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100 Cards in this Set
- Front
- Back
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The success of a good individualized newcomer treatment and orientation (INTRO) program is tied to ________. a. the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor. b. how many times the sponsor calls the newcomer. c. the Airman and Family Readiness Center's sponsor kits. d. how well the gaining commander speaks with the newcomer. |
a. the newcomer's first impressions of the sponsor. |
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As a sponsor, what question would you NOT ask the newcomer? a. Do you need information about other services? b. Will your family members accompany you? c. What type of vehicle do you drive? d. Do you want a post office box? |
c. What type of vehicle do you drive? |
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For information about on- and off-base housing and, if the newcomer has dependents, where does the sponsor go? a. Airman and Family Readiness Center. b. Family support center. c. Base housing office. d. Lodging office. |
c. Base housing office. |
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What form is used to document a member's active duty service commitment (ADSC) incurred due to training or a permanent change of station (PCS)? a. Air Force information Management Tool (IMT) 63 b. AF Form 899 c. AF IMT 330 d. AF IMT 2096 |
a. air Force information Management Tool (IMT) 63 |
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Once the member in-processes, no-fee passports are _________. a. kept by the member. b. collected by the military personnel section (MPS). c. collected by the unit deployment manager (UDM). d. destroyed by the member.
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b. collected by the military personnel section (MPS). |
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What is NOT included in the Three main phases of accession proccessing? a. Delivery. b. Collection. c. Verification. d. Confirmation.
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a. Delivery |
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When issuing an identification (ID) card to a member considered retired with pay, what source document can be used? a. Leave and earnings statement (LES). b. DD Form 363AF, Certificate of Retirement. c. DD Form 1160, Military Retirement Actions. d. DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty. |
d. DD Form 214, Certificate of Release or Discharge from Active Duty. |
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Without senior personnel official appointment, identification (ID) card verifying and issuing officials CANNOT be: a. a commissioned officer. b. an Airman first class. c. a DoD contractor. d. a warrant officer. |
b. an Airman first class. |
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Once you retrieve a Teslin Identification (ID) card, you may do all of the following EXCEPT: a. cut. b. shred. c. destroy. d. line out.
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d. line out. |
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When a dependent child under age 21 is emancipated, what happens to their entitlement to ID card benefits and privileges? a. It's reinstated when they return home. b. It expires when they departed home. c. The entitlements remain the same. d. It's removed by the sponsor. |
c. The entitlements remain the same. |
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The expression "use or lose" refers to leave days. Normally, in excess of how many days will be lost by the end of the fiscal year (FY) if it is NOT used? a. 30 b. 60 c. 90 d. 120 |
b. 60 |
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Leave must begin and end where? a. In the local area. b. At your duty section. c. On a military installation. d. At your requested leave area. |
a. In the local area. |
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Basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is meant to offset costs for members and ________. a. their dependents. b. no one else. c. children. d. spouses.
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b. no one else. |
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The basic allowance for subsistence (BAS) is based in the historic origins of the military in which the military provided what two items? a. Food and housing requirements. b. Room and laundry services. c. Ratinos and transportaion. d. Room and board. |
d. Room and board. |
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Essential station messing (ESM) is also termed ________. a. dining in-kind b. rations in-kind c. messing in-kind d. services in-kind |
b. rations in-kind |
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A line of duty (LOD) determination protects the interests of the United States government and that of _________. a. the member. b. the squadron. c. the dependents. d. the military installation. |
a. the member. |
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Who is NOT subject to line of duty (LOD) determinations? a. Active duty Air Force members. b. Air Reserve Component members who die, incur or aggravate an illness/injury. c. Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members. d. Air Force Reserve Officer Training Corps (AFROTC) members. |
c. Junior Reserve Officer Training Corps (JROTC) members. |
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A line of duty (LOD) determination process must be initiated when a member, whether hospitalized or not, has an illness, injury or disease that results in all of the following EXCEPT the _________. a. death of a member. b. death of a member's spouse. c. likelihood of permanent disability. d. inability to perform military duties for over 24 hours. |
b. death of a member's spouse. |
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A line of duty (LOD) determination does NOT impact _______. a. disability retirement and severance pay. b. extension of enlistment. c. civilian duty pay. d. forfeiture of pay. |
b. extension of enlistment |
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The line of duty (LOD) approving authority reviews the complete investigation file and may do all the following EXCEPT: a. return the file to the investigating officer. b. return the complete file to the immediate commander. c. approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC. d. approve a final determination by completing DD Form 261. |
c. approve a final determination by forwarding to HQ AFPC. |
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Provided criterion is met, military couples may be considered for assignment where they can maintain a _________. a. joint residence. b. joint allowance. c. basic substance in kind. d. basic allowance for housing. |
a. joint residence |
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Which of the following is NOT a join spouse intent code? a. A b. B c. C d. H |
c. C |
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Family Member Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (FSGLI) expands Servicemember's Group Life Insurance (SGLI) coverage to ___________. a. Spouses only. b. Children only. c. Parents of sponsor. d. Spouses and children. |
d. Spouses and children. |
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Which is NOT a requirement for a member to qualify for Servicemember's Group Life Insurance Traumatic Injury Protection (TSGLI)? a. Must suffer from a scheduled loss that is a direct result of traumatic event. b. Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event. c. Must have suffered the traumatic event before midnight of the day of separation. d. Must survive for a period of at least seven full days from the date of the traumatic event. |
b. Must have comparable civilian life insurance prior to the traumatic event. |
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Whic is NOT a responsibility of the force support squadron commander as it pertains to casualty services? a. Ensure the casualty assistance representative (CAR) has an open office for counseling the next of kin b. Provide public affairs with the name, age, rank, and home of record of the deceased. c. Appoints the casualty augmentation support team (CAST) members. d. Publish required installation supplements to AFI 36-3002, Casualty Services. |
b. Provide public affairs with the name, age, rank, and home of record of the deceased. |
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Once family members have been notified, the morturary service officer and public affairs office will provide name, rank, age, ... a. home of record, race and awards and decorations only. b. race, religion, and total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) only. c. home of record, race, religion, and TAFMSD, and place of enlistment. d. home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges. |
d. home of record, race, religion, TAFMSD, awards, decorations, and badges. |
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In order for an enlisted Airman to notify the next of kin (NOK) of a very seriously ill or injured (VSI), seriously ill or injured (SI), or incapacitating illness or injury (III) member, they must be in grade(s) _________. a. Senior Master Sergeant (SMSgt) and Chief Master Sergeant (CMSgt) only. b. Master Sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt. c. Staff Sergeant (SSgt) through CMSgt. d. CMSgt only. |
b. Master Sergeant (MSgt) through CMSgt. |
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When obtaining conclusive evidence of death, what information is NOT considered reasonable doubt that an individual could NOT have survived? a. Statements of witnesses to the incident. b. Circumstances of the incident. c. Location of the incident. d. Search results. |
c. Location of the incident. |
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The survivor benefit plan (SBP) is a monthly annuity, due to an active duty member who dies oin the line of duty (LOD) and is paid by the Air Force to the ______. a. surviving parents. b. eligible children only. c. surviving spouse only. d. surviving spouse or eligible children. |
d. surviving spouse or eligible children. |
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The survivor benefit plan (SBP) annuity is paid to a surviving spouse until the spouse dies, a. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 45. b. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55. c. and then it passes onto any surviving children. d. and is not suspended upon remarriage. |
b. but is suspended upon remarriage before age 55.
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How many members constitute a quorum for the Air Force Board for Correction of Military Records (AFBCMR)? a. Three. b. Five. c. Seven. d. Nine.
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a. Three |
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You can locate the form used to apply for a correction to military records at the following locations EXCEPT: a. any Air Force military personnel section. b. most veterans' service organization. c. Air Force Review Boards office. d. any Finance Services office.
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d. any Finance Service office |
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When requesting survey apporval, Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (AFPC/DPSAS) does NOT require you to _______. a. state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year. b. state the purpose and justification for the proposed research. c. provide a point of contact, with a telephone number. d. indicate how you will use the survey results. |
a. state the different types of surveys utilized in the last fiscal year. |
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All approved, non-local surveys show ______. a. a survey control number and report control symbol only. b. a survey control number, report control symbol, and fiscal year number. c. a office of managememnt and budget number, survey control number, and point of contact. d. a office of management and budget number, survey control number, or a report control symbol. |
d. a office of management and budget number, survey control number, or a report control symbol. |
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The enlisted assignment preference is used for ________. a. continental Unites States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments. b. short notice OS assignments. c. joint/departmental assignments. d. special duty assignments (SDA).
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a. continental Unites States (CONUS) or overseas (OS) assignments. |
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Before engaging in the assignment process and updating your preferences, members are encouraged to discuss their assignment preferences with _______. a. family members, commanders, and co-workers. b. family members, commanders, and first sergeant. c. family members, commanders, and supervisors. d. commanders, supervisors, and co-workers. |
c. family members, commanders, and supervisors. |
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Airmen are eligible for a special duty assignment (SDA) if they ______. a. have any other self-initiated permanent change of station request pending. b. have an active unfavorable information file or are on the control roster (CR). c. have been selected as noncommissioned officer of the quarter. d. are not recommended for a SDA by their commander. |
c. have been selected as a noncommissioned officer of the quarter. |
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How many months, MINIMUM time on station (TOS), is required to apply for a special duty assignment (SDA)? a. 0. b. 6. c. 12. d. 24.
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a. 0. |
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How many special duty application(s) may be submitted for consideration at any given time? a. One. b. Three. c. Five. d. Eight.
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a. One. |
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To substantiate a humanitarian assignment request, which of the following is NOT a criterion? a. The member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete. b. The member's presence must be absolutely essential to alleviate the problem. c. A vacancy must exist at the new duty station and the member must meet retainability requirements. d. The problem is more severe than usually encountered by the other AF members with similar problem. |
a. The member's assignment must be within 12 months of being complete. |
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Humanitarian assignment or deferment request that usually warrants approval, are requests substantiating problems arising from which circumstance? a. Problems associated with child care arragement. b. The existence of a housing shortage or home ownership problems. c. The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages. d. A desire to provide emotional support to a parent or parent-in-law due to age. |
c. The recent death of the members spouse or child, including miscarriages. |
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If the career development element has numberous relocation briefings to conduct, what can they do in order to save time? a. Conduct mass briefings. b. Conduct briefings only when necessary. c. Make appointments for each individual. d. File all assignment relocation folders in one drawer. |
a. Conduct mass briefings. |
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Which order is NOT completed within orders processing application (OPA)? a. AF Form 100, Request and Authorization for Separation. b. AF Form 973, Request and Authorization for Change of Administrative Orders. c. DD Form 1610, Request and Authorization for TDY Travel of DoD Personnel. d. AF Form 899, Request and Authorization for Permanent Change of Station - Military. |
c. DD Form 1610, Request and Authorization for TDY Travel of DoD Personnel. |
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Dependent travel to a designated plact (DTDP) WITHOUT a follow-on assignment application is used to request _______. a. personally funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour. b. government funded travel to a specified location while the Airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour. c. personally funded travel to a specified location other than the follow-on assignment location. d. government funded travel for a household goods shipment. |
b. government funded travel to a specified location while the airman serves the short dependent restricted or unaccompanied tour. |
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An Airman submitting a dependent travel to a designated place (DTDP) application must have ALL of the following EXCEPT: a. proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents' location. b. a signed entitlements fact sheep applicable to the country where dependents will relocate. c. the retainability to serve the accompanied tour length at the follow-on location. d. a memorandum signed by the Airman with dependents names and birthdates. |
a. proof of insurance for any privately owned vehicle being shipped to dependents' location. |
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Command sponsored dependents residing with the military member in an overseas continental United States (OCONUS) personnel data system (PDS) may be relocated at government expense prior to completion of prescribed overseas tour, describes what? a. Concurrent travel. b. Designated location move. c. Early return of dependents. d. Dependent travel to a designated place. |
c. Early return of dependents. |
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If a member is a medal of honor recipient and elects to separate, what is the earliest date of separation he/she may receive? a. Any date of request. b. 4 months from date of request. c. 6 months from date of request. d. 9 months from date of request. |
a. Any date of request. |
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How many years of total active federal miilitary service (TAFMS) Must members complete before being eligible for retirement? a. 10 b. 20 c. 22 d. 25
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b. 20 |
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Which agency is responsible for notifying commanders of promotion selection and nonselection? a. Orderly room. b. Career development element. c. Chieg military personnel section. d. Force management operations element. |
b. Career development element. |
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How many days in advance does the commander dotify the officer of the projected promotion effective date when an individual is pormoted to first lieutenant? a. 30 b. 45 c. 60 d. 90 |
a. 30 |
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Who has the responsibility of providing an automatic quarterly end of month output product to the career development element, within the first 10 days of the first months for the below the zone? a. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). b. Major command (MAJCOM) c. Total Force Service Center (TFSC). d. Personnel Systems Management (PSM) section. |
d. Personnel Systems Management (PSM) section. |
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The senior noncommissioned officer (SNCO) promotion program is a two-phase selection process that combines factors from ________. a. Weighed Airman Promotion System (WAPS) and the evaluation board. b. WAPS and the specialty knowledge test (SKT). c. WAPS and professional military education (PME). d. WAPS and enlisted performance reports (EPR). |
a. Weighed Airman Promotion System (WAPS) and the evaluation board. |
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Demotion actions should NOT be taken on Airmen who have _________. a. been selected for a permanent change of assignment. b. been demoted in the past. c. reenlisted. d. separated. |
d. separated. |
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Within how many months after the effective date of the demotion can the demotion authority restore and Airman's original grade? a. One and three. b. Three and six. c. Six and twelve. d. Twelve and eighteen. |
b. Three and six. |
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The effective date of retirement, for a member who elects retirement in lieu of demotion, will be no later than the first day of what month following the date the member received the initail notification? a. Third b. Fourth c. Fifth d. Sixth |
b. Fourth. |
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Within how many days of the First Processing Month must the "BELOW-ZONE-E4" promotion product be scheduled to run? a. 10 b. 20 c. 30 d. 45 |
a. 10 |
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The objective of the renlistment and selective reenlistment program (SRP) is to ensure the career force has professional noncommissioned officers that are _______. a. highly qualified. b. experienced. c. proficient. d.on-time. |
a. highly qualified. |
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First-term Airmen who complete how many months on their current enlistment receive selective reenlistment program (SRP) consideration? a. 30 (54 for six-year enlistees). b. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees). c. 36 (60 for six-year enlistees). d. 40 (64 for six-year enlistees). |
b. 33 (57 for six-year enlistees). |
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When an Airman has been non-selected for reenlistment on AF IMT 418, what code is updated in the personnel data system? a. 1R b. 2X c. 3C d. 4E |
b. 2X |
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National call to service (NCS) enlistees, enter their career jobs reservation (CJR) window on the first duty day of the month they complete ________. a. 30 months b. 33 months c. 35 months d. 38 months |
c. 35 months. |
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The MAXIMUM selective reenlistment bonus (SRB) payable per zone is ______. a. $30,000 b. $60,000 c. $75,000 d. $90,000 |
d. $90,000. |
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If an Airman joins with a non-itial enlistment bonus (IEB) Air Force specialty code (AFSC), but no later is reclassified into a specialty that is authorized a bonus, what happens to member's bonus eligibility? a. Member is not eligible. b. Eligible after reclassification. c. Eligible after completing six months. d. Eligible when there is an increase in bonus amount. |
a. Member is not eligible. |
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What is the MAXIMUM number of months an Airman can extend their current enlistments? a. 12 b. 24 c. 48 d. 60 |
c. 48
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How many days of leave can Airmen sell if they've sold any leave since 10 February 1976? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60 |
d. 60 |
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When there is no break in active duty service, what will a member's total active federal military service date (TAFMSD) reflect? a. Original entry on active duty. b. Date entered into delayed enlistment. c. Date completed basic military training. d. Date agreed to sign up for active duty. |
a. Original entry on active duty. |
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A computation of all periods of active and inactive enlisted service creditable for basic is considered ______. a. total active federal commissioning service date (TAFSCD). b. total active federal military service date (TAFMSD). c. date inital entry uniformed (DIEUS). d. total enlisted military service date (TEMSD). |
d. total enlisted military service date (TEMSD). |
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What grades can incur an active duty service commitment (ADSC)? a. General and below and all enlisted personnel. b. Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel. c. Enlisted noncommissioned officers only. d. All commissioned active duty officers. |
b. Colonel and below and all enlisted personnel. |
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An election for career status bonus (CSDB) CANNOT be submitted no more than how many months after the notification of opportunity? a. Two b. Four c. Six d. Eight |
c. Six |
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What type of counseling is suggested for members to obtain in order to make an informed career status bonus (CSB) option? a. Legal b. Medical c. Financial d. Education |
c. Financial |
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What process is the First Step in selecting reliable personnel to perform duties associated with nuclear weapons? a. Suspension b. Certification c. Temporary decertification d. Administrative qualification |
d. Administrative qualification. |
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If a member can directly or indirectly cause the launch or use of nuclear weapons, then he/she is in what type of personnel reliability program (PRP) position? a. Critical b. Restriced c. Controlled d. Responsible |
a. Critical |
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On the unit personnel manning document (UPMR), how many incumbents are authorized on each position? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
a. One |
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Within the military personnel section (MPS), who has the responsibility of managing the unit personnel management roster? a. Customer service b. Customer support element c. Career development element d. Force management operations element |
d. Force management operations element. |
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The unit manpower document (UMD) is a product that provides the authroized positions that a unit is allowed to recruit, train and ________. a. advertise. b. produce. c. promote. d. swap. |
c. promote. |
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Over how many years does a unit manning document (UMD) list positions that will be deleted? a. One b. Two c. Three d. Four |
b. Two. |
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The classification system provides concise award, upgrade and retention criteria for ________. a. job standards. b. job qualification. c. rank entitlements. d. career progression. |
d. career progression. |
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Who has the authority to authorize the use of enlisted personnel outside their Control Air Force Specialty Code (CAFSC) up to 270 days? a. The commander. b. Military Personnel Section (MPS). c. Total Force Service Center (TFSC). d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
d. Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC). |
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Members of reserve components are eligible for consideration of a military decoration ________. a. only when they become retirement eligible. b. when they are placed on active duty order. c. in authorized periods of training or while in active status. d. in authorized periods of training or while in inactive status. |
d. in authorized periods of training or while in inactive status. |
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Restrict recommendations for decorations to all of the following EXCEPT: a. honors based solely on academic achievement. b. outstanding achievement. c. meritorious service. d. acts of heroism. |
a. honors based solely on academic achievement. |
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A private and formal method of communication a rater uses to tell a ratee what is expected regarding duty performance, and how well the ratee is meeting those expectations is considered _________. a. performance enhancement. b. professional mentorship. c. performance feedback. d. duty encouragement. |
c. performance feedback. |
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When seeking correction of military records, if the original evaluation was unjust or wrong, what type of evidence must a member provide? a. Circumstantial. b. Unnecessary. c. Clear. d. None. |
c. Clear. |
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Intra-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions change request initiates changes in _________. a. organization, unit assignment, and position number only. b. unit assignment, supervisor, position number, and major command. c. organization, unit assignment, position number, supervisor, and major command. d. organization, position numbers, supervisor, and unit of assignment. |
d. organization, position numbers, supervisor, and unit of assignment. |
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Inter-command permanent change of assignment (PCA) actions change request initiates changes for all of the following EXCEPT: a. date arrived station b. unit of assignment. c. major command. d. organization. |
a. date arrived station. |
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If a member is receiving a special duty rating of SD-3, what monetary value are they entitled to? a. $75 b. $150 c. $225 d. $300 |
c. $225 |
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How many eligible special duty ratings are currently available? a. 5 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 |
b. 6 |
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For officers, all the following can establish an unfavorable information file (UIF) EXCEPT: a. commanders at all levels for members assigned or attached to their unit. b. chiefs of staffs, their deputies and assistants and other staff agency heads. c. major command commander, vice commanders, staff director and directors. d. member's previous supervisor who works in the miltary personnel section. |
d. member's previous supervisor who works in the military personnel section. |
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What is the maximum number of consecutive months an individual's name can remai on the control roster. a. three b. five c. six d. nine
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c. Six |
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The total force development program guide development of the total force through levels of leadership to produce a total force successfully prepared to accomplish the Air Force mission. a. Organization b. Operational c. Strategic d. Tactical |
a. Organizational |
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What training status code reflects not recommended for entry into upgrade training and determines the member ineligible for consideration under Noncommissioned Officer Retraininf Program (NCORP)? a. M b. N c. O d. P |
c. O |
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The human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) was initially developed by Headquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) and Air Force Accounting and Finance Office (AFAFO) to respond to what type of problems? a. Pay b. Extension c. Reenlistment d. Identification card |
a. Pay |
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When developing the human resource case management system (HR-CMS), senior leadership wanted a system that would allow base-level offices to resolve HR system problems relating to all of the following except a. inputting b. reporting c. tracking d. typing |
d. Typing |
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When processing human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) cases, including the time prior to sending t HEadquarters Air Force Personnel Center (HQ AFPC) of Defense Finance and Accounting Services (DFAC), and the time after a case is returned for closure, how many days in base-level limited to?
a. 3 days b. 5 days c. 10 days d. 15 days |
b. 5 days |
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When processing human resource-case management system (HR-CMS) cases, how many cumulative days does Defense Finance and Accounting Service (DFAS) have to process a case. a. 5 days b. 10 days c. 15 days d. 20 days |
d. 20 days |
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When determining changes to make regarding what to file in a personnel information file (PIF), and a preserve critical command options in military justice, the commander should seek advise from the a. chief, military personnel section b. unit program coordinator c. first sergeant's council d. staff judge advocate |
d. staff judge advocate |
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A person information file (PIF) is highly recommended for a. evaluation reporting b. performance feedback c. derogatory information d. recommendation for awards |
c. derogatory information |
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Transaction registers are computer products that are programmatically controlled and roduced. a. daily b. every other day c. weekly d. monthly |
a. daily |
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When the Defense Joint Military Pay Sytem (DJMS) rejects are received, the military personnel section, (MPS) work center is responsible for the rejected transaction and initiates corrective action to clear the reject within a. 12 hours b. 24 hours c. 36 hours d. 48 hours |
d. 48 hours |
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Who should create additional discoverer workbooks to help verify or identify further database integrity checks? a. Total Force Service Center b. Headquaters Air Force Personnel Center c. Base Level computer programmers d. Personnel system management manager |
d. Personnel system management manager |
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wWhich management assessment product (MAP) is used to ensure the civilian supervisor meets the minimum grade requirement to supervise military personnel. a. MAP 3 b. MAP 4 c. MAP 6 d. MAP 10 |
b. MAP 4 |
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Before updating a reenlistment or an extension, you will need to access the master military pay account (MMPA) file to pull what type of product? a. T16 b. T17 c. T18 d. T19 |
c. T18 |
