career development course (CDC), all core tasks identified in the career field education and training plan (CFETP) and other duty position tasks?"
Journeyman
"The type of training is defined a specialized, systematic and/or thorough technical training provided to enhance specific knowledge needs of each person involved in the training"
In House Training
"As a supervisor, what do you require to develop a Master Training Plan (MTP) used to manage work center and individual training?"
Career Field Education and Training Plan (CFETP)
"What document identifies all day to day mission requirements, core task, in-garrison and contingency tasks, and additional duties performed in the work center?"
Master Training Plan
"Who is responsible for imitating personnel action on trainees entering, completing, or withdrawing from training"
Unit Training Manager
The focal point of the AF training program is the
Trainee
"Why is it important to document interruptions to upgrade training, such as leave or temporary duty, on the AF IMT 623a, OJT Record-Continuation Sheet?"
"In case the trainee has difficulty with upgrade training, documentation can be referenced."
All of the following are the trainee's responsibilities in the upgrade training process except
Documenting training progress on the AF IMT 623a
Why is it important to develop and implement control measures when dealing with classified information?
To decrease the possibility of classified information falling into the wrong hands
Which is not an installation security program managers program responsibility?
Indocinating personnel to the investigation position code reflected in the unit manpower document.
Within how many days of assignment to the unit must supervisors ensure their cleared personnel receive an initial security education orientation before they access classified information?
90 days
Which application is used only by adjudicative personnel and provides capabilities such as case management and adjudicative history and summary?
Joint Adjudication Management System (JAMS)
"Which application is used for providing capabilities such as access indoctrination, debriefing history, incident and issue file reporting, and management of unit personnel security functions?"
Joint Clearance and Access Verification System (JCAVS
"It is important to use the SF 312, when granting an individual access to classified information to ensure"
You have a source document signed and dated by the individual
"When a individual refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement for access to classified information, the commander or staff agency chief does all of the following except:"
Grants temporary access to classified information until the form is signed
It is important for the commander or staff agency chief to complete a three step process against an individual who refuses to sign a nondisclosure agreement because the
Refusal may be indicative of suspicious or negative behavior.
Why is it imperative to complete the four step authorization process when confirming a person’s level of access to classified information?
Because each step is an intricate piece of the “checks and balance” process
Authority to grant security clearance access to persons outside the Executive Branch without a previous clearance may not be delegated below the
MAJCOM Commander
Why is it important to consider your environment when hand carrying sensitive material?
The may get confiscated by unauthorized personnel
"When transporting laptops and disks, couriers must do all of the following except"
Erase laptops and disks completely before transporting
Personnel who need to transport classified material will use Dept. of State courier system to transport
Through or within countries hostile to the US
Classified communications security (COMSEC) information may not be transmitted
Overnight
Who is responsible for making sure an authorized person is available to receive a secure package on a holiday and to verify the correct mailing address?
Sender
Which is not considered one of the five principle of good communication?
Justification
How many effective communication steps are needed to become a better communicator whether you are writing or speaking?
Seven
"In order to be successful when communicating with your audience, use all of the following tips except"
Being original
Use all of the following approaches when researching your topic to uncover information that supports your communication goals except
Avoid asking your supervisor until you have all the information
What rule of e-mail communication would you use to make sure the subject line communicates your purpose
Be clear and concise
"What e-mail communication rule is violated if you discuss controversial, sensitive official use only, classified, personnel, or privacy act information?"
Be selective about the message you send
What DJMS update is used to change an initial E63 projection prior to the effective date of RE action?
E64
Which DJMS update is used to change a date of separation only in MMPA?
TU04
"What DFAS reject code appears when a RE clerk updates a RE or EXT, but does not include the obligated service?"
RDJ
What DJMS update is used to cancel an extension prior to the effective date and is automatically output when the extension is cancelled?
TU6
An individual cannot change MilPDS standard products. Who designs and controls those products?
HQ AFPC
How often are TR programmatically controlled and produced?
Daily.
"What agency or individual, coordinates on all suggested changes and/or improvements to management assessment products (MAPS)?"
PSM
What MAP product reflects an inbound member’s name if the member contacts customer service stating a sponsor has not been assigned?
MAP 7A
Which MAP would a member’s name be reflected on if administrative certification under the PRP is required and the member is project to Minot?
MAP 13B
What MAP can the career development section use to ensure database integrity if a member is projected for a PCS and is demoted before departure?
MAP 6
"A member's date of enlistment or day entering and extension, requires an E63 update be input into MilPDS NET"
120 days
Challenges and threats of those who are opposed to US values and interests may arise from
Adversaries
What are the 4 basic instruments of national power the US relies on for its security?
"Diplomatic, economic, informational, and military"
The US Armed Forces shape and employ the military instrument to defend interest and objective guided by
National Security Policy
What presents the fundamental principle that guides the armed forces in support of national objectives and shapes the way the armed forces think about the use of the military instrument of national power?
Doctrine
What provides authoritative guidance base upon existing capabilities of our Armed Forces?
Joint Doctrine
The type of doctrine that states the most fundamental and enduring beliefs that describe and guide the proper use of Air Forces in military action is known as
Basic doctrine
"Doctrine that guides the proper organization and employment of forces in the context of distinct objectives, force capabilities, functional areas, and environmental is referred to as"
Operational doctrine
"Which process is considered a sequential process performed simultaneously at the strategic, operational, and tactical levels of war?"
Joint Operation planning
At what level does joint operation planning involve developing military objectives and tasks in support National Security Strategy (NSS) and developing requirements necessary to accomplish these task?
Strategic
Joint operations planning is conducted within the chain of command that runs from the president through the
Secretary of Defense
"What are the joint operation planning activities that support the development of operations plans, concept plans, functional plans, and operation orders?"
"Mobilization, deployment, employment, sustainment, and redeployment"
The planning process by which the armed forces or part of them are brought to a state of readiness for war or other national emergency describes which joint operation planning activity?
Mobilization
Planning that encompasses the movement of forces and their sustainment resources from their original locations to a specific destination to conduct joint operations describes which joint operation planning activity?
Deployment
The Joint Operation planning activity that describes how to apply military force to attain specified military objectives within an operational area is
Employment
"What type of plan includes all required annexes, appendices, and a supporting time-phased force deployment data (TPFDD)?"
Operational
A plan to develop sound operational and sound concepts that can be rapidly expanded into an operation order (OPORD) if necessary describes which type of plan?
Concept Plan
"Which joint and services planning system is the DOD directed single, integrated joint command and control for conventional operation planning and execution?"
Joint Operations Planning Execution System
Which joint and service planning system’s objective is to enable Air Force unique operation planning process which includes associated joint policy procedures?
Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment
"Which joint and service planning system provides the Air Staff, Air Force planners, and Air Force commanders with current policies, apportioned forces, and planning factors for conducting and supporting operations?"
War and Mobilization Plan System
Which joint and service planning system is the single automated reporting system within the DoD functioning as the central registry of all operational units to the US armed forces and certain foreign organizations?
Status of Recourses and Training System
"Who develops procedures for administrative support of active, reserve components, and retirees?"
Functional directorates
Which military department was not established by the National Security Act of 1947?
Marines
American military power plays a vital role in all of the following except
Politics
The ANG is a unique institution with both
Federal and State missions
Most ANG flying units can trace their lineage break to the
1920s and 30s
The Reserves defend to the US through control and exploitation of air and space by supporting what type of engagement?
Global
The readiness of the reserves allow for rapid expansion of the total force through what form of movement?
Mobilization
The Reserves bring what three things to the military environment from their civilian employment
"Talent, depth, and experience"
The depth of experience the Reserves forces bring to the mission and the Air Force is an invaluable
Commodity
Reserves friendships and team work that develop over time provide esprit-de-corps to the unit along with what other strength
Stability
To meet the national security challenges of the 21st century the Air and Space Expeditionary Force (AEF) concept was designed to do what for air and space forces?
"Organize, train, equip, and sustain"
AEF concept provides trained and ready air and space forces for what type of defense?
National Defense
The AEF primary purpose is to provide
War-fighter support
The AEF doctrine is vital to understanding how best to employ air and space power along with understanding the proper way to do what with air and space forces?
"Organize, present, and deploy"
The AF organized its total force into how many AEFs
10
"In order for the AEF to maintain a sustainable rotational rhythm, how many AEFs are tasked at any time?"
2
The goal of the AEF concept is to
Equitably align available AF UTC across 10 AEFs so each possesses equal capabilities
"When the air and space expeditionary task force is responsible for sustaining all base operation and support functions, it normally organizes as a/an"
Air and Expeditionary Wing
What group in the air and space expeditionary force construct is the basic war fighting organization of the Air Force and is the building block of the air and space expeditionary task force?
Air and Space Expeditionary Squadrons
"Once an Airman arrives at a base, he or she is required to report to the"
Military Personnel Section
The AEF operates on a how many month life cycle
24 month
What agency publishes a planning order outlining various milestones necessary to staff and publish the associated Global Force management allocation plan (GFMAP)?
Joint Staff
Which capability library contains a fixed capability that at any given time identifies forces that constitute the total force that has been made available or allocated for scheduling?
Air Expeditionary Force
"At any given time, how many AEF block(s) and or pair(s) from each tempo band is in the AEF vulnerability period.."
One
A guidance used to determine when a UTC must be developed when
New equipment types enter the inventory
"In addition to HAF, which agencies usually initiate"
"Functional Area Manager (FAM), MAJCOM, ANG, FOA, DRU"
What is the basic building block used in force planning and the development of air and space expeditionary task forces?
Unit Type Codes
Deviations to the Air and Space expeditionary force construct may be implemented on a case by case basis with those approval?
Chief of Staff
"The concept of mobilization is associated with “calling up” reserve Component forces. What does “calling up” do, if anything, to the active duty military capability?"
Increase military capabilities
The concept of mobilization can be associated with all activities necessary for the orderly transition of both active Reserve Component forces from peacetime to
Wartime posture
Which is not a Title 10 USC most often used term for mobilization
Spatial
"If the president or Congress expanded the active Armed Forces up to 1,000,000 members, not to exceed 24 consecutive months, they elected what type of mobilization?"
Partial Mobilization
Which of the follow is not a tenet that describes the characteristics of a successful mobilization?
Being subjective
"The mobilization tenet necessary to develop an appropriate response in a crisis, overcome unforeseen problems, and provide protection of the forces and equipment while adapting to certainties and adjusting to the idea of war describes"
Being flexible
"Which mobilization tenet is achieved through rapid needs assessment, efficient mobilization procedures and frequent exercises to test and improve procedures?"
Ensuring timeliness
"Days that are allocated, or put aside, for use by the AF Reserve and ANG officers, NCO, and Airmen are commonly referred to as"
Military Personnel appropriations man days
Military personnel appropriations (MPA) man-days tours usually include a maximum of how many travel days?
One day
"When performing military personnel appropriation man-days, Airmen and their families are entitled to the same medical care as active duty personnel as long as their orders specify a period of"
31 days or greater
"When the SecAF authorized deactivation of an ARC, the authority may be delegated to the"
MAJCOM commander
"The process of terminating orders, notifying individuals or units, and transferring individuals or units from federal active status to their pervious reserve describes"
Deactivation
"In regards to special orders and travel vouchers, deactivation or demobilization is documented by using which date?"
Demobilization date authorized by applicable MAJCOM on the DD Form 214
"If activated personnel experience personal, financial, or medical hardship caused by mobilization early deactivation, or demobilization they can request to"
Remain on active duty up to the original activation period
"Once the military personnel section receives the hardship package, reviews the package, and requests a RIP, how many days do they have to forward the package to the appropriate agency?"
Three duty days
"During natural disasters or national emergencies, the ability to quickly assess the status of AF airmen, Dept. of the Air Force, NAF civilians, and families is critical to resuming normal"
Operations
Whose responsibility is it to make sure an up to date unit recall roster is maintained and forwarded to the installation command post?
Commander
Why is it important to maintain a communications out recall roster?
Local communications may be inoperative or overload
"After a catastrophic event, accountability of personnel occur within the Air Force Personnel Accountability Assessment System when"
Affected personnel report their whereabouts in AFPAAS
"In regards to the Air Force personnel accountability assessment system, which agency serves as the primary distribution and collection point for information regarding impacted threatened personnel?"
HQ AFPC/PRC
"In regards to the AFPAAS, which agency has the responsibility for scheduling case management training through the Defense Connect Online with Space and Naval Warfare System Center"
HQ AFPC/DPSIA
"Within the AFAAS, who has the ability and access to complete a needs assessment on behalf of Airmen or family members?"
Commanding Officer representatives
What type of evacuation plan must individuals maintain in anticipation of national crisis or natural disasters?
Realistic and actionable
The installation personnel readiness element (IPR) serves as the military personnel sections war planner for personnel
"Deployments, exercises, contingencies, and rotational matters."
"To provide the most accurate accountability, what procedures must the personnel deployment functions (PDF) establish for augmenting personnel?"
In-processing
"When announced by the Joint Staff or AF leadership, which crisis action team has the responsibility to direct personnel accountability and assessment in support of real-world or exercise events?"
Air Force Crisis action team (AF CAT)
Who has jurisdiction over the personnel control center?
MPS Commander
"During an exercise, inspection, or a disaster control exercise, who serves as the personnel control center (PCC) or personnel readiness center (PRC) reporting directly to the battle staff?"
Installation Personnel Readiness element
The installation personnel readiness elements (IPR) provides all of the following PERSCO team training except
Training on the reclama and shortfall process and executing personnel data system updates
"What document is used to monitor force build-up, identify unfilled positions, and initiate replacement actions?"
Employment requirement manning documents
"Maintaining accountability over all personnel on the ground and at their deployed locations, regardless of status, according to component command policies describes what type of accountability?"
Strength
"Interchanging and recording of information between the individual, other agencies, and the personnel functions necessary to ensure timely, accurate, and reception of personnel resources describes"
Preparation of movement
"If a member ‘s legal, fiscal, moral, and informational needs are not being met, what responsibility is the personnelist not fulfilling?"
Personnel Support
Personnel from what organization are eligible for assignment to the PERSCO team?
Force Support Squadron
"When selecting a personnel for PERSCO team, the PERSCO team chief, MPS and commander must select the"
Most qualified personnel
Who has overall responsibility for AF personnel readiness and accountability programs and directives?
HQ USAF/A1PR
Which activity is considered the reach back enabler that plans and delivers versatile Air and Space power to the right place at the right time to support commander AF forces mission needs?
HQ AFPC/ DPW
Which activity serves as the office of primary responsibility for deployment availability codes and duty status reporting programs?
HQ AFPC/DPWR
Overseeing AEF UTC reporting tool (ART) to ensure postured personnel UTC meet all deployment capabilities is the responsibility of the
Wing Commander
"Making sure that military personnel section provides prompt support to deployed commander and base personnel during contingency, wartime, exercise, and emergency operations is the responsibility of the"
MPS commander
The requirements is specific contingency situations must be continuously monitored and reviews by the
Component command personnel planner
Which phase begins once a real world situation develops requiring AF personnel and resources to respond?
Planning
"During n increased readiness posture, PERSCO team members must be able to arrive at their assigned MPS within the timeliness outlined in the"
Designed operation capability response time
PERSCO team must arrive at the military personnel section within 6 hours of the original alert order or deployment notification as
Ready to deploy
"The current operations plan or concept plan should be reviewed, if available, to prepare for PERSCO team deployment requirements upon receipt of a(n)"
Warning order
Who has the responsibility to ensure the equipment custodian completes an annual inventory of supplies and equipment?
PT Chief
Equipment custodian for PERSCO logistics force packaging system (LOGFOR) equipment and Deliberate and Crisis Action Planning and Execution Segment is appointed by the
FSS Commander
Which UTC is considered or call the PERSCO accountability team and is the only stand alone PERSCO team?
RFPF1
It is imperative the PERSCO team maintain a hard copy of the accountability file because
Electronic File information can be lost at any time due to equipment malfunction
"During the reception process, the PERSCO team is required to collect what documents?"
2 copies of CED orders and 245
PERSCO team will coordinate with all deployed support agencies and become involved in the process personnel when the
RCC is not established
"Which phase is a transition phase from a build-up or surge phase, where the majority of the main operating force has arrived and completed in-processing actions?"
Sustainment operations and actions
The military member’s physical address at the time of joining a particular Service is considered their
home of record.
You may only have one legal residence at a time but each time you are transferred to a new location you may change your
residency.
"For voting purposes when residing outside the US, the address where you last resided immediately prior to your departure is considered,"
legal state of residence.
Voting in an election for what type of office may not be used as the sole basis to determine residency for the purposes of imposing state and local taxes
Federal.
"Who is responsible for providing details on elections and recorded messages from candidates governors, US Senators and Representatives?"
Voting Information Center
Which organization has the responsibility to include the voting program as an annual item for review/ to evaluate the effectiveness/ and ensure compliance with Department of Defense regulations and public law?
Air Force Inspector General
Who has the responsibility to ensure each base Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) completes a Federal Voting Assistance Program (FVAP) designated training workshop or media training course?
Major Command Staff
When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the civilian’s minimum grade is
GS-12.
When the installation commander appoints the Installation Voting Assistance Officer (IVAO) he or she must make sure the military member’s minimum grade is
O-4.
"Per every 100 members, the unit commander will appoint in writing the Unit Voting Assistance Counselor (UVAC), at the minimum grade of"
E-7.
Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses per adoptive child up to
"$2,000.00 "
"Married Service members who adopt a child may be reimbursed reasonable and necessary adoption expenses per calendar year up to,"
"$5,000.00 "
Up to how many months after finalization of an adoption can Service members submit a request for reimbursement of adoption expenses?
12 month
"In unusual circumstances it may be appropriate to honor deceased military members other than Air Force personnel (Army/Navy/ or Marine Corps). In such instances, the approval authority is the,"
Air Force Chief of Staff.
"Which organization does not have the authority under the Air Force memorialization program to name streets buildings, rooms, and facilities?,"
Numbered Air Force
All requests under the Air Force memorialization program to name medical facilities must be staffed for approval by the
Air Force Chief of Staff
Which objective is not a Casualty Services Program objective?
Assist the family with funeral arrangements
Casualty reporting is an important responsibility function of
command.
Who has overall responsibility for the program objectives and for the management and operation of the Air Force Casualty Program?
"Chief, Casualty Matters, Division"
Which organization ensures squadron commanders are provided casualty services information and training during the Commander’s Orientation Program?
Major Command
Ensuring all casualty services personnel at serviced GSU and CAST members are trained to handle supplemental instructions/ messages for reporting casualties/ and notification is the responsibility of the
Casualty assistance representative.
"Once the CAR notifies the family members of casualties he or she provides the mortuary services officers and the public affairs (PA) office the member’s,"
"name, age/ home of record/race/ and rewards."
"In the case of mass casualty and by the order of the FSS commander; who will the CAR contact?,"
Casualty team
"When a commander determines that a person’s absence is involuntary and ther is insufficient evidence to declare the person deceased the casualty status is known as,"
Missing (non-hostile)
What module id the DCIPS-Forward is the process in which we collect data for the initial and subsequent supplement death messages?
Casualty Report
The DCIPS-Forward provides a user-friendly application designed to assist casualty personnel in preparing casualty reports without excessive
manual typing.
The DCIPS-Forward utilizes Microsoft Access for storing casualty information and is designed to work on all computers as what type of application?.
Stand Alone
"After learning of a casualty the CAR must ensure the casualty message is transmitted or delivered to the base telecommunications center as determined by AFPC/DPWCS within how many hours?,"
4
If there is reportable information available on the casualty report that would be of interest to family members or of value to the addresses of the report; do not label any item
TO BE SUPPLEMENTED.
Who must obtain conclusive evidence before reporting the death of an individual?
Installation Commander
When obtaining conclusive evidence of death what information is not considered reasonable doubt that an individual could not have survived?
Location of the incident
Which publication does not apply to releasing information on Air Force casualties?
"AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services"
"For ill or injured casualties what personal information may not be released without permission?,"
Gross pay and basic allowance for housing
"For deceased casualties what personal information may not be released?,"
Any information on the member’s family
"For Duty Status Whereabouts Unknown (DUSTWUN) and Missing casualties in peacetime do not share personal information that pertains to,"
age and date of birth.
Which system advertises requirements for special duty assignments joint and departmental assignments/ shot-notice overseas assignments/ and all CMSgt assignments?
EQAUAL-Plus
When the Career Development element receives an assignment notification report on individual personnel (RIP) from HQ AFPC; how many calendar days does the outbound assignment technician have to verify the member’s eligibility?
7
If there is PCS ineligibility condition and there is no indication a wavier or exception has been granted; what action will the military personnel section take regarding the assignment selection?
Reclama the assignment and not forward
Once the unit commander receives the assignment RIP on a member how many calendar days does he or she have before the RIP is required back to the MPS?
14
For short-notice assignment of 90 calendar days or less until the RNLTD the Career Development element and unit notification periods are reduced to how many calendar days?
3
After the Assignment Notification RIP is forwarded to the unit commander the initial relocation briefing is conducted within how many calendar days?
15
Which AF IMT form is used to contract an active duty service commitment?
63
If a member’s assignment requires a higher or more current security clearance than he current security clearance on file; what does the Career Development element staff forward to the member’s commander?
Security Memorandum
The Career Development element personnelist will provide all members relocating overseas with the opportunity to elect tour options on the AF IMT
965
Under normal circumstances the Career Development element publishes PCS orders not later than how many days prior to departure?
60
If a member has a PCS to a stateside assignment he or she can out-process no earlier than how many duty days prior to departure date?
1
Once the member receives an approval of separation e-mail they will access AFPC secure website and complete the online
Initial Separations Briefing
Which is not a reason that warrants an administrative separation?
Progressively downward trend in performance rating
Which discharge is considered an admirable reflection that the member has satisfactorily completed a commitment to military service?
Honorable Discharge
"When personal conduct falls significantly below acceptable military standards the characterization for discharge is,"
Under Other Than Honorable Conditions
Without retaining for six months who may directly discharge an officer than is considered a threat to good order and discipline?
Secretary of the Air Force
"Administrative discharge for cause applies to officers who fail to meet the prescribed standards of performance and conduct/ for misconduct/ moral or professional dereliction and when they,"
pose a threat to national security.
What should rarely be the deciding factor in making a recommendation on a tendered resignation as a result of a pending court-martial?
Expense
"When an officer is retirement eligible and desires to retire in an officer status how many years of Total Active Federal Commissioned Service (TAFCS) must he or she have?,"
10 years
"In order for a military member to obtain a critical PRP position that member must possess all of these attributes except,"
is armed and assigned duties to protect and/or guard nuclear weapons.
"For personnel assigned to a controlled PRP position they must possess all of these attributes except,"
has a master key to all outside entry ways and inside doors.
"Within how many work days following the review of a permanent decertification does the reviewing official notify the individual and certifying official of the findings and conclusion?,"
15
Which commander is responsible for representing the reviewing official on PRP matters and appointing an installation monitor to assist in PRP duties?
Force Support Squadron
Making judgment on the reliability factors of each individual identified for PRP duties is the responsibility of the
Certifying Official
Coordinating with the security manager security manager to ensure PRP personnel security investigation requests are submitted in a timely and accurate manner and followed up for adjudication is a responsibility of the
Unit PRP monitor
If the reviewing official needs to review the medical records of candidates and members of the PRP to determine disqualifying conditions he or she works with
competent medical authority.
When is becomes necessary to consider an individual for a critical position under the PRP and the required investigation has not yet been completed the member may receive certification as
interim
Traits or conduct that may be grounds for disqualification or decertification of individuals from the PRP do not include
advising supervisors of factors that may have an adverse impact on your performance.
The promotion cycle begins with AFPC WAPS database where the eligbility file is
created.
What action begins with the announcement by AFPC/DPSOE via a PSDM with processing instructions for the upcoming cycle?
Promotion file build
"Before the WAPS testing cycle begins HQ AFPC flows a request for CSC reference material for each promotion eligible Airman to the,"
Air Force Career Development Academy.
The system used to select and classify individuals and assess their skills and knowledge in various areas is called
Air Force Military Personnel Testing System
For promotions to SSgt/TSgt/and MSgt/ Airmen compete and test under the WAPS in their
Control Air Force Specialty Code
Commanders have the ability to access the AFPC secure/link in the AF Portal Website to query enlisted promotions results by name
MAJCOM/ unit /line number/ AFSC /PAS code/ and state/country.
Who issues written instructions to officer selection boards to announce competitive categories/ promotion zones/ eligibility/ and selection criteria?
Secretary of the Air Force
The fundamental purpose of an officer promotion is to select officers through a process that is
fair and competitive.
Which element or function identifies all assigned and verifies their eligibility status for promotion?
Career Development element
The Career Development element staff issues written notice to each promotion eligible officer to the local base media containing all of this information except
name and rank of the board president.
Which organization implements the approved promotion program through a fair and impartial process to ensure the officer corps has confidence in the integrity of the selection process?
"Headquarters, Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC)"
Which document contain personnel assigned/ position numbers/ duty Air Force specialty codes (DAFSC)/ authorized grades/ functional account codes/ personnel accounting symbols/ and required security clearance levels?
Unit personnel management roster
"Which document is used to outline the MPS requirements to ensure personnel are assigned a valid position number and to facilitate timely and accurate input to current data after a member’s arrival?,"
Initial Duty Assignment Worksheet.
"A product that provides the authorized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit train, and promote to in the execution of its wartime and peacetime mission describes the,"
Unit Manpower Document.
The percentage between the numbers assigned with the numbers authorized on the UMD will give you the manning
strength.
Duty status reporting is event oriented and serves as a personnel function of
accounting.
Regarding contingency/ exercise/ or deployment duty status reporting/ which is not a deployment availability code (DAV) category?
Personal
"When there is a need to initiate routine duty status change request into the CMS what system will your commander utilize?,"
Base-Level Service Delivery Model (BLSDM)
An initial AFSC classification is given to a military member upon their completion of
technical training.
Designating the PAFSC for each officer and enlisted Airman is the responsibility of the
Military Personnel Section
When determining the AFSC that an individual is most qualified to perform in; one that reflects their skill level/ experience/ complexity/ education and training/ equipment/ and interests is called their
primary.
When awarding an enlisted AFSC; which factor is not a criteria for eligibility?
Special Duty Submission
Changes to the CAFSC other than initial/retraining/normal skill-level upgrade/ and SEI actions re reviewed for propriety by both the gaining and losing
Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC) assignment managers
Who has the authority to authorize the use of personnel outside their CAFSC up to 130 days in a 12 month period?
Force Management Operations element
The base monitor is responsible to conduct UIF training
annually.
How many duty days does an active duty member (enlisted or officer) have to acknowledge the intended actions of a UIF and provide pertinent information before the commander makes his or her final decision on placing optional documents in the UIF?
3
"When performing system updates it is crucial to ensure the correct code is applied for the correct incident, duration, and for the correct person. Which code would you use in the MiLPDS to reflect a member on a control roster?,"
2
Which code do you use in the MilPDS to reflect that a member has an Article 15 with suspended punishment?
3
Which code do you use in the MilPDS to reflect that a member has an UIF only?
1
What promotion eligibility status code is associated with adverse actions?
G
What AAC are associated with adverse action?
12 and 16
Which type(s) of court-martial only tries enlisted service members?
Summary court-martial
The total force development program will produce will produce a total force and guide development through levels of leadership. Which is not considered a level of leadership?
Functional
"If you are looking for the source of record for all Air Force PME and formal training what system would you use?,"
Oracle training administration (OTA)
OTA is used for all of these formal training requirements except
establishing
The policy on training line numbers is focused on the formal training office being located in the FSS under the Force Development flight. If the requirements outlined in this process?
The responsibility remains with the FSS/FSDE
The Armed Forces may use military authority to
provide or attempt to provide information regarding absentee voting for their home states.