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98 Cards in this Set

  • Front
  • Back
What is the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the US?
US Constitution.
Which title of the US code spells out the general provisions and punitive articles of the UCMJ?
USC Title 10.
Who mainly develops ROE, and who is responsible for individual unit compliance?
(1) General officers with approval from the National Command Authority.
(2) Subordinate commanders.
Who has inspection responsibility over the National Guard?
The department secretaries of the US Army and Air Force.
What can the results of the Schmitt Analysis be used for?
To classify operations as either military or diplomatic.
When was the Air Force IO doctrine finalized and published?
August of 1998.
Who the principal defense policy advisor to the president?
The Secretary of Defense.
Who manages Air Force publications?
Air Force publications are managed by the AFDPO.
According to the Air Force’s operations doctrine what are the two pillars of IO?
Information warfare and information-in-warfare.
What are AFNOIs and what are they used for?
AFNOIs are directive specialized publications providing operating procedures and checklists for network operations. AFNOIs are used to document standard processes as well as operate, maintain, or troubleshoot network software and equipment and are generated for technical subjects not covered by Air Force publications or technical orders.
How do AFPDs relate to AFIs?
AFPDs are drafted at the Air Force level and provide guidance for AFIs. AFIs are drafted at the MAJCOM and FOA level.
What do OIs assign and how do they differ from AFIs?
OIs assign directive actions, responsibilities, and prescribe procedures. OIs differ from AFIs in that they are written at a much lower organizational level such as a squadron or flight level.
What do TOs provide?
TOs provide official guidance on producing, configuring, installing, maintaining, modifying and operating equipment or systems.
Define telecommunications and what does it provide us with?
Telecommunications is known as electronic communications and provides us with the transmission of analogs or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate.
What does the Air Force portal provide Air Force users?
The Air Force portal provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location.
What are the Air Force portal’s three key features?
(1) Common virtual platform for access and sharing accurate information.
(2) Catalyst for reducing overlap and duplication among cross-functional information systems.
(3) Means for conducting self-service functions.
What spectrum of topics does the Air Force portal cover?
The Air Force portal covers the spectrum of Air Force missions and processes including business, combat support and command and control processes.
What is the most important part of the Air Force portal initiative?
The user.
What does the single-sign-on enable authorized users with on the Air Force portal?
To enter their passwords once and gain access to all their applications with no further log-in.
Who manages access groups for organizational content publishers?
Advanced content managers.
Who works in collaboration with the content publishers to ensure information on the Air Force portal is accurate and applicable with AFIs and Air Force portal guidance?
Content manager.
Who is considered the “owner” of some amount of content on the Air Force portal?
Content publisher.
What is the Air Force goal concerning accessibility to Internet resources?
To provide personnel requiring access for official business maximum accessibility to Internet resources.
Who may authorize personal use of government provided hardware and software?
Appropriate officials.
Failure to observe the prohibitions and mandatory provisions of AFI 33–129, Web Management and Internet Use, by military personnel is a violation of which UCMJ article?
UCMJ, Article 92, Failure to Obey Order or Regulation.
Who appoints Air Force portal content managers and content publishers for public and private websites?
The wing commander.
What exactly is electronic mail or e-mail?
E-mail, is a method of exchanging digital messages from one originating party to one or more recipients.
When should you use e-mail summaries?
Use summaries to sum up a lengthy e-mail or to re-emphasize topics of significant importance.
What plays a vital role in managing and operating Air Force activities?
Records.
Whose rights must be protected through the proper implementation of the records management
programs?
Protects the rights of the government and of persons directly affected by Air Force actions.
What are draft records?
Those that can be altered and have not been signed or officially released.
What are final records?
Those that have been signed, officially released, and cannot be altered.
How must Air Force units at all levels manage records?
Systematically to make sure they are complete, accurate, trustworthy, and easily accessible.
Place an X by the items that qualify as records.
____ (1) Stocks of publications.
____ (2) Electronic versions of maps.
____ (3) Library material acquired for reference purposes.
____ (4) Photographs received by an agency of the US government.
2 and 4.
What records relate solely to an individual’s private affair?
Personal.
What is the purpose of a staging area?
For temporary storage of records pending destruction of transfer to a federal records center.
Who ensures installation offices of record conduct periodical unit self-inspections and receive a SAV at least every 24 months?
RM ensures offices of record receive a SAV at least every 24 months.
What contributed to the need for an ERM solution?
Electronic mail (e-mail) revolutionized the flow of communication and significantly contributed to the need for an ERM solution.
Who will use dedicated space on the SANs to store e-records?
Network control center staff.
Who is responsible for ensuring designated storage, proper use and integrity of e-files/e-records?
Base/unit records professionals, BRMs, FARMs, RC, and COR.
How will protection be applied to files and folders containing sensitive privacy act data?
By using passwords and group permissions.
Who must monitor the e-file box and assist and or file the records in the box?
The FARM and RC.
What is the first step in filing a document?
Assemble documents for filing in the same manner as required for their creation, dispatch, and use with the latest action on top.
What should you do prior to filing a document if an attachment is missing?
Take action to get the missing records or information included in the file or make a notation to show what part of the file is missing or where filed, if included in another series.
What items do you remove from a document prior to filing?
Remove all mail control forms and receipts, envelopes, and memo routing or coordination slips, except those containing remarks of significant record value.
How is a record marked for filing?
Mark records for file by using the word “file” and the proper official’s initials. Mark for file and file code in the upper right hand corner of the record. Use the item number of the separate series from the file plan.
What is the primary purpose for maintaining records?
To ensure we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.
What is the first item in a file plan?
File plan.
What program generates the file disposition control labels?
AFRIMS
How many tables and rules can be applied to each record series?
One
What are the requirements for placing disposition control labels on a guide card?
Usually affixed to the first (left) tap position of the guide card, the main thing is to be consistent throughout your files.
What purpose does the disposition guide card serve?
Serves to identify the records filed behind it and to provide cutoff and disposition instructions for the records.
Where do you place the disposition control label on records located away from the file drawer?
Place the disposition control label either on each container or on a card or sheet of paper in the container or binder, where it is obvious.
Where do you place the disposition control label when a series is filed in more than one container?
Place on the first container or on each container.
Name the three record cutoff categories.
(1) N/A – disposition instruction does not contain a month or year.
(2) MO – disposition instructions contain 1 to 11 months.
(3) 30 Sep/31 Dec – disposition instruction contains a year or 12 months or more.
Define the term “disposition” regarding Air Force records?
Disposition is a comprehensive term that includes destruction, salvage, and donation; transfer to the staging area or records center; and transfer from one organization to another.
How do records custodians accomplish the end-of-year closeout?
By transferring physical records to the inactive files area or to the staging area.
What form is used as a packing list for transferred or retired records?
SF 135.
When is a separate SF 135 prepared?
A separate SF 135 is prepared for each series of temporary records in a shipment and for permanent records. You must also prepare a separate SF 135 for unclassified, SECRET, CONFIDENTIAL, and TOP SECRET records, regardless of volume, when records are placed in a staging area
What minimum items should be included on deployed unit file plans?
Maintenance and disposition, policy and precedent, delegations, general correspondence, office administrative files, transitory, word processing files hard copy maintained in organized file, and presentation in accordance with the RDS.
What record management advice did the DOD provide on 15 Aug 2003?
That records on combat operations in Iraq and those of all major deployments are of historical value and must be preserved for future studies and analyses.
Who is the Air Force working with to establish archiving capabilities?
NARA and other major AOR areas such as CENTAF, to establish archiving capabilities within the AOR and to develop standard procedures for formatting and transferring e-records.
What actions must you take to prevent the compromise of paper or magnetic records?
Records may be destroyed by any method that prevents compromise, such as tearing, burning, or shredding, as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction. Degauss or overwrite magnetic tapes or other magnetic medium.
(009) Which document is used as the basis for drafting and enforcing all federal laws governing the United States?
A. Constitution.
b. Bill of Rights.
c. United States Title Code 10.
d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
(009) Which document authorizes the creation of the Department of Defense (DOD) as the executive component of government and established all subordinate agencies including the Army, Navy, Air Force, and Marine Corps?
a. Constitution.
b. Bill of Rights.
C. United States Title Code 10.
d. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
(009) Which document serves as the basis for holding military members accountable for breeches in binding instruction and law?
a. Constitution.
b. Bill of Rights.
c. United States Title Code 10.
D. Uniform Code of Military Justice.
(010) In what year did the Joint Staff and Armed Services consolidated their ideas as the first drafts of joint and Armed Services doctrine circulated around the DOD?
a. 1994.
B. 1995.
c. 1997.
d. 1998.
(010) In what year did the Air Force finalized and published its information operations (IO) doctrine in August of 1998, while the Joint Staff published its doctrine?
a. 1994.
b. 1995.
c. 1997.
D. 1998.
(010) Which publication type are directive policy statements of Office of the Secretary of the Air Force and HQ USAF to initiate, govern, or regulate actions of conduct, within their specified areas of responsibility?
a. Air Force Doctrines.
b. Air Force Pamphlets.
c. Air Force Instructions.
D. Air Force Policy Directives.
(010) Which publication type are informational publications which are “how to” documents?
A. Air Force Pamphlets.
b. Air Force Instructions.
c. Air Force Publications.
d. Air Force Policy Directives.
(011) What provides us with the transmission of analog or digital bits information to convey data over significant geographical distances to communicate?
a. Broadcasts.
b. Transmissions.
C. Telecommunications.
d. Voice over Internet Protocol.
(011) What tool provides essential online resources for the Air Force and its users at a single location?
a. myPay.
b. E-publishing.
C. Air Force Portal.
d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
(011) What tool is considered a key enabler for the information technology task force and a foundation program for other transformation task forces?
a. myPay.
b. E-publishing.
C. Air Force Portal.
d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
(012) Which Air Force Portal feature enables authorized users to enter passwords once to gain access to all applications with no further log-in requirement?
a. my base.
B. Single-sign-on.
c. Community of practice.
d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
(012) Which Air Force Portal feature is considered a major benefit of the Air Force Portal?
a. my base.
B. Single-sign-on.
c. Community of practice.
d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
(012) Which Air Force Portal feature provides a secure, Web-based collaborative environment specific to a given task or topic where members of a group share information and tools to conduct business, manage a project, and/or solve group problems?
a. my base.
b. Single-sign-on.
C. Community of practice.
d. virtual Military Personnel Flight.
(013) Which document would you reference for guidance on “Web management and Internet use?”
a. AFI 33118.
b. AFI 33119.
c. AFI 33127.
D. AFI 33129.
(013) Prior to posting web content on an Air Force web page; which document would you reference regarding compliance of local clearance and approval Public Affairs procedures for posting information to the Internet/public Web sites?
a. AFI 33127.
b. AFI 33129.
C. AFI 35101.
d. AFI 35108.
(013) When corresponding to an e-mail, which would you not use to follow proper e-mail etiquette?
a. Keep emails brief and to the point.
b. Read your email out loud to yourself.
C. Consistently use the “Reply-to-All” feature.
d. Ensure attachments are appropriate to supplement your message.
(014) Which document is not considered an official government record?
a. Published doctrines.
b. Geographical base maps.
c. Photographs of a retreat ceremony.
D. Library reference or museum exhibitions.
(014) Records that are considered to be in draft format
A. can be altered and are not officially released.
b. can’t be altered, but are officially released.
c. can’t be altered and are officially signed.
d. officially signed and officially released.
(014) Records that are considered to be in final format have which characteristic?
a. Officially signed and not released.
B. Officially signed and officially released.
c. Can be altered and are not officially released.
d. Can’t be altered, but are not officially released.
(015) Who is charged with the duties of establishing training programs for newly appointed base records managers?
a. Base records manager.
b. Chief of Office of Records.
C. Command records manager.
d. Functional area records manager.
(015) Whose duties include providing assistance, managing staging areas, and records training?
A. Base records manager.
b. Chief of Office of Records.
c. Command records manager.
d. Functional area records manager.
(015) Who is appointed at each base-level unit, principal staff office within an Air Force organization or contractor to perform records management?
a. Base records manager.
b. Chief of Office of Records.
c. Command records manager.
d. Functional area records manager.
(015) Who has the authority to appoint record custodians within an office of record?
a. Base records manager.
B. Chief of Office of Records.
c. Command records manager.
d. Functional area records manager.
(016) A logical group of organized data fields containing some type of useful information is known as a/an
a. file.
B. record.
c. database.
d. enterprise.
(016) A logical group of record is called a/an
A. file.
b. field.
c. database.
d. enterprise.
(016) An organized collection of data or data structures is known as a/an
a. file.
b. record.
C. database.
d. enterprise.
(016) Who is responsible for creating unique passwords for the office of primarily responsibility (OPR) records custodian?
a. Base records manager.
b. Chief of Office of Records.
c. Command records manager.
D. Functional area records manager.
(017) Marking the records for filing is considered which step of file management?
a. First step.
B. Second step.
c. Third step.
d. Final step.
(017) The primary purpose for maintaining records is to ensure
a. historical events are not forgotten.
b. the collection of data creates a wealth of information.
C. we can provide information to decision makers whenever and wherever it is needed.
d. data for individuals is readily available upon request and privacy act information is protected.
(018) What authorization generates a file disposition control label for each item listed on the office’s file plan?
a. National Archives and Records Administration (NARA)
b. Air Force Records Information Management System (AFRIMS).
c. Local operations instructions.
d. Command operations directives.
(018) What determines the cutoff for active records?
a. End period.
b. Archive date.
C. Retention period.
d. Superseded date.
(018) A comprehensive term that specifies the destruction, salvage, and donation of records, or the transfer to a staging area or records center; and the transfer of records from one organization to another is called a
a. retire.
b. archive.
c. acquisition.
D. disposition.
(019) For which exception will federal records centers accept records having less than 3 years of retention?
a. Casualties.
B. Base closures.
c. Deployed AF units.
d. Joint force operations.
(019) Which document is used for accountability purposes when retirement records are identified and prepared for federal records centers, staging areas or to transfer records to another organization?
a. AF Form 55.
b. AF Form 457.
c. Standard Form 50.
D. Standard Form 135.
(019) The proper way we destroy records to prevent compromise is by
a. placing them in approved staging containers.
b. shipping it to Federal records centers in approved containers.
c. altering the data on the records so in the event is compromised, it is recognizable.
D. any method such as tearing, burning, or shredding; as long as personal data is not recognizable and beyond reconstruction.